Final Exam Flashcards

Question 1

Q

Which two techniques are used in a smurf attack? (Choose two.)
session hijacking

reflection
amplification
botnets
resource exhaustion

Answer

A

reflection
amplification

Question 2

Q

What are three goals of a port scan attack? (Choose three.)

to discover system passwords
to identify operating systems
to identify active services
to identify peripheral configurations
to determine potential vulnerabilities
to disable used ports and services

Answer

A

to identify operating systems
to identify active services
to determine potential vulnerabilities

Question 3

Q

When establishing a network profile for an organization, which element describes the time between the establishment of a data flow and its termination?

routing protocol convergence
total throughput
session duration
bandwidth of the Internet connection

Answer

A

session duration

Question 4

Q

In addressing an identified risk, which strategy aims to shift some of the risk to other parties?

risk avoidance
risk retention
risk reduction
risk sharing

Answer

A

risk sharing

Question 5

Q

A computer is presenting a user with a screen requesting payment before the user data is allowed to be accessed by the same user. What type of malware is this?

a type of virus
a type of worm
a type of ransomware
a type of logic bomb

Answer

A

a type of ransomware

Question 6

Q

What characterizes a threat actor?

They are all highly-skilled individuals.
They always try to cause some harm to an individual or organization.
They always use advanced tools to launch attacks.
They all belong to organized crime.

Answer

A

They always try to cause some harm to an individual or organization

Question 7

Q

What subnet mask is represented by the slash notation /20?

255.255.255.248
255.255.224.0
255.255.255.192
255.255.240.0
255.255.255.0

Answer

A

The slash notation /20 represents a subnet mask with 20 1s.

This would translate to: 11111111.11111111.11110000.0000, which in turn would convert into 255.255.240.0.

Question 8

Q

A device has been assigned the IPv6 address of 2001:0db8:cafe:4500:1000:00d8:0058:00ab/64. Which is the network identifier of the device?

1000:00d8:0058:00ab
2001
2001:0db8:cafe:4500:1000:00d8:0058:00ab
2001:0db8:cafe:4500:1000
2001:0db8:cafe:4500

Answer

A

2001:0db8:cafe:4500:1000

Question 9

Q

Refer to the exhibit. If Host1 were to transfer a file to the server, what layers of the TCP/IP model would be used?

only application and Internet layers
only application, transport, network, data link, and physical layers
application, session, transport, network, data link, and physical layers
application, transport, Internet, and network access layers
only Internet and network access layers
only application, Internet, and network access layers

Answer

A

application, transport, Internet, and network access layers

Question 10

Q

What best describes the destination IPv4 address that is used by multicasting?

a single IP multicast address that is used by all destinations in a group
an IP address that is unique for each destination in the group
a 48 bit address that is determined by the number of members in the multicast group
a group address that shares the last 23 bits with the source IPv4 address

Answer

A

a single IP multicast address that is used by all destinations in a group

Question 11

Q

A threat actor has identified the potential vulnerability of the web server of an organization and is building an attack. What will the threat actor possibly do to build an attack weapon?

Collect credentials of the web server developers and administrators.
Install a webshell on the web server for persistent access.
Obtain an automated tool in order to deliver the malware payload through the vulnerability.
Create a point of persistence by adding services.

Answer

A

Obtain an automated tool in order to deliver the malware payload through the vulnerability.

Question 12

Q

Which type of data would be considered an example of volatile data?

web browser cache
log files
memory registers
temp files

Answer

A

memory registers

Question 13

Q

What type of attack targets an SQL database using the input field of a user?

XML injection
SQL injection
buffer overflow
Cross-site scripting

Answer

A

SQL injection

Question 14

Q

What network attack seeks to create a DoS for clients by preventing them from being able to obtain a DHCP lease?

CAM table attack
DHCP spoofing
IP address spoofing
DHCP starvation

Answer

A

DHCP starvation

Question 15

Q

Which wireless parameter is used by an access point to broadcast frames that include the SSID?

passive mode
active mode
channel setting
security mode

Answer

A

passive mode

Question 16

Q

How can statistical data be used to describe or predict network behavior?

by displaying alert messages that are generated by Snort
by comparing normal network behavior to current network behavior
by recording conversations between network endpoints
by listing results of user web surfing activities

Answer

A

by comparing normal network behavior to current network behavior

Question 17

Q

Which Windows Event Viewer log includes events regarding the operation of drivers, processes, and hardware?

application logs
security logs
setup logs
system logs

Answer

A

system logs

Question 18

Q

What is the primary objective of a threat intelligence platform (TIP)?

to provide a specification for an application layer protocol that allows the communication of CTI over HTTPS
to provide a security operations platform that integrates and enhances diverse security tools and threat intelligence
to aggregate the data in one place and present it in a comprehensible and usable format
to provide a standardized schema for specifying, capturing, characterizing, and communicating events and properties of network operations

Answer

A

to provide a security operations platform that integrates and enhances diverse security tools and threat intelligence

Question 19

Q

An IT enterprise is recommending the use of PKI applications to securely exchange information between the employees. In which two cases might an organization use PKI applications to securely exchange information between users? (Choose two.)

HTTPS web service
file and directory access permission
802.1x authentication
FTP transfers
local NTP server

Answer

A

file and directory access permission
802.1x authentication

Explanation: The Public Key Infrastructure (PKI) is a third party-system referred to as a certificate authority or CA. The PKI is the framework used to securely exchange information between parties.

Question 20

Q

Which two statements describe the use of asymmetric algorithms? (Choose two.)

If a private key is used to encrypt the data, a private key must be used to decrypt the data.
If a public key is used to encrypt the data, a public key must be used to decrypt the data.
Public and private keys may be used interchangeably.
If a private key is used to encrypt the data, a public key must be used to decrypt the data.
If a public key is used to encrypt the data, a private key must be used to decrypt the data.

Answer

A

If a private key is used to encrypt the data, a public key must be used to decrypt the data.
If a public key is used to encrypt the data, a private key must be used to decrypt the data.

Question 21

Q

Which measure can a security analyst take to perform effective security monitoring against network traffic encrypted by SSL technology?

Require remote access connections through IPsec VPN.
Deploy a Cisco SSL Appliance.
Deploy a Cisco ASA.
Use a Syslog server to capture network traffic.

Answer

A

Deploy a Cisco SSL Appliance

Question 22

Q

What are two characteristics of the SLAAC method for IPv6 address configuration? (Choose two.)

Clients send router advertisement messages to routers to request IPv6 addressing.
IPv6 addressing is dynamically assigned to clients through the use of ICMPv6.
This stateful method of acquiring an IPv6 address requires at least one DHCPv6 server.
The default gateway of an IPv6 client on a LAN will be the link-local address of the router interface attached to the LAN.
Router solicitation messages are sent by the router to offer IPv6 addressing to clients.

Answer

A

The default gateway of an IPv6 client on a LAN will be the link-local address of the router interface attached to the LAN.
IPv6 addressing is dynamically assigned to clients through the use of ICMPv6.

Explanation: With SLAAC, the default gateway for IPv6 clients will be the link-local address of the router interface that is attached to the client LAN. The IPv6 addressing is dynamically assigned via the ICMPv6 protocol.

Question 23

Q

Which two ICMPv6 messages are used during the Ethernet MAC address resolution process? (Choose two.)

router solicitation
neighbor advertisement
router advertisement
neighbor solicitation
echo request

Answer

A

neighbor advertisement
neighbor solicitation

Question 24

Q

Which device supports the use of SPAN to enable monitoring of malicious activity?

Cisco IronPort
Cisco Security Agent
Cisco Catalyst switch
Cisco NAC

Answer

A

Cisco Catalyst switch

Question 25

Q

What are the two ways threat actors use NTP? (Choose two.)

Threat actors use NTP systems to direct DDoS attacks.
They place iFrames on a frequently used corporate web page.
They encode stolen data as the subdomain portion where the nameserver is under control of an attacker.
They place an attachment inside an email message.
They attack the NTP infrastructure in order to corrupt the information used to log the attack.

