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Principles of Safety & Risk Management > Final Exam > Flashcards

Final Exam Flashcards

1
Q

Is it possible for students to receive text messages regarding emergency notifications? (T/F)

A

True

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2
Q

Which number enables you to activate a trace on a previous call?

A

*57

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3
Q

What is the minimum recommended distance of an evacuation zone for a bomb threat?

A

500 feet

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4
Q

In the event of severe weather, the provost can make a decision to close the campus to the public. (T/F)

A

False

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5
Q

What is the phone number to call if a fire alarm is activated accidentally?

A

608-342-1584

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6
Q

Which of these options is NOT recommended when dealing with a hostile intruder?

a) Sounding the fire alarm

b) Find a safe place to hide

c) Engage the intruder in a dialog

d) Run from the area

A

Sounding the fire alarm

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7
Q

A seriously injured person should not be moved unless they are in a threatening or dangerous situation. (T/F)

A

True

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8
Q

Which phone number is the best choice when there is an imminent danger regarding a person who is experiencing a psychological emergency?

A

911

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9
Q

A tornado watch is more serious than a tornado warning. (T/F)

A

False

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10
Q

Which is the following would NOT be a clue that you may have received a suspicious package?

a) The postmark corresponds with the return address

b) The package seems heavier than expected, given its size

c) There is no return address

d) There is a large amount of tape used to seal the package

A

The postmark corresponds with the return address

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11
Q

The National Safety Council (NSC) is a non-government, nonprofit, public service organization dedicated to safety in the industries of the United States. (T/F)

A

True

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12
Q

According to the NSC, approximately how many preventable deaths occurred in the U.S. in 2021?

A

250,000

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13
Q

In a workplace, there are typically many more near misses than unsafe acts. (T/F)

A

False

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14
Q

Who typically has the responsibility to provide resources and infrastructure to ensure safety in the workplace?

A

The Employer

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15
Q

Who typically has the responsibility to establish and maintain safety rules and procedures in the workplace?

A

The Supervisor

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16
Q

Which of the following is usually the most effective way to deal with a potential safety issue?

a) Design the hazard out

b) Use Personal Protective Equipment (PPE)

c) Train the employees about the hazard and its risks

d) Put up warning signs

A

Design the hazard out

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17
Q

According to the NSC, what was the approximate cost in the U.S. in 2021 related to safety issues?

A

$1200 billion

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18
Q

What is NOT an activity the NSC involves itself in?

a) Enforcing safety in the workplace

b) Providing consultation on hazard evaluation

c) Organizing Conferences

d) Developing health, safety and environmental publications

A

Enforcing safety in the workplace

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19
Q

A positive attitude toward safety will likely result in fewer accidents. (T/F)

A

True

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20
Q

What is NOT something the worker can do to ensure a safer work environment?

a) Ignoring the actions of his/her co-workers

b) Maintaining an orderly and clean work area

c) Making sure your tools are correct for the job and are in good condition

d) Having the right clothing and PPE for the Job

A

Ignoring the actions of his/her co-workers

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21
Q

If a worker has a 6 foot long lanyard and the anchor point is 5 feet below the D ring of the harness, what is the free fall distance?

A

11 feet

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22
Q

An 11 foot free fall distance is acceptable per OSHA. (T/F)

A

False

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23
Q

What is the total necessary fall clearance distance for a person wearing a 6 foot long lanyard with the anchor point 3 feet above the D-ring?

A

14.5 feet

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24
Q

What is the total fall clearance distance for a worker wearing a 2 foot long lanyard with the anchor point 1 foot below his D-ring?

A

14.5 feet

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25
Q

What is the total fall clearance distance for a person using a 3 foot lanyard where her D-ring is level with the anchor point?

A

14.5 feet

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26
Q

When using a PFAS, one has to evaluate the potential for swing fall hazards. (T/F)

A

True

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27
Q

What year was OSHA established?

