final exam Flashcards

1
Q

true or false:

You MUST check an airway assessment on each patient; regardless of anesthetic management

A

true

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2
Q

Components of the Airway Exam

A
  • Length of upper incisors
  • Dental health
  • Relationship of upper incisors to lower incisors (overbite or underbite)
  • Lower mandibular sliding
  • Between teeth/gum distance
  • Tongue size
  • Visibility of uvula
  • Facial hair (not adequate mask-seal)
  • Thyromental distance with neck extension
  • Length of neck
  • Neck thickness (the thicker, the worst)
  • ROM of head/neck (backward or fixed movement is the issue, not lateral movement!)
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3
Q

** remember what the question is asking on the exam: difficult mask, airway, intubation!

A

yep!

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4
Q

Difficult AIRWAY conditions

A

craniofacial abnormalities

ortho defects (TMJ)

morbid obesity

scarring

cleft palate/high arch palate

neuro defects

pharyngeal problems (large adenoids, tongue, abscesses)

multiple genetic syndromes

laryngeal disease (papillomas, stenosis, malformation)

spinal and neck abnormalities

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5
Q

difficult MASK conditions

A

age > 55
facial hair
history of snoring/OSA
edentulous (no teeth)
large tongue, tonsils, adenoids
obesity (BMI > or equal to 26)
facial dressings
massive jaw
poor neck extension
pharyngeal pathology
facial deformities

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6
Q

having 2 OR MORE are indicator of at least minor difficulty for MASKING:

A

age > 55
BMI > or equal to 26
history of snoring/OSA
edentulous
facial hair

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7
Q

true or false for masking:

A COMBO of factors is usually the biggest risk!

NO SINGLE test should be used exclusively

A

true

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8
Q

Soft palate
tonsillar fauces
ALL/FULL uvula
gap above tongue

A

Mallampati I

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9
Q

Soft palate
tonsillar fauces
MOST of uvula

A

Mallampati II

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10
Q

Soft palate
BASE of uvula

A

Mallampati III

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11
Q

Soft palate not visualized, only hard palate visible

A

Mallampati IV

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12
Q

what are the 6 important things for patient with mallampati

A

seated upright
neutral
mouth open as widely as possible
tongue max protruded
no phonation/speaking
examiner at eye level

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13
Q

true or false:

do NOT use mallampati as a standalone

A

true

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14
Q

Distance between prominence of the THYROID cartilage and the bony point of the lower mandibular border

A

thyromental distance

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15
Q

thyromental distance

< less than ___ cm

A

< LESS THAN 7 cm
(6 or less is difficult intubation!)

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16
Q

Degree of mouth opening, function of TMJ mobility

A

Interincisor Distance/oral opening

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17
Q

Interincisor Distance

< less than ___ cm

A

< LESS THAN 4 cm between upper and lower incisors
(3 or less! difficult intubation!)

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18
Q

Evaluate “sniffing position” for optimal intubation

Aligns oral, pharyngeal, and laryngeal axes

A

atlanto-occipital function

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19
Q

atlanto occipital degrees

< ____ degrees is a warning sign

A

< 80 degrees is a warning sign

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20
Q

Have patient slide jaw forward, bite upper lip above vermillion border

Indicates ability to manipulate laryngoscope

A

MANDIBULAR mobility

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21
Q

Objective measurement of head extension

Distance between UPPER border of the MANUBRIUM sterni and the mental process/lower mandibular border with the head in full extension and the mouth closed

A

sternomental distance

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22
Q

sternomental distance

< less than ___ cm

A

< 12.5 cm
12.4 cm or less is difficult!

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23
Q

true or false:

ALWAYS document dental issues preoperatively & inform patient of possible dental damage risks

A

true

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24
Q

what is the MOST frequent reason for anesthesia related legal claims

A

dental injuries

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25
Q

pediatrics:
true or false:

nothing is reliable (example: mallampati)

A

true

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26
Q

What is the reason that people die

A

lack of oxygen

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27
Q

true or false
MULTIPLE factors should be used, no one factor is sufficient as a stand-alone

A

true

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28
Q

true or false
EVERYONE must have an airway assessment of some kind BEFOREHAND

A

true

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29
Q

Which factor contributes to an assessment of a likely difficult airway

A

Atlanto-occipital joint extension of 20 degrees

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30
Q

what indicates TMJ mobility

A

interincisor distance/oral opening

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31
Q

what are the 3 minimum things to do for physical exam

A

heart, lungs, airway

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32
Q

true or false:
previous anesthesia records do NOT carry over between hospitals

A

true

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33
Q

AANA standard I

A

perform + document a thorough
preanesthesia assessment and evaluation

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34
Q

AANA standard II

A

obtain informed consent

(otherwise, this is grounds for assault and battery)

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35
Q

AANA standard III

A

patient-specific plan for anesthesia care

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36
Q

when to evaluate patient:

High disease (dz) severity

A

BEFORE day of surgery

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37
Q

when to evaluate patient:

LOW dz severity + HIGH surgical acuity

A

BEFORE day of surgery

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38
Q

when to evaluate patient:

LOW dz severity + LOW to MED surgical acuity

A

ON or BEFORE day of surgery

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39
Q

in an ideal world, pre-anesthetic evaluation should occur:

A

before the day of surgery

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40
Q

true or false
during the preop interview, discuss the surgical PROCESS, not the surgical procedure

A

true!

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41
Q

true or false

Special considerations must be made for PEDS, NEURO IMPAIRED, and NON-ENGLISH

A

true

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42
Q

what are 6 examples of increased risk of latex allergy

A

Chronically exposed

Spina bifida hx

> 9 surgical procedures

Tropical food allergies

Hx of intra-op anaphylactic event of unknown origin

Healthcare workers (?)

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43
Q

↑ HR, BP, myocardial contractility & excitability, O2 consumption, PVR

↓ coronary blood flow

1/2 life: 40-60 minutes

A

nicotine

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44
Q

Binds to Hgb (250-300 times higher affinity than O2)

Altered O2 supply/demand (LEFT shift: ↓ transport to tissue d/t HGBs affinity for CO over O2)

½ life: 130-190 min

A

carbon monoxide

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45
Q

smoking patients are ___x more likely to have post-op respiratory complications

A

6x

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46
Q

how long should a SMOKER have cessation

A

8 weeks

decrease resp complications
and
normalize liver enzymes

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47
Q

how long is the MINIMUM for smoking cessation

A

12 hours

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48
Q

Chronic excessive alcohol is __-__x ↑ risk of peri-op dysrhythmias, infection, poor wound healing, bleeding and withdrawal syndrome

A

2-5x

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49
Q

how long should a person with ALCOHOL have cessation

A

4 weeks

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50
Q

what are the 4 questions for alcoholics

A

CAGE questions:

  1. Do you feel you should Cut down?
  2. Do others Annoy you when they criticize your drinking habits?
  3. Do you feel Guilty?
  4. Do you need an Eye-opener?
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51
Q

what are most frequent illicit drugs

A

marijuana and cocaine

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52
Q

Pupils abnormally constricted (________) or dilated (_________________) or nystagmus (_____)

A

constricted = opioids
dilated = amphetamines
nystagmus = PCP

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53
Q

what is the biggest alcoholic anesthesia risk

A

Acute abuse or withdrawal

Cancel elective procedures if suspected!

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54
Q

Long-term use of steroids cause __________ and ____________ dysfunction

A

hepatic and endocrine

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55
Q

with patients on anabolic steroids, preop ______ should be done

A

LFTs

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56
Q

NPO guidelines:

Meal: __-__ hours

A

7-8 hours

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57
Q

NPO guidelines:

LIGHT meal: toast, clears, non-human milk: ___ hours

A

6

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58
Q

NPO guidelines:

Breast milk: ___ hours

A

4 hours

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59
Q

NPO guidelines:

Clear liquids: __ hours

A

2

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60
Q

NPO guidelines:

Preop medications

A

Take with water 1 hour prior to surgery

o Up to 150ml for adults
o Up to 75 ml for children

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61
Q

NPO guidelines:

if you have diabetes, _____ your oral diabetes med

A

HOLD it

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62
Q

NPO guidelines:

take ____ of your insulin dose

A

1/2

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63
Q

NPO guidelines:

diabetes: drink gatorade ___ hours prior to surgery

A

2

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64
Q

BMI 25-30

A

overweight

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65
Q

BMI 30-35

A

moderate obesity

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66
Q

BMI 35-40

A

severe obesity

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67
Q

BMI >40

A

morbid obesity

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68
Q

BMI calculation

A

mass (kg) / height (m2)

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69
Q

true or false:
Pre-op testing, EKG, sleep study for obese patients may be overkill

A

true

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70
Q

Chronic anti-inflammatories for arthritis: evaluate for ______________

A

bleeding (coags?)

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71
Q

when do patients need stress dosing for steroids

A

> 20 mg hydrocortisone Qday in the past year

adrenal insufficiency meds

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72
Q

signs of increased ICP

A

headache
N/V
Altered mental status
HTN with decreased HR (avoid pre-op sedation)

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73
Q

low risk surgeries

A

endoscopic, GYN <1%

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74
Q

moderate risk surgeries

A

head/neck, neuro 1-5%

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75
Q

major risk surgeries

A

aortic, major vascular >5%

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76
Q

HTN

A

SBP >140
DBP >90

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77
Q

what 2 drugs are WITHHELD day of surgery

A

diuretics
and
ACE inhibitors: _______pril

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78
Q

cardiac consult needed (7)

A

Known ischemic heart disease

Hx of coronary stents

Active LEFT ventricular dysfunction

Valvular disease

Mitral valve prolapses: ask how severe (99% are skinny white women)

Dysrhythmias

Implanted Electronic Devices

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79
Q

___% of adults have resp disease

A

25%

2x more likely to have complications

80
Q

true or false
Isoenzyme 5 fractions
is more specific for liver disease

A

true

81
Q

what is the most accurate test for renal function

A

creatinine clearance

82
Q

Insulin dependent diabetes

A

IDDM (Type 1)

83
Q

NON Insulin dependent diabetes

A

NIDDM (Type 2)

84
Q

what are 2 important things for patients with diabetes

A

insulin protocol (endocrine consult?) morning of surgery

intra-op BG monitoring

85
Q

true or false

ASA physical status classification IDEALLY represents PREoperative health status
(NOT anesthetic or surgical risk)

A

true

86
Q

healthy, NO comorbidities

A

ASA Physical Status 1

87
Q

mild CONTROLLED systemic disease

smoker, HTN, obesity, pregnant, DM, asthma

age >65 years, < 3 months (age range varies by institution)

A

ASA Physical Status 2

88
Q

SEVERE systemic disease; POORLY controlled disorders

hx of CAD, dysrhythmia, renal failure ON DIALYSIS

age >85 years, < 1 month

A

ASA Physical Status 3

89
Q

severe systemic disease, constant threat to life

recent MI <3 months, unstable angina, severe CHF, severe COPD, hepatic failure/ESLD, ESRD

A

ASA Physical Status 4

90
Q

moribund, not expected to survive without the procedure

A

ASA Physical Status 5

91
Q

declared brain-dead, presenting for organ donation

A

ASA Physical Status 6

92
Q

emergent procedures, added to the end

A

E

(example: open fracture healthy patient, 1E)

93
Q

Chronic renal failure/dialysis

A

3

94
Q

GERD

A

2

95
Q

Hx of MI (8 mo ago)