Answer

A

They attack the NTP infrastructure in order to corrupt the information used to log the attack.
Threat actors use NTP systems to direct DDoS attacks.

Question 26

Q

Which two network protocols can be used by a threat actor to exfiltrate data in traffic that is disguised as normal network traffic? (Choose two.)

syslog
DNS
SMTP
NTP
HTTP

Question 27

Q

Which application layer protocol is used to provide file-sharing and print services to Microsoft applications?

SMB
DHCP
HTTP
SMTP

Question 28

Q

What information is required for a WHOIS query?

outside global address of the client
FQDN of the domain
ICANN lookup server address
link-local address of the domain owner

Answer

A

FQDN of the domain

Question 29

Q

Which tool included in the Security Onion is a series of software plugins that send different types of data to the Elasticsearch data stores?

OSSEC
Curator
Beats
ElastAlert

Question 30

Q

Which term is used to describe the process of identifying the NSM-related data to be gathered?

data archiving
data normalization
data reduction
data retention

Answer

A

data reduction

Question 31

Q

An administrator is trying to develop a BYOD security policy for employees that are bringing a wide range of devices to connect to the company network. Which three objectives must the BYOD security policy address?
(Choose three.)

All devices must have open authentication with the corporate network.
The level of access of employees when connecting to the corporate network must be defined.
Rights and activities permitted on the corporate network must be defined.
All devices should be allowed to attach to the corporate network flawlessly.
Safeguards must be put in place for any personal device being compromised.
All devices must be insured against liability if used to compromise the corporate network.

Answer

A

Rights and activities permitted on the corporate network must be defined.
Safeguards must be put in place for any personal device being compromised.
The level of access of employees when connecting to the corporate network must be defined.

Question 32

Q

Which device in a layered defense-in-depth approach denies connections initiated from untrusted networks to internal networks, but allows internal users within an organization to connect to untrusted networks?

internal router
IPS
access layer switch
firewall

Question 33

Q

A network administrator is configuring an AAA server to manage RADIUS authentication. Which two features are included in RADIUS authentication? (Choose two.)

single process for authentication and authorization
separate processes for authentication and authorization
hidden passwords during transmission
encryption for all communication
encryption for only the data

Answer

A

single process for authentication and authorization
hidden passwords during transmission

Question 34

Q

A company has a file server that shares a folder named Public. The network security policy specifies that the Public folder is assigned Read-Only rights to anyone who can log into the server while the Edit rights are assigned only to the network admin group. Which component is addressed in the AAA network service framework?

authentication
accounting
automation
authorization

Answer

A

authorization

Question 35

Q

What are the three core functions provided by the Security Onion? (Choose three.)

business continuity planning
alert analysis
security device management
threat containment
intrusion detection
full packet capture

Answer

A

full packet capture
alert analysis
intrusion detection

Question 36

Q

What best describes the security threat of spoofing?

sending bulk email to individuals, lists, or domains with the intention to prevent users from accessing email
intercepting traffic between two hosts or inserting false information into traffic between two hosts
making data appear to come from a source that is not the actual source
sending abnormally large amounts of data to a remote server to prevent user access to the server services

Answer

A

making data appear to come from a source that is not the actual source

Question 37

Q

What is a property of the ARP table on a device?

Every operating system uses the same timer to remove old entries from the ARP cache.
Entries in an ARP table are time-stamped and are purged after the timeout expires.
Static IP-to-MAC address entries are removed dynamically from the ARP table.
Windows operating systems store ARP cache entries for 3 minutes.

Answer

A

Entries in an ARP table are time-stamped and are purged after the timeout expires.

Question 38

Q

A newly created company has fifteen Windows 10 computers that need to be installed before the company can open for business. What is a best practice that the technician should implement when configuring the Windows Firewall?

The technician should create instructions for corporate users on how to allow an app through the WIndows Firewall using the Administrator account.
The technician should remove all default firewall rules and selectively deny traffic from reaching the company network.
The technician should enable the Windows Firewall for inbound traffic and install other firewall software for outbound traffic control.
After implementing third party security software for the company, the technician should verify that the Windows Firewall is disabled

Answer

A

After implementing third party security software for the company, the technician should verify that the Windows Firewall is disabled

Question 39

Q

What is a characteristic of a Trojan horse as it relates to network security?