A

1970

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28
Q

The mission of OSHA is to protect the heath and safety of workers. (T/F)

A

True

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29
Q

Which of these is NOT a source that can be used as the basis for a citation per the General Duty Clause?

a) A company’s annual report

b) Industry standards

c) Hazards recognized by similar employees

d) Equipment manuals

A

A company’s annual report

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30
Q

OSHA has no authority to protect workers from reporting unsafe conditions. (T/F)

A

False

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31
Q

Which of these is the correct method to report deaths to OSHA?

a) Call 1-800-321-OSHA

b) E-mail

c) Text message

A

Call 1-800-321-OSHA

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32
Q

Which of these is NOT the responsibility of the employee?

a) Provide their own required personal protective equipment (PPE)

b) Report hazards immediately to the supervisor

c) Read the OSHA poster in the workplace

d) Cooperate with an OSHA compliance officer

A

Provide their own required personal protective equipment (PPE)

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33
Q

One indirect cost of injuries and illness is employee morale. (T/F)

A

True

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34
Q

How do indirect costs of injuries and illness compare to direct costs?

A

Indirect costs are at least 4 times greater

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35
Q

Since 1970 (the year OSHA was established), how do fatalities compare with today?

A

Facilities have dropped by more than 65%

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36
Q

Which of these is considered a direct cost associated with safety?

a) Medical treatment bills

b) Absenteeism

c) Loss of productivity

A

Medical treatment bills

37
Q

The main purpose of a toeboard on a fixed fall protection guard is to prevent items on the floor from dropping to the level below. (T/F)

A

True

38
Q

What is the number one hazard on construction sites?

A

Falls

39
Q

Which of these are an acceptable height of a top rail on a fixed fall protection guard?

a) 42’’

b) 36’’

c) 48’’

d) 24’’

A

42’’

40
Q

What is the minimum height of a potential fall where a person fall arrest system is required?

A

6 feet

41
Q

According to OSHA, what is the minimum diameter of a floor hole that needs to be covered?

A

2 inches

42
Q

Studies have shown that people who get less than 6 hours of sleep per night have reaction times of about

A

4 seconds

43
Q

Between 2012 and 2021, Tyson Foods accounted for what % of injuries in the U.S. associated with ammonia leaks?

A

25%

44
Q

Which of the following is NOT a potential injury from ammonia exposure?

a) Blunt force trauma

b) Lung damage

c) Skin irritation

d) Eye damage

A

Blunt force trauma

45
Q

Between 2012 and 2021, among all U.S. companies in the meat processing business, what % of ammonia injuries did Tyson plants account for?

A

57%

46
Q

In regard to the ammonia leak incident at the Hope, AR Tyson plant, which of the following was NOT a major issue contributing to the accident and the associated injuries, according to OSHA?

a) Excessive pressure in the ammonia piping system

b) Inadequate check of the welded attachment on the ammonia piping system

c) Lack of ammonia alarms

d) No training of employees regarding ammonia safety

A

Excessive pressure in the ammonia piping system

47
Q

Regarding the Hope, AR plant ammonia leak incident, how much did Tyson end up paying in fines?

A

$77,000

48
Q

According to the Center for Chemical Process Safety, what are 2 benefits of safety are qualitative in nature?

a) Corporate social responsibility and business flexibility

b) Loss prevention and sustainable growth

c) Loss prevention and business flexibility

d) Sustainable growth and corporate social responsibility

A

Corporate social responsibility and business flexibility

49
Q

Which of the following statements is correct, as estimated by OSHA?

a) In the U.S., employers pay almost $1 billion per week for direct workers’ compensation costs alone.

b) In the U.S., employers pay almost $1 billion per year for direct workers’ compensation costs alone.

c) In the U.S., direct and indirect costs of safety total $1 billion per week.

d) In the U.S., it is not possible to make a reasonable estimate of direct and indirect costs of safety.

A

In the U.S., employers pay almost $1 billion per week for direct workers’ compensation costs alone.

50
Q

According to OSHA, which of these is NOT an example of an indirect cost of safety?

a) Legal services

b) Lost productivity

c) Absenteeism

d) Repairs of damaged property

A

Legal Services

51
Q

OSHA’s safety consulting services are available at no cost to small business owners. (T/F)

A

True

52
Q

Multiple assessments estimate that the return on investment for safety results exceeds 300%. (T/F)

A

True

53
Q

Employers do not have to evaluate confined spaces if workers are not expected to enter them. (T/F)

A

False

54
Q

Which of these is NOT a criteria for defining a confined space?

a) The space is limited in size such that fewer than 5 people can occupy it.

b) The space is large enough for an employee’s entire body to enter.

c) The space is not designed for continuous occupancy.

d) The space has limited or restricted means of entry or exit.

