Final Exam Flashcards
Local anesthetics inhibit the action of what?
Voltage gated sodium channels
Local Anesthetics
Lidocaine is metabolized primarily in the ______
Liver
Local Anesthetics
Procaine is metabolized in the ______
Blood
Local Anesthetics
Procaine has a ____ duration (compared to Lidocaine) in the body due to its _____ in the ______ rather than metabolism in the ________.
Shorter
Hydrolysis, Plasma
Liver
Local Anesthetics
______ amounts of local anesthetics are required to _______ inflamed tissues, ______ the probability of systemic toxicity.
Larger
Desensitize
Increasing
Local Anesthetics
Generally, local anesthetics cross the _____ _____ from the _____ area to the _____ best when the ______ fluid is a relatively ______ environment with respect to the pKa of the drug.
axonal membrane extracellular axolemma extracellular basic
Local Anesthetics
The basis for the high efficacy of lidocaine on _______, at doses that don’t produce ______ throughout the body, is that nerves that are frequently _____ allow drug to enter ______ and bind to its site of action.
arrhythmias
numbness
depolarized
channels
Local Anesthetics
________ are frequently injected with local anesthetics to cause ______ and _____ local blood flow, thus preventing the washout of local anesthetics.
Sympathomimetics
Vasoconstriction
Decrease
Stimulants
______ is used to treat feline asthma because of its ability to induce bronchiolar ______. It is also a _____ stimulant decreasing _____ activity.
Theophylline
Dilation
Cortical
Adenosine
Stimulants
______ is responsible for the toxic effect of chocaolate in dogs. This results from the ____ of ____ _____ receptors.
Theobromine
antagonism, inhibitory adenosine
Stimulants
_____ is a relatively short-acting respiratory ______ that should be used with caution.
Doxapram
Stimulant
Stimulants
_______ is a rodenticide that causes ______ and is characterized by _____ ______.
Strychnine
Convulsions, extensor rigidity
Anticonvulsants
Diazepam is a general ________ at a _______ dose and useful in _____ _______. It can be used for feline ________. Diazepam is also a ______/______ relaxant. It ______ potentiates ______ flux through ______ receptor complexes.
anticonvulsant
sedative
status epilepticus
Epilepsy
sedative/muscle
Allosterically
Chloride
GABAa
Anticonvulsants
________ inhibits excitability induced by ketamine but exacerbates the effect of _______. Also inhibits ______-induced emesis.
Acetylpromazine
Strychnine
Apomorphine
Anticonvulsants
_________ is useful in forms of canine epilepsy that are not adequately controlled by phenobarbital. Unfortunately, this drug is not a general anticonvulsant and therefore cannot be used for all seizures.
Phenytoin
Anticonvulsants
______ is an anticonvulsant that is unique as it does not produce _____ ______ and actually controls the unique pain associated with ____ and _____.
Carbamazepine
CNS Depression
Neuralgia
Neuroma (a toomah)
Tranquilizers, Sedatives, Etc.
________ is a commonly used sedative in canine and equine medicine inhibiting ______, _______ and _______ receptors. Also has some anti _____ and anti ______ activity that can be useful.
Acetylpromazine
Dopaminergic
Serotonergic
Noradrenergic
Cholinergic
Histaminic
Tranquilizers, Sedatives, Etc.
________ is useful in combination with ketamine because it has some anti ______ activity and thus helps prevent ______, potentiates the ______ effect and inhibits the _____ effects. It minimizes the dose of ketamine required, and thus its side effects and produces less ______ depression than other preanesthetics.
Acetylpromazine Cholinergic Salivation Depressant Excitatory Respiratory
Tranquilizers, Sedatives, Etc.
Acetylpromazine is likely to cause _______
Catalepsy
Tranquilizers, Sedatives, Etc.
________ is a catecholamine that should be used instead of epinephrine to maintain blood pressure during surgery when using __________ as a premedication.
Norepinephrine
Acetylpromazine
Tranquilizers, Sedatives, Etc.
_______ is a sedative and a potent antiemetic compound used frequently to prevent motion sickness.
Droperidol
Tranquilizers, Sedatives, Etc.
______ at _____ doses is a commonly used emetic in feline medicine and at _____ doses it is a useful sedative.
It may transiently ______ blood pressure prior to achieving its longer term sedative and ______ effects.
Xylazine
Low
Higher
Increase
Hypotensive
Tranquilizers, Sedatives, Etc.
________ has a mechanism of action that has little in common with other sedatives and muscle relaxants.
Xylazine
Tranquilizers, Sedatives, Etc.
_______ is frequently used in equine field anesthesia as an adjunct to anesthesia with good sedative, _____ muscle relaxant and ______ activity.
It is also a useful ________.
Guaifenesin
Skeletal
Analgesic
Expectorant
Alcohols
______ ____ is a relatively non toxic compound in its parent form but can cause nephrotoxicity when metabolized.
Ethylene Glycol
Alcohols
_____ _____ is a nephrotoxic metabolite that causes massive chelation and precipitation of calcium in kidneys.
Oxalic Acid
Alcohols
Although longer acting alcohol _______ _______ are available, ethanol can be administered to prevent the formation of toxic metabolites from other substrates.
Dehydrogenase Inhibitors
Alcohols
_______ is a metabolite of Procaine that may cause allergic reactions.
PABA
Alcohols
_______ can cause blindness due to formaldehyde, a product of alcohol _______ activity.
Blindness is due to formaldehydes effect on the ______.
Methanol
Dehydrogenase
Retina
Alcohols
_____ ______ is a metabolite that is primarily responsible for the ______ observed after ingestion of denatured alcohol.
Formic Acid
Acidosis
Alcohols
In a pinch, beer is a useful _____ allowing a reluctant sow to nurse its offspring.
Alcohol causes dehydration and significant tolerance develops to the ____ effects of alcohol.
sedative, sedative
Alcohols
_______ is formed from ethanol by alcohol _______.
Acetylaldehyde
Dehydrogenase
Injectable Anesthetics
Thiopental has a _____ _____ solubility with a partition coefficient of about ______.
In contrast, phenobarbital has a _____ _____ solubility with a partition coefficient of ____.
High Lipid, 580
Low Lipid, 3
Injectable Anesthetics
_______ is more rapidly absorbed from the gut than phenobarbital, but still slow enough that it is not used by this route.
Phenobarb is absorbed much more _____ from the gut but can be used by this oral route for its _____ term therapeutic uses.
Thiopental
Slowly
Longer
Injectable Anesthetics
After an IV injection, ______ rapidly induces its maximal CNS effects compared to phenobarbital but these effects also wear off rapidly.
Thiopental
Injectable Anesthetics
Thiopental has a ______ degree of plasma protein binding than phenobarb and is therefore, _____ likely to displace other compounds that are also protein bound.
Higher
More
Injectable Anesthetics
______ and _____ of phenobarbital play a major role in the termination of its action.
Excretion and Metabolism
Injectable Anesthetics
After a single injection of Thiopental, ________ is primarily responsible for the termination of its anesthetic effect.
Redistribution
Injectable Anesthetics
______ has a high ability to induce liver enzymes after repeated use.
Phenobarbital
Injectable Anesthetics
Thiopental has a high ability to induce _______ _______ after prolonged therapy.
CNS Tolerance
Injectable Anesthetics
In light of its typical patient population, it is important to indicate to the client that a sudden lapse in compliance may lead to seizures during treatment with __________.
Phenobarbital
Injectable Anesthetics
Phenobarbital binds to the ______ ______. It inhibits _____ ____, ______ release, and _____ the duration of ____ channel open time.
GABAa Receptor Epileptic Foci Transmitter Increases Chloride
Injectable Anesthetics
All excitable tissues are affected by _______ but of those, _____ muscle is the least sensitive to ______ like thiopental.
Barbiturates
Skeletal
Barbiturates
Injectable Anesthetics
______ would be more useful as an inducing agent than long acting barbiturates.
Thiopental
Injectable Anesthetics
In determining the degree of depression that barbiturates will produce in an accident victim, what 4 things need to be considered?
- Patients history of epilepsy
- Dose of the drug
- Patient’s state of shock
- Route of drug administration
Injectable Anesthetics
Because of their effects on excitable tissue, barbiturates tend to ______ intestinal motility during surgery, ______ uterine contractions, and produce reflex _____, _____ and _____ during recovery.
Decrease Decrease Hypermotility Spasms Vomiting
Injectable Anesthetics
If injected rapidly, thiopental produces _____ ____ and transient ____ during normal use as an anesthetic.
It can decrease _____ ____ during the course of its normal use at anesthetic doses.
Respiratory depression
Apnea
Blood Pressure
Injectable Anesthetics
______ might be useful in a post-orthopedic situation as it induces good skeletal muscle relaxation.
Diazepam
Injectable Anesthetics
If re-administered to achieve a longer drug effect, each subsequent dose of thiopental produces ______ anesthetic effects.
Longer
Injectable Anesthetics
Unlike ___ ____ and ____, thiopental need not be administered continuously to maintain anesthesia.
Gas anesthesia
Propofol
Injectable Anesthetics
______ is a common sedative in cats that can be injected by many routes but stings when administered _____. As an anesthetic, it usually requires premedication with _____ to reduce the normal profuse _______.
Ketamine
IM
Atropine
Salivation
Injectable Anesthetics
Ketamine is _______, ______ and _____.
analgesic
Dysphoric
Hallucinagenic
Injectable Anesthetics
In cases of brain injury, ketamine may not be used as it increases ______ _____ and ______ ______.
Blood Pressure
Intra-cranial Pressure
Injectable Anesthetics
With repeated injections of ketamine, do effects become shorter or longer?
Shorter Effects
Injectable Anesthetics
Ketamine is analgesic at ____ doses
Sedative
Injectable Anesthetics
Although ketamine inhibits ______ amino acid activity and results in anesthesia, other compounds that similarly inhibit _______ sites do not produce anesthesia.
Excitatory
NMDA
Injectable Anesthetics
In an animal with seizure history, which injectable anesthetic is usually contraindicated?
Ketamine
Inhaled Anesthetics
_______ produces a high degree of muscle relaxation.
Isoflurane
Inhaled Anesthetics
At anesthetic doses, which two drugs increase intracranial pressure?
Halothane and Ketamine
Inhaled Anesthetics
Halothane, at its ______ value, will produce anesthesia in about _____ of all beagle patients.
MAC
50%
Inhaled Anesthetics
_____ _______ of an anesthetic agent contributes the most to the rate of recovery from inhalant anesthesia.
Blood Solubility
Inhaled Anesthetics
_____ _____ has the lowest blood:gas partition coefficient of the inhalant compounds discussed, allowing it to _____ ______ quickly.
Nitrous Oxide
Saturate blood
Inhaled Anesthetics
______ is the most potent inhalant anesthetic in producing unconciousness.
Methoxyflurane
Inhaled Anesthetics
Volatile anesthetics are generally thought to act to produce unconsciousness by interactions with ______ _____-______ _______ receptors.
Ion channel-coupled neurotransmitter
Inhaled Anesthetics
The combination of _______ ______ and _____ exploit the ‘second gas effect’ to more rapidly induce anesthesia.
Nitrous Oxide
Methoxyflurane
Narcotic Analgesics
________ is a useful and inexpensive analgesic and sedative, used widely alone in dogs.
Morphine
Narcotic Analgesics
Is Morphine an antagonist/agonist?
Of which receptor type?
Acid or base?
Non-Selective Opioid Agonist
Weak Base
Narcotic Analgesics
_______ cannot be used orally as it is highly metabolized during its _____-______ through the _____ and trapped in the stomach of animals who have highly _____ gastric fluids.
Morphine
First-pass
Liver
Acidic
Narcotic Analgesics
Butorphanol is a potent analgesic agent by its interaction with _____ receptors. It is a long-acting narcotic analgesic that is ____ to _____ times more potent than ______ but less ________.
Kappa
4-7
Morphine
Efficacious
Narcotic Analgesics
Butorphanol/Morphine
Which is more potent? Which is more efficiacious? Which produces fewer respiratory and GI effects?
Butorphanol is more potent (4-7x) with less effects
Morphine is more efficiacious
Narcotic Analgesics
Butorphanol may be useful to reverse a _____-induced respiratory depression but still provide some ______.
Morphine
Analgesia
Narcotic Analgesics
Nalorphine is a partial narcotic analgesic ____ that is inexpensive and a sufficiently ____ _____ that it is used to reverse ______ activity.
Unfortunately, it also has enough _____ activity that is can induce respiratory depression at _____ doses, so readministration should be done with caution.
Agonist
Weak Agonist
Opioid
Agonistic
High
Narcotic Analgesics
The respiratory depressant effect of nalorphine can be ______ by _________.
Antagonized
Naloxone
Narcotic Analgesics
Naloxone is a pure ____ _____. It is relatively ____-____ and expensive, but has no respiratory depressent effects.
It is ______ acting, so it must be readministered frequently until the ___ ____ has worn off.
opioid antagonist
Non-selective
Short
opioid agonist
Narcotic Analgesics
Oxymorphone is an _____ that is about ____ times more potent than morphine, produces relatively _____ respiratory depression and more _______.
Opiate
10
Less
Sedation
Narcotic Analgesics
Fentanyl is a potent (about ____ to ____ times the potency of morphine) and _____- acting ____ ____ that is usually administered with major tranquilizers as a _________ mixture.
It is usually co-administered with _________.
100-150x
short acting
Opioid agonist
Neuroleptoanalgesic
Droperidol
Narcotic Analgesics
The _____ effect of an opioid ____ cannot be reversed by an opioid _______.
Antitussive
Agonist
Antagonist
Narcotic Analgesics
Opiate _____ and partial _____ do not stimulate receptors maximally. Compared to either butorphanol or fentanyl, ______ has the least analgesic efficacy.
antagonist
partial agonist
Diprenorphine
Narcotic Analgesics
Opiates reduce _____ transmission by ______ neuronal _____ channels.
neuronal
opening
Potassium (K+)
Narcotic Analgesics
Opiate analgesic drugs alleviate pain by _____ neurotransmitter release from _____-transmitting neurons in ____ ____ and _____.
Decreasing
Pain-Transmitting
Spinal Cord
Brain
Narcotic Analgesics
What are morphines effects on sphincters AND on propulsive movements of the intestines?
Clamps them
Decreases them
Narcotic Analgesics
_____ is a useful analgesic in horses if its administration is preceded by a large dose of an appropriate _____, such as _______.
Morphine
Sedative
Xylazine
Narcotic Analgesics
Which weak narcotic analgesic (1/3 morphine’s potency) is used for equine colic?
Pentazocine
Narcotic Analgesics
Pentazocine is a ______ ______ (receptor activity type). It can also decrease the analgesic actions of __-_______ that are mediated by ___-_____ receptors.
kappa agonist
Beta-Endorphin
Mu-Opioid
Narcotic Analgesics
Can Pentazocine cause withdrawal?
Yes
Narcotic Analgesics
Pentazocine’s ______ activity results in dysphoria.
Sigma