Malware is contained in a seemingly legitimate executable program.
Extreme quantities of data are sent to a particular network device interface.
Too much information is destined for a particular memory block, causing additional memory areas to be affected.
An electronic dictionary is used to obtain a password to be used to infiltrate a key network device.

Answer

A

Malware is contained in a seemingly legitimate executable program.

Question 40

Q

What technique is used in social engineering attacks?

man-in-the-middle
phishing
buffer overflow
sending junk email

Question 41

Q

What are two evasion techniques that are used by hackers? (Choose two.)

phishing
Trojan horse
reconnaissance
rootkit
pivot

Answer

A

rootkit
pivot

Question 42

Q

What are two drawbacks to using HIPS? (Choose two.)

With HIPS, the success or failure of an attack cannot be readily determined.
If the network traffic stream is encrypted, HIPS is unable to access unencrypted forms of the traffic.
HIPS installations are vulnerable to fragmentation attacks or variable TTL attacks.
HIPS has difficulty constructing an accurate network picture or coordinating events that occur across the entire network.
With HIPS, the network administrator must verify support for all the different operating systems used in the network.

Answer

A

With HIPS, the network administrator must verify support for all the different operating systems used in the network.
HIPS has difficulty constructing an accurate network picture or coordinating events that occur across the entire network.

Question 43

Q

What are three functions provided by the syslog service? (Choose three.)

to gather logging information for monitoring and troubleshooting
to provide statistics on packets that are flowing through a Cisco device
to periodically poll agents for data
to specify the destinations of captured messages
to provide traffic analysis
to select the type of logging information that is captured

Answer

A

to select the type of logging information that is captured
to gather logging information for monitoring and troubleshooting
to specify the destinations of captured messages

Question 44

Q

A technician needs to verify file permissions on a specific Linux file. Which command would the technician use?

sudo
cd
vi
ls -l

Question 45

Q

Why would a network administrator choose Linux as an operating system in the Security Operations Center (SOC)?

It is easier to use than other operating systems.
More network applications are created for this environment.
It is more secure than other server operating systems.
The administrator has more control over the operating system.

Answer

A

The administrator has more control over the operating system.

Question 46

Q

Which protocol or service uses UDP for a client-to-server communication and TCP for server-to-server communication?

DNS
HTTP
FTP
SMTP

Question 47

Q

Which two statements describe the characteristics of symmetric algorithms? (Choose two.)

They provide confidentiality, integrity, and availability.
They are commonly used with VPN traffic.
They use a pair of a public key and a private key.
They are referred to as a pre-shared key or secret key.
They are commonly implemented in the SSL and SSH protocols.

Answer

A

They are commonly used with VPN traffic.
They are referred to as a pre-shared key or secret key.

Question 48

Q

What are two properties of a cryptographic hash function? (Choose two.)

The hash function is one way and irreversible.
The input for a particular hash algorithm has to have a fixed size.
Hash functions can be duplicated for authentication purposes.
Complex inputs will produce complex hashes.
The output is a fixed length.

Answer

A

The hash function is one way and irreversible.
The output is a fixed length.

Question 49

Q

Which two statements are characteristics of a virus? (Choose two.)

A virus provides the attacker with sensitive data, such as passwords.
A virus has an enabling vulnerability, a propagation mechanism, and a payload.
A virus typically requires end-user activation.
A virus replicates itself by independently exploiting vulnerabilities in networks.
A virus can be dormant and then activate at a specific time or date.

Answer

A

A virus can be dormant and then activate at a specific time or date.
A virus typically requires end-user activation.