A

3

96
Q

Hx of MI (2 mo ago)

A

4

97
Q

anticoagulant therapy

A

2

98
Q

controlled IDDM

A

2

99
Q

controlled asthma

A

2

100
Q

healthy 60 year old

A

1

101
Q

healthy 9 month old

A

1

102
Q

healthy 87 year old

A

3

103
Q

healthy 68 year old

A

2

104
Q

healthy 2 month old

A

2

105
Q

healthy 2 week old

A

3

106
Q

smoker

A

2

107
Q

obese with BMI 30-40

A

2

108
Q

obese with BMI >40

A

3

109
Q

chronic a fib

A

2

110
Q

controlled epilepsy

A

2

111
Q

appendicitis

A

trick question

112
Q

alcoholic

A

3

113
Q

social alcohol drinker

A

2

114
Q

pregnancy

A

2

115
Q

CHF with edema

A

3

116
Q

CHF with O2, wheelchair bound

A

4

117
Q

HIV

A

1! or 2

118
Q

AIDS

A

3

119
Q

hemophilia

A

2

120
Q

poorly controlled diabetes

A

3

121
Q

what does time out do

A

wrong site, wrong procedure, wrong patient

122
Q

Are there “Benefits” of Routine Testing

A

NO

very small likelihood of finding a problem

plan altered only 0.6% of the time

123
Q

true or false
Routine screening is not cost-effective or predictive and is unnecessary with no suspect patient history!

A

true

124
Q

true or false
Utilize SELECTIVE pre-op testing (based on records, interview, PE, surgical procedure)

A

true

125
Q

true or false
Inconclusive data to advise for regional techniques

Consider standardized protocols for regionals

A

true

126
Q

when is UCG/HCG done

A

MUST be done the
day of surgery

127
Q

in general, labs are acceptable up to how many months

A

within last 6 months is great! if no patient change in health status

128
Q

What is the most common cause of anesthetic complications

A

Inadequate preoperative planning

129
Q

Which of the following descriptions of daily activity would suggest that a patient has the most significant cardiopulmonary reserve

A

Swims laps regularly

130
Q

what are the 7 variables for history of present illness

A

location
quality
quantity
timing
setting
aggravating/alleviating factor
associated manifestations

131
Q

“How would you describe the sensation?” Aching, sharp, dull, etc.

A

quality

132
Q

o Intensity
o Frequency
o Number
o Volume
o Size
0-10 range

A

quantity

133
Q

includes onset, duration, frequency,

A

timing

134
Q

test visual fields using what

A

confrontration

135
Q

should GLP-1 agonists be held prior to surgery

A

yes

Ozempic
Trulicity

136
Q

what does jugular venous distension represent

A

Right side of the heart (right atrium, RVEDP, CVP)

137
Q

what can elevated jvp mean

A

acute/chronic heart failure, tricuspid stenosis, pulm HTN, SVC obstruction, cardiac tampanode, pericarditis

138
Q

low frequency =

A

bell

139
Q

high frequency =

A

diaphragm

140
Q

orthopnea

A

SOB when laying supine or exerting

left heart failure, obstructive pulm disease

141
Q

PMI

A

point of max impulse

1-2.5 cm normally

5th ICS left midclavicular

> 10 can indicate LVH, MI, HF

142
Q

carotid murmur

during systole =

after systole =

A

during systole = systolic murmur

after systole = diastolic murmur

143
Q

S3, S4, and MVP is best heard in what position

A

left lateral decubitus (mitral)

144
Q

aortic regurg is best heard in what position

A

sitting up leaning forward

145
Q

S1 is best heard where

A

apex (mitral area)

146
Q

S2 is best heard where

A

base (aortic area)

147
Q

Split S1

A

tricuspid valve

148
Q

Split S2

A

pulmonic valve (varies with respiration)

