Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

PTA 202 > Final Exam > Flashcards

Final Exam Flashcards

1
Q

What is Cardiac Output?

A

The amount of blood that is pumped out of the heart in a minute

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

What is normal Cardiac Output?

A

4-6 L at rest

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

What is Stroke Volume?

A

The amount of blood pumped by the heart with each beat.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

What is normal Stroke Volume?

A

2.4 oz (71 ml)of blood per beat

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

What is Ejection Fraction

A

It’s the ratio of the volume of blood ejected from the L ventricle per beat to the volume of blood in the L ventricle after filling
(diastole)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

What is the normal Ejection Fraction

A

.6-.75

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

What does the P wave of an EKG represent?

A

Arterial Depolarization

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

What does the QRS portion of an EKG represent?

A

Ventricle Depolarization

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

What does the T wave of an EKG represent?

A

Ventricles Repolarization

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

What does the ST segment of an EKG represent?

A

Ventricles initiate repolarization

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

What is a dip in the ST segment of an EKG indicative of?

A

A CAD

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

What is a spike in the ST segment of an EKG indicative of?

A

An acute MI

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

What are the steps of Normal Conduction of the Heart?

A
  1. SA Node
  2. AV Node
  3. Bundle of His
  4. Branches
  5. Purkinje Fibers
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

What is the Karvonen’s Formula?

A

60%-80% x (HR max - HR rest) + HR rest = Target HR

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

How should you calculate a Max HR if no stress test has been performed?

A

220-age

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

What should the THR for a post MI patient be if no stress test was done?

A

Resting HR + 20 or <120 bpm

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

What should the THR for a post CABG patient be if no stress test was done?

A

Resting HR + 30

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

What should the normal response of HR and RR be if O2 drops?

A

They should increase

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

For every MET, how much should HR and BP rise?

A

8-12 bpm/mmHg

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

What are typical exercise METS for cardiac inpatient patients?

A

2-3

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

What is the goal RPE score for an inpatient cardiac patient being exercised?

A

11-13/20

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

What does a typical exercise prescription for a cardiac patient in acute rehab look like?

A

-10 min warm up at approximately 1.5 METS
-20-30 min aerobic exercise at THR (1.5-3 METS)
-5-10 min cool down till patient reaches resting HR

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

What is the Questionnaire used to determine if it is safe for a patient to begin an aggressive exercise regimen?

A

PAR-Q and You

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

What is the scoring for the Tinetti Assessment test like?

A

-16 possible points for Balance
-12 possible points for Gait
-28 total possible points
-The more points, the more functional the patient is

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

What is Pharmacokinetics?

A

What the drug does after it enters the body. How it is absorbed, distributed, metabolized and eliminated

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

What is Pharmacodynamics?

A

What the drug does to the body

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

What do Ace Inhibitors do?

A

Decrease BP via vasodilation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

What are Antihyperlipidemic Agents used for?

A

For patients with Hight Cholesterol

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

What kind of drugs decrease HR, therefore necessitating the use of the RPE scale during exercise?

A

Beta Blockers

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

What do Diuretics do?

A

Decrease BP via excretion of sodium by peeing

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

What are the rules for taking Nitrate Agents (Nitro Glycerine)?

A

1 tablet every 5 minutes, but no more than 3 tablets

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

What are the steps in a Snap Shot Assessment of lines and tubes?

A

-Survey the Pt.
-Identify
-Where does it start?
-Where does it end?
-What does it do?
-How will it affect the Pt.s Tx

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

Which feeding tube provides short term nutrition through a venous catheter that is guided to the superior vena cava
-Bypasses the GI tract
-Pt. still feels hunger
-No restrictions for PT

A

Total Parenteral Nutrition (TPN)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

Which feeding tube provides short term enteral nutrition (< 4wks)
-may also be used for suctioning the contents of the stomach
-common to go in the R nare

A

Nasogastric Tube (NG Tube)

35
Q

Which feeding tube provides long term nutrition and is surgically implanted into the stomach wall?

A

Gastrostomy Tube (G-Tube) or Percutaneous Endoscopic G-Tube (PEG)

36
Q

What implications should a PTA be aware of when treating a Pt. with a feeding tube?

A

-Avoid the supine position while the tube is running
-Ask the nurse if the tube can be disconnected prior to mobility
-Watch the location of the gait belt

37
Q

Which Drain drains the contents of the abdominal or pleural space?

A

Jackson-Pratt Drain

38
Q

How many liters of oxygen a minute does a nasal cannula deliver?

A

1-6 liters/minute

39
Q

How many liters of oxygen a minute does a simple mask deliver?

A

5-10 liters/minute

40
Q

Which mask is used for COPD patients, delivers greater % of O2, delivers 2-15 liters/minute of oxygen, and can also deliver aerosolized medications?

A

Venturi Mask

41
Q

Which oxygen deliver variation is used for acutely ill pt.s, can deliver 15 Liters/minute of oxygen, and prevents rebreathing of expired air?

A

Non-rebreather mask

42
Q

Which oxygen delivery variation is used for sleep apnea, ARDS, and COPD exacerbations?

A

CPAP and Bi-Pap

43
Q

When are Standard Precautions used?

A

Always

44
Q

What are the components of Standard Precautions?

A

-Wash hands before and after pt. care
-Establish a barrier to bloody, body fluids, secretions/excretions, non-intact skin, and mucous membrane

45
Q

What are Protective Precautions used for?

A

A patient with impaired resistance to infection

46
Q

What is the difference between Ventilation and Respiration?