Question 50

Q

What is a network tap?

a Cisco technology that provides statistics on packets flowing through a router or multilayer switch
a passive device that forwards all traffic and physical layer errors to an analysis device
a technology used to provide real-time reporting and long-term analysis of security events
a feature supported on Cisco switches that enables the switch to copy frames and forward them to an analysis device

Answer

A

a passive device that forwards all traffic and physical layer errors to an analysis device

Question 51

Q

Which type of evidence cannot prove an IT security fact on its own?

best
corroborative
indirect
hearsay

Question 52

Q

According to NIST, which step in the digital forensics process involves preparing and presenting information that resulted from scrutinizing data?

examination
collection
reporting
analysis

Answer

A

reporting

Question 53

Q

What is privilege escalation?

Everyone is given full rights by default to everything and rights are taken away only when someone abuses privileges.
A security problem occurs when high ranking corporate officials demand rights to systems or files that they should not have.
Vulnerabilities in systems are exploited to grant higher levels of privilege than someone or some process should have.
Someone is given rights because she or he has received a promotion.

Answer

A

Vulnerabilities in systems are exploited to grant higher levels of privilege than someone or some process should have.

Question 54

Q

Which PDU format is used when bits are received from the network medium by the NIC of a host?

frame
segment
packet
file

Question 55

Q

Which statement is correct about network protocols?

They are only required for exchange of messages between devices on remote networks.
Network protocols define the type of hardware that is used and how it is mounted in racks.
They all function in the network access layer of TCP/IP.
They define how messages are exchanged between the source and the destination

Answer

A

They define how messages are exchanged between the source and the destination.

Question 56

Q

Refer to the exhibit. A cybersecurity analyst is using Sguil to verify security alerts. How is the current view sorted?

by sensor number
by source IP
by frequency
by date/time

Answer

A

by frequency

Question 57

Q

What are three characteristics of an information security management system? (Choose three.)

It involves the implementation of systems that track the location and configuration of networked devices and software across an enterprise.
It consists of a management framework through which an organization identifies, analyzes, and addresses information security risks.
It consists of a set of practices that are systematically applied to ensure continuous improvement in information security.
It is a systematic and multilayered approach to cybersecurity.
It addresses the inventory and control of hardware and software configurations of systems.
It is based on the application of servers and security devices.

Answer

A

It is a systematic and multilayered approach to cybersecurity.
It consists of a set of practices that are systematically applied to ensure continuous improvement in information security.
It consists of a management framework through which an organization identifies, analyzes, and addresses information security risks.

Question 58

Q

A user is executing a tracert to a remote device. At what point would a router, which is in the path to the destination device, stop forwarding the packet?

when the RTT value reaches zero
when the value in the TTL field reaches zero
when the router receives an ICMP Time Exceeded message
when the host responds with an ICMP Echo Reply message
when the values of both the Echo Request and Echo Reply messages reach zero

Answer

A

when the value in the TTL field reaches zero

Question 59

Q

A network administrator is reviewing server alerts because of reports of network slowness. The administrator confirms that an alert was an actual security incident. What is the security alert classification of this type of scenario?

true negative
false negative
false positive
true positive

Answer

A

true positive

Question 60

Q

A client device has initiated a secure HTTP request to a web browser. Which well-known port address number is associated with the destination address?

110
80
443
404

Question 61

Q

What term describes a set of software tools designed to increase the privileges of a user or to grant access to the user to portions of the operating system that should not normally be allowed?

compiler
penetration testing
package manager
rootkit

Question 62

Q

What are the two methods that a wireless NIC can use to discover an AP? (Choose two.)

transmitting a probe request
sending an ARP request broadcast
initiating a three-way handshake
receiving a broadcast beacon frame
sending a multicast frame

Answer

A

transmitting a probe request
receiving a broadcast beacon frame

Question 63

Q

An administrator discovers that a user is accessing a newly established website that may be detrimental to company security. What action should the administrator take first in terms of the security policy?

Ask the user to stop immediately and inform the user that this constitutes grounds for dismissal.
Create a firewall rule blocking the respective website.
Revise the AUP immediately and get all users to sign the updated AUP.
Immediately suspend the network privileges of the user.

Answer

A

Revise the AUP immediately and get all users to sign the updated AUP.

Question 64

Q

Which statement defines the difference between session data and transaction data in logs?

Session data analyzes network traffic and predicts network behavior, whereas transaction data records network sessions.
Session data is used to make predictions on network behaviors, whereas transaction data is used to detect network anomalies.
Session data records a conversation between hosts, whereas transaction data focuses on the result of network sessions.
Session data shows the result of a network session, whereas transaction data is in response to network threat traffic.

Answer

A

Session data records a conversation between hosts, whereas transaction data focuses on the result of network sessions.

Answer 54

A

vehicle identification number
Facebook photographs

Answer 55

A

to transmit viruses or spam to computers on the same network
to attack other computers

Answer 56

A

risk reduction

Answer 57

A

It must wait for an ICMPv6 Router Advertisement message giving permission to use this address.

Answer 58

A

allows easy processing and analysis of datasets

Answer 59

A

Windows Firewall

Answer 60

A

Using free DDNS services, threat actors can quickly and easily generate subdomains and change DNS records.

Answer 61

A

On large networks with low bandwidth, multiple ARP broadcasts could cause data communication delays.
Network attackers could manipulate MAC address and IP address mappings in ARP messages with the intent of intercepting network traffic.

Answer 62

A

to verify the validity of the digital certificate

Answer 63

A

The code is authentic and is actually sourced by the publisher.
The code has not been modified since it left the software publisher.

Answer 64

A

Attrition

Answer 65

A

Analyze the infrastructure path used for files.

Answer 66

A

password encryption
utilization of transport layer protocols

Answer 67

A

ACLs can control which areas a host can access on a network.
ACLs provide a basic level of security for network access.

Answer 68

A

use SSH and disable the root account access over SSH

Answer 69

A

NetFlow collects metadata from a network flow whereas Wireshark captures full data packets.

Answer 70

A

net use
net share

Answer 71

A

CapME
Wazuh
Zeek

Answer 72

A

192.168.5.29
172.17.254.4
10.234.2.1

Answer 73

A

router advertisement

Answer 74

A

by collecting information about a network
by providing a conduit for DoS attacks

Answer 75

A

to send stolen sensitive data with encoding

Answer 76

A

It is a set of standardized schemata for specifying, capturing, characterizing, and communicating events and properties of network operations.

Answer 77

A

risk analysis

Answer 78

A

It is a systematic and multilayered approach to cybersecurity.
It consists of a set of practices that are systematically applied to ensure continuous improvement in information security.
It consists of a management framework through which an organization identifies, analyzes, and addresses information security risks.

Answer 79

A

SLAAC is the simplest way to give an IPv6 address to a client because it exclusively relies on the Neighbor Discovery Protocol. This protocol, which we simply call NDP, allows devices on a network to discover their Layer 3 neighbors. We use it to retrieve the layer 2 reachability information, like ARP, and to find out routers on the network.

When a device comes online, it sends a Router Solicitation message.The device is asking if there are routers available. If there’s a router on the same network, that router will reply with a Router Advertisement message. Using this message, the router will tell the client some information about the network, such as:

The default gateway
The global unicast prefix

Neighbor Discovery defines five new Internet Control Message Protocol (ICMP) messages. The messages serve the following purposes:

Router solicitation – When an interface becomes enabled, hosts can send router solicitation messages. The solicitations request routers to generate router advertisements immediately, rather than at their next scheduled time.
Router advertisement – Routers advertise their presence, various link parameters, and various Internet parameters. Routers advertise either periodically, or in response to a router solicitation message. Router advertisements contain prefixes that are used for on-link determination or address configuration, a suggested hop-limit value, and so on.
Neighbor solicitation – Nodes send neighbor solicitation messages to determine the link-layer address of a neighbor. Neighbor solicitation messages are also sent to verify that a neighbor is still reachable by a cached link-layer address. Neighbor solicitations are also used for duplicate address detection.
Neighbor advertisement – A node sends neighbor advertisement messages in response to a neighbor solicitation message. The node can also send unsolicited neighbor advertisements to announce a link-layer address change.

Redirect – Routers use redirect messages to inform hosts of a better first hop for a destination, or that the destination is on the same link.

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Final Exam Flashcards

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