149
Q

2 tests for mitral regurg vs aortic stenosis

A

squat test (louder = aortic stenosis)

valsauver (louder = mitral regurg)

150
Q

what is a thrill associated with

A

murmur

151
Q

paradoxical pulse

A

> 10

drop in systolic BP with inspiration

associated with cardiac tamponade

152
Q

diastolic murmur

A

valvular heart disease

153
Q

right lung has how many lobes

A

3

154
Q

Rovsing’s sign

A

press down on LLQ, pain on RLQ (opposite side)

appendicitis

155
Q

Psoas sign

A

hand on right knee
raise the thigh against the hand

156
Q

obturator

A

flex thigh at right hip, rotate internally

157
Q

liver span

A

6-12 cm R midclavicular
4-8 cm R midsternal

158
Q

pain that is relieved with rest

A

intermittent claudication

(arterial issue)

159
Q

heel to toe in a straight line

A

tandem walking

160
Q

point to point tests (3)

A

finger to finger
finger to nose
heel to shin

161
Q

loss of vibration

A

peripheral neuropathy

162
Q

stereogenosis

A

identify object

163
Q

graphesthesia

A

identify number

164
Q

tactile agnosia

A

inability to recognize objects by touch

165
Q

flex neck, the hip and knee should stay relaxed

A

brudzinskis

166
Q

flex the patient’s leg at both the hip and the knee, and then slowly extend the leg and straighten the knee

A

kernigs

167
Q

tennis elbow, aka

A

LATERAL epicondylitis

168
Q

anterior drawer sign

A

anterior cruciate

169
Q

medial collateral ligament

A

valgus test

170
Q

lateral collateral ligament

A

varus test (adduction)

171
Q

mcmurray test

A

medial and lateral meniscus

172
Q

tinels

A

tapping median nerve

173
Q

phalens

A

full flexion 60 seconds

174
Q

thenar atrophy

A

median nerve

175
Q

hypothenar atrophy

A

ulnar nerve

176
Q

nodes for OSTEOarthritis

A

heberden (DIP)
bouchard (PIP)

177
Q

rheumatoid arthritis

A

DIP, MCP, wrist

178
Q

what signals achilles rupture

A

“gun shot”
absent plantar flexion

179
Q

entry point for retinal vessels

A

physiologic cup

180
Q

darkened circular area surrounding the point of central vision

A

fovea

181
Q

absence of a red reflex is suggestive of the following EXCEPT:

A

glaucoma

182
Q

Vesicular lung sounds are normally heard over

A

most of both lungs

183
Q

Broncho-vesicular lung sounds are normally

A

between the scapulae

184
Q

Bronchial lung sounds are normally heard

A

large, proximal airways

185
Q

when auscultating lung sounds, “ee” heard as “ay” is called

A

egophony

186
Q

Recent studies show that S3 corresponds to

A

Deceleration of inflow across the MITRAL valve

187
Q

Recent studies show that S4 corresponds to

A

Decreased compliance due to L ventricular stiffness

188
Q

Which of the following accurately describes the use of “squatting” during exam of the heart

A

Squatting is used to help identify mitral valve prolapse and distinguish cardiomyopathy from aortic stenosis.

189
Q

S1 corresponds to closure of

A

MITRAL

190
Q

S2 corresponds to closure of

A

AORTIC

191
Q

An abdominal bruit suggests

A

aortic aneurysm

192
Q

The 2 phases of gait to be observed are

A

stance and swing

193
Q

Which of the following is NOT a characteristic finding with scoliosis

A

Symptoms usually appear BEFORE the curvature can be seen

this is wrong!

194
Q

During the finger-to-nose test, initial overshooting with eventually reaching the mark is called

A

dysmetria

195
Q

top 3 common causes of pain in elderly

A

1) Musculoskeletal (back, joints, nighttime leg pain)

2) Headache, neuralgias (d/t diabetes and shingles)

3) Cancer