A

-Ventilation: the movement of air in and out of the lungs
-Respiration: gas exchange of oxygen/carbon dioxide which occurs at the capillary membranes, alveoli, and body tissues

47
Q

What are these names for?
-Tracheal
-Bronchial
-Bronchovesicular
-Vesicular

A

Normal Breathing Sounds

48
Q

What are these names for?
-Crackling
-Wheezing

A

Adventitious Breath Sounds

49
Q

Which position should you put a patient in for easier breathing?

A

Semi-Fowlers position: Supine with the head of the bed raised 30-45 degrees

50
Q

Does the diaphragm contract on inhalation or expiration

A

Inhalation

51
Q

Which muscles aid in Inhalation?

A

-Diaphragm
-Intercostals
-Sternocleidomastoid
-Traps
-Rhomboids
-Levator Scapulae
-Pecs

52
Q

Which muscles aid in forced expiration?

A

The Abdominals

53
Q

What is VC in terms of Pulmonary Rehab?

A

Vital Capacity: the amount of air a persons lungs can forcefully inhale and exhale

54
Q

What is Tidal Volume?

A

The normal amount of air a person breaths (500ml)

55
Q

What is IRV in terms of pulmonary rehab?

A

Inspiratory Reserve Volume: Max inspiration after resting inspiration? (3000 ml)

56
Q

What is ERV in terms of pulmonary rehab?

A

Expiratory Reserve Volume: Max expiration after resting expiration (1000 ml)

57
Q

What is RV in terms of pulmonary rehab?

A

Residual Volume: The amount of air left in the lungs after forced expiration. (1500 ml)

58
Q

What is the difference between Obstructive and Restrictive Pulmonary Dysfunctions?

A

Obstructive: trouble exhaling
Restrictive: trouble inhaling

59
Q

Types of Obstructive or Restrictive Diseases?
-Asthma
-Bronchitis
-Chronic Bronchitis
-Cystic Fibrosis
-Emphysema
-COPD

A

Obstructive

60
Q

Types of Obstructive or Restrictive Diseases?
-Adult Respiratory Distress Syndrome (ARDS)
-Atelectasis
-Interstitial Pulmonary Fibrosis
-Lung Contusion
-Pneumonia
-Pulmonary Edema
-Pulmonary Embolism

A

Restrictive

61
Q

What is the normal ration of inspiration to exhalation?

A

1:2

62
Q

What are the different types of breathing techniques?

A

-Diaphragmatic Breathing
-Pursed Lip Breathing
-Segmental Breathing

63
Q

When does Spinal Shock take place and how long does it last?

A

Can occur 20-60 minutes after injury and can last 24 hours to weeks

64
Q

What are the Key Muscles to test post SCI?

A

C5=Elbow Flexors
C6=Wrist Extensors
C7=Elbow Extensors
C8=Finger Flexors
T1=Finger Abductors
L2=Hip Flexors
L3=Knee Extensors
L4=Ankle Dorsiflexors
L5=Big Toe Extensors
S1=Ankle Plantar Flexors

65
Q

What is Central Cord Syndrome?

A

It is an Incomplete Lesion to the spinal cord where UEs are affected >LEs and ambulation is possible for many patients

66
Q

Which typed of Incomplete SCI is a hemisection of the spinal cord caused by a gunshot or stab wound and affects the opposite side of the body

A

Brown-Sequard Syndrome

67
Q

Which type of Incomplete SCI occurs from a flexion injury to the C-spine and results in loss of things like P!, motor control, and temp sensation below injury; but keeps things like proprioception, vibration sense, and deep pressure sense?

A

Anterior Cord Syndrome

68
Q

What is the type of Incomplete SCI which results in the sparing of centrally locate sacral tracts?

A

Sacral Sparing

69
Q

What is the scale used to determine the severity of a SCI by assigning it a grade?

A

The ASIA scale

70
Q

What are the grades of the ASIA scale and which is the best?

A

A-E
E is the best

71
Q

Which key anatomic structures need to be protected to preserve the function of an SCI patient?

A

Preserve finger flexion and low back extension

72
Q

How is extension of the flaccid legs achieved for a SCI patient?

A

The use of a KAFO and resting on the Y-ligament

73
Q

What type of ulcers are found on the lateral ankle, dorsum of foot, or toes; round in shape with smoothed, defined edges; deep; and causes P! with elevation?

A

Arterial

74
Q

Which type of ulcer is found on the medial malleolus, has irregular shaggy edges, is shallow, and causes P! in the dependent position?

A

Venous

75
Q

What is normal capillary refilling time?

A

2 seconds

76
Q

What is the most important part of a prosthetic and why?

A

The socket, because if it’s not comfortable, the patient won’t wear it

77
Q

What are the most common socket designs for prosthetics?

A

-liner pin and lock
-suction/vacuum

78
Q

Which type of transtibial socket design loads pressure tolerant areas and relieves pressure intolerant areas?

A

Patella Tendon Bearing (PTB) Socket

79
Q

Which Transtibial Socket design creates a uniform shape for the limb to share the load equally and has less pointed pressure, therefore less perceived pressure?

A

Total Surface Bearing (TSB) Socket

80
Q

Which type of Transfemoral Socket Design is square shaped and maintains the ischium on top of the seat?

A

Quadrilateral Socket

81
Q

Which type of transfemoral socket design is oval shaped and contains the ischium within the socket design?

A

Ischial Containment Socket

82
Q

Which transfemoral socket design is the most common?

A

The ischial containment socket

83
Q

What are the Medicare K levels and which is most functional?

A

K0-K4
K4 is the most functional

PTA 202 (4 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2024 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions