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BIOL203 > Final Exam > Flashcards

Final Exam Flashcards

1
Q

define bactericidal

A

kills microbes directly

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2
Q

define antibiotic resistance

A

when germs no longer respond to the drugs designed to kill them

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3
Q

what are broad spectrum antibiotics

A

antibiotics that effect a broad range of Gram+ and Gram- bacteria

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4
Q

what are narrow spectrum antibiotics

A

antibiotics that effect a range of bacteria (ex: affect Gram+ but few Gram-)

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5
Q

define sensitivity

A

the probability that the test is reactive if the specimen is a true positive

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6
Q

explain subunit vaccines

A

they use antigenic fragments of a microbe

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7
Q

what are monoclonal antibodies

A

(Mabs), antibodies produced by a single clone of cells or cell line and consisting of identical antibody molecules

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8
Q

what is a hybridoma

A

“immortal” cancerous B cell fused with an antibody-producing normal B cell, produces monoclonal antibodies

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9
Q

what is ELISA

A

(Enzyme-Linked Immunosorbent Assay), it is a test to see if patients’ sample has antigen and the enzyme linked to antibody is the indicator

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10
Q

define bacteriostatic

A

to prevent microbes from growing

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11
Q

define antibiotic

A

a substance produced by a microbe that, in small amounts, inhibits another microbe

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12
Q

what is selective toxicity

A

the killing of harmful microbes without damaging the host

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13
Q

what is an adjuvant

A

a substance that is added to a vaccine to increase the body’s immune response to the vaccine (aluminum salts improved vaccine effectiveness)

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14
Q

Penicillin was considered a “miracle drug” for what reasons?

A

Syphilis during WWII; It doesn’t affect eukaryotic cells, it inhibits gram-positive cell wall synthesis, it has selective toxicity, and it kills bacteria

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15
Q

Commercially available antimicrobial agents (i.e., antibiotics) are effective against what?

A

Killing or slowing the spread of microorganisms

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16
Q

The antibiotic tetracycline binds to the 30S subunit of the ribosome and this does what?

A

It blocks the binding of the aminoacyl-tRNA to the acceptor site on the mRNA-ribosome complex

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17
Q

The antibiotic cycloheximide binds to the 50S subunit of the ribosome and this does what?

A

It prevents the translocation of peptidyl-tRNA in the ribosome from site A to P

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18
Q

What does a zone of inhibition tell you about the effectiveness of an antibiotic?

A

a larger zone of inhibition usually means that the antimicrobial is more potent

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19
Q

Niclosamide prevents ATP generation in mitochondria. You would expect this drug to be effective against what?

A

helminths

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20
Q

The antibiotic actinomycin D binds between adjacent G-C pairs, thus interfering with what?

A

transcription

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21
Q

Rifamycin is an antibiotic that inhibits RNA synthesis which is what type or mode of action?

A

Polymerase (PCR?)

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22
Q

Antiviral drugs that effectively block the release of viral progeny from the infected cell(s) are compounds that do what?

A

Enable the progeny virions to leave the infected cells and spread to other host cells; they block receptors so viruses can’t bind to and enter healthy cells

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23
Q

Antiviral compounds that target the cell’s receptors often are referred to as what?

A

Antiviral drugs

24
Q

The path of light through the compound microscope

A

illuminator, condenser, specimen, objective lens, ocular lens

25
Q

the steps of the Gram stain

A

primary stain (crystal violet), mordant (Gram’s iodine), decolorizer (ethanol, acetone), counterstain (safranin)

26
Q

what is streptococci

A

Gram+ coccus, spherical bacteria

27
Q

what is a tetrad

A

a group or set of 4

28
Q

name the prokaryotic cell cellular components

A

cell wall, cell membrane, capsule, pili, flagella, ribosomes, plasmids

29
Q

what is simple staining

A

directly staining the bacterial cell with a positively charged dye in order see bacterial detail

30
Q

define transformation

A

the process by which foreign DNA is introduced into a cell

31
Q

define transcription

A

the process by which DNA is copied to RNA

32
Q

define translation

A

when the transcribed RNA is used to make proteins

33
Q

what is the expected growth pattern for an obligate anaerobe

A

growth only on bottom

34
Q

what is the expected growth pattern for an obligate aerobe

A

growth only on top

35
Q

what is an endemic disease

A

a disease spreading in a particular population, environment, or region at the normal or expected level

36
Q

define PCR

A

(polymerase chain reaction), a laboratory technique for rapidly producing or amplifying millions to billions of copies of a specific segment of DNA

37
Q

what is a DNA probe

A

a single-stranded sequence of DNA or RNA used to search for its complementary sequence in a sample genome

38
Q

define microbe

A

an organism that can only be seen through a microscope

39
Q

define pathogen

A

a microorganism that causes, or can cause, a disease

40
Q

define IgM

A

the largest and first antibody produced by the immune system when a virus attack’s

41
Q

define agar

A

an aseptic and solidifying component used as a culture medium for growing microorganisms

42
Q

what is innate immunity

A

the first line of defense against invading pathogens; the defense system with which you were born (nonspecific immunity)

43
Q

what are nosocomial infections

A

infections patients acquire while admitted to a health-care facility (aka hospital-acquired infection or health-care associated infection)

44
Q

That life forms can arise spontaneously (“pop up”) from non-living matter is referred to as what?

A

Spontaneous generation

45
Q

Which structure acts like an “invisibility cloak” and protects bacteria from being phagocytized?

A

capsule

46
Q

What are the necessary components for DNA synthesis and protein synthesis to occur?

A

substrates, template, primer, and enzymes

47
Q

Genetic change in bacteria can be brought about by what processes?

A

transformation, conjugation, transduction, and mutation

48
Q

Which terms or phrases are a necessary component for bacterial conjugation?

A

direct contact between donor and recipient cells, shortening of the pilus, enzymatic cleavage of one strand at the origin of transfer, recipient cell becomes a donor cell after conjugation

49
Q

Recombinant DNA technology is used for what in our lives?

A

To make important proteins used in the treatment of human diseases, such as insulin and growth hormone

50
Q

What is the mechanism whereby an enveloped virus leaves a host cell called?

A

budding

51
Q

Who is the physician first associated with vaccination?

A

Edward Jenner

52
Q

In the scientific name Staphylococcus aureus, the word aureus is what part of the name?

A

species

53
Q

During DNA synthesis, if a base on the template strand is cytosine (C), what is the base that will be added to the growing or complimentary strand?

A

guanine (G)

54
Q

What techniques (or procedure) achieve sterilization?

A

wet heat (autoclaving: high pressure is applied with a recommended temp of 250F for 15-20 minutes, dry heat (baking or flaming), filtration, chemicals/solvents, radiation

55
Q

The genetic code is said to be degenerate. Degeneracy in the genetic code means what?

A

it is a phenomenon in which several of the amino acids are each coded by more than one codon

56
Q

The specificity of an antibody is due to what?

A

the unique antigen binding site located at the tip of the variable region on the antibody

BIOL203 (1 decks)

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