A

The space is limited in size such that fewer than 5 people can occupy it.

55
Q

A room having a long distance to exit might be considered a confined space. (T/F)

A

True

56
Q

A submarine might be considered a confined space. (T/F)

A

False

57
Q

Which of these are NOT among the criteria for defining a permit-required confined space?

a) The space contains sensitive instruments or equipment.

b) The space has a potential atmospheric hazard.

c) The space has a hazardous configuration.

d) The space has “other” health or safety hazards.

A

The space contains sensitive instruments or equipment.

58
Q

Which of these conditions would likely NOT cause a confined space to require a permit?

a) Obstacles that make it difficult for the worker to move around

b) Low temperatures

c) Slippery Surfaces

d) Poor lighting

A

Obstacles that make it difficult for the worker to move around

59
Q

How are employees supposed to be informed about where confined spaces exist?

a) There is a “danger” sign posted at the confined space entrance.

b) They are informed by their supervisor.

c) There is a memo about the confined space in the break room.

d) There is a flashing light at the confined space.

A

There is a “danger” sing posted at the confined space entrance

60
Q

Which of these items is NOT required for an entry permit?

a) The ages of the workers authorized to enter the space

b) The duration of the permit

c) Acceptable entry conditions

d) Entry supervisor signature

A

The ages of the workers authorized to enter the space

61
Q

Which of these are considered 1 of the duties of a permit-required confined space attendant?

a) Can perform non-entry rescue if necessary.

b) Can perform rescue in the confined space if necessary.

c) Keeps space clear of unauthorized personnel.

d) Verifies that all tests required by the permit have been conducted.

A

Can perform non-entry rescue if necessary

62
Q

Which of these would NOT be a reason for the permit-required confined space attendant to order an evacuation of the space?

a) The workers inside the space have a disagreement about the tasks they are supposed to perform.

b) The attendant has to leave the area.

c) There is a situation outside the space that could affect the safety of the entrants.

d) The entrants exhibit behavior associated with symptoms of the hazard.

A

The workers inside the space have a disagreement about the tasks they are supposed to perform.

63
Q

Which of these are recommended safety tips to follow when using a tree stand for hunting?

a) All 3

b) Wear a fall arrest system

c) Use a rope connection for climbing up to the stand

d) Check the condition of ladder rungs

A

All 3

64
Q

Which of these is NOT considered a key safety warning device for farms?

a) Decibel meter

b) Smoke alarm

c) Carbon monoxide detector

d) Severe weather radio

A

Decibel meter

65
Q

Is it normal for the shield on a PTO to spin during operation? (T/F)

A

False

66
Q

Which of these is the best way to chock the wheels of a trailer?

a) Chock both in front and behind the rear axle wheel

b) Chock behind the rear axle wheel if the trailer is parked on an uphill slope

c) If the parking brake is set on the vehicle and the engine is off, it is not necessary to chock the trailer wheels

d) Chock both in front and behind the front axle

A

Chock both in front and behind the rear axle wheel

67
Q

Which of these is NOT one of the most common causes of death for children on farms?

a) Poisonous chemicals

b) Drowning

c) Machinery

d) Tractor and motor vehicles

A

Poisonous chemicals

68
Q

The number to call for locating underground electrical cables is 811. (T/F)

A

True

69
Q

Which of these is NOT recommended good practice to maintain electrical safety?

a) Cut the ground prong off a plug – they are not necessary

b) Keep cords protected and out of traffic areas

c) Keep electrical devices out of damp areas

d) Apply “look up” decals to tall pieces of equipment

A

Cut the ground prong off a plug – they are not necessary

70
Q

What is the reason why an ATV driver and passengers should lean into a turn?

a) To reduce the possibility of a rollover due to shifting the center of gravity of the vehicle

b) So the driver and passengers don’t collide heads

c) There is no reason why an ATV rider should lean into a turn

d) It makes the ride more enjoyable

A

To reduce the possibility of a rollover due to shifting the center of gravity of the vehicle

71
Q

Which of these is an acceptable practice when working around equipment with PTO’s?

a) None of these are acceptable practices

b) Wear loose clothing

c) Greasing the machine near the PTO while it is in operation

d) Keeping the PTO engaged after the task is completed

A

None of these are acceptable practices

72
Q

In the U.S., there are about 40 to 50 reported grain bin entrapments per year. (T/F)

A

False

73
Q

Which type of machine motion is considered the most dangerous?

a) Rotating shafts

b) Reciprocating motion

c) Transverse motion

A

Rotating shafts

74
Q

Which type of guard automatically shuts off or disengages when it is opened or moved?

a) Interlocked

b) Adjustable

c) Fixed

d) Self-adjusting

A

Interlocked

75
Q

What is the purpose of a lock out/tag out program?

a) To prevent unexpected energization, startup or release of stored energy in order to prevent injury to employees during servicing and maintenance activities

b) To make employees aware of equipment hazards

c) To provide employees with instructions on the correct operation of machines

d) To provide feedback to management on equipment reliability issues

A

To prevent unexpected energization, startup or release of stored energy in order to prevent injury to employees during servicing and maintenance activities

76
Q

Who may remove a lock out/tag out device?

a) The person who’s name is on the device

b) The area supervisor

c) The safety representative

d) The machine operator

A

The persons who’s name is on the device

77
Q

What is often overlooked when identifying workplace hazards?

a) Complacency

b) Mobile Machinery

c) Working at heights

d) Chemical Products

A

Complacency

78
Q

What are employers NOT required to provide to employees when dealing with chemicals?

a) Less hazardous chemical alternatives

b) Training on the nature and potential hazards of the chemical

c) The Material Safety Data Sheet (MSDS)

d) Personal Protective Equipment (PPE) appropriate to protect against the hazards of the chemical

A

Less hazardous chemical alternatives

79
Q

What is an example of workplace harassment? Choose the best answer from the list below.

a) All of these are examples

b) Insults

c) Belittling

d) Promotion blocking

A

All of these are examples

80
Q

Which of these is NOT a main cause of slips?

a) Obstruction in walking areas

b) Slippery Surfaces

c) Materials on the shoes

d) Materials on the floor

A

Obstruction in walking areas

81
Q

What is considered “working at heights” when using scaffolding or ladders?

a) 9 feet or higher

b) 3 feet or higher

c) 12 feet or higher

d) 6 feet or higher

A

9 feet or higher

82
Q

What is a good strategy for employers to implement for employees working alone?

a) Establish a working alone communications policy

b) No additional strategies are necessary from normal employee training

c) Do not allow employees to work alone

A

Establish a working alone communications policy

83
Q

When dealing with a potentially violent person, a good tactic is to provide a reassuring touch to that person. (T/F)

A

False

84
Q

In the context of using fire extinguishers, what does the acronym “PASS” stand for?

a) Pull the pin, Aim at the base of the fire, Squeeze the handle, Sweep from side to side

b) Push the handle, Aim at the base of the fire, Sweep from side to side, Stop when the fire goes out

c) Pull the extinguisher from its storage location, Adjust the nozzle, Start spraying the fire, Stay back from the flames

d) Pull the pin, Aim at the middle of the fire, Start spraying the fire, Sweep from side to side

A

Pull the pin, Aim at the base of the fire, Squeeze the handle, Sweep from side to side

85
Q

When dealing with a potentially violent person, a good strategy may be to ask questions or offer an apology even if you are not the source of the person’s anger. (T/F)

A

True

86
Q

If a fire alarm goes off in your building, what is the best action to take?

a) Evacuate the building and go to a designated meeting point

b) Try to locate the fire and help it out

c) Ignore the alarm, as the vast majority of fire alarms are false

A

Evacuate the building and go to a designated meeting point

86
Q

Which of these is NOT a situation where “shelter in place” should be used?

a) Earthquake

b) Atmospheric release of a biological containment

c) Radiation leak

d) Atmospheric release of a chemical containment

A

Earthquake

86
Q

How many amps does it take to electrocute (kill) a person?

a) 1 amp

b) 10 amps

c) 3 amps

d) 0.1 to 0.2 amps

A

0.1 to 0.2 amps

Principles of Safety & Risk Management (1 decks)

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