Final Exam Flashcards

1
Q

type of plant that contains THC in all of its parts

A

Cannabis

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2
Q

marijuana refers to the dried leaves and flowers of this plant

A

Cannabis

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3
Q

hashish refers to the dried resin from the top of the female version of this plant

A

Cannabis

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4
Q

plant that for centuries was grown in Western Europe chiefly for its fiber, from which rope was made, without widespread recognition of its intoxicating properties

A

cannabis

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5
Q

is the abbreviation for tetrahydrocannabinol

A

THC

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6
Q

is the primary psychoactive ingredient in cannabis

A

THC

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7
Q

the most psychoactive and common cannabinoid

A

THC

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8
Q

ingredient in cannabis that has increased in seized samples of marijuana from 1.5% in the 1960s to over 10% in 2008

A

THC

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9
Q

class of chemical compounds that is naturally found exclusively in the cannabis plant and contributes to the behavioral effects of cannabis

A

Cannabinoid

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10
Q

class of chemical compounds that includes 85 different types that have been identified in cannabis

A

Cannabinoid

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11
Q

class of chemical compound that includes cannabinol and cannabidiol

A

cannabinoid

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12
Q

class of drug that originated in central Asia and was spread to other parts of the world during the second century BCE by a Middle Eastern tribe known as the Scythians

A

cannabinoid

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13
Q

the intoxicating effects of this class of drug remained unnoticed by Europeans until the publication of Le Club des Hachichins by the French writer Theophile Gautier in 1846

A

cannabinoid

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14
Q

class of drug that spread slowly through the United States in the early twentieth century by racial minorities and jazz musicians, which did much to shape the perceptions of white legislators and to motivate opponents

A

cannabinoid

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15
Q

class of drug that was made illegal by the Marijuana Tax Act passed by the U.S. government in 1937

A

cannabinoid

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16
Q

class of drug that, in 1970 by the U.S. government, was declared in the Controlled Substances Act as having no potential medical use and as having a high potential for abuse, despite considerable medical evidence to the contrary

A

cannabinoid

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17
Q

class of drug that is currently the most common illicit drug

A

cannabinoid

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18
Q

class of drug that, although having analgesic and psychomotor-depressant properties, has little effect on the breathing reflex

A

cannabinoid

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19
Q

for this class of drug, bloodshot eyes is its most common physiological effect

A

cannabinoid

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20
Q

for this class of drug, heavy use can be detected because the user looks stoned: an appearance marked by a slight droop in the eyelids

A

cannabinoid

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21
Q

class of drug that causes an intense feeling of hunger, known as the “munchies”, typically 3 hours after smoking it and when other effects have declined

A

cannabinoid

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22
Q

class of drug that produces an experience typically characterized by swings of mood from euphoric gaiety with hilarious laughter to placid dreaminess

A

cannabinoid

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23
Q

class of drug that has as one of its most reliable behavioral effects an increase in subjective time rate: experiencing time as passing more quickly

A

cannabinoid

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24
Q

class of drug has been claimed to cause an amotivational syndrome: apathy, loss of effectiveness, and a diminished capacity or willingness to carry out plans

A

cannabinoid

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25
Q

for this class of drug, a tolerance to its impairing effect on operant behavior develops within a few days and lasts for more than a month, but shows no tolerance at all to its anorexic effects or to its subjective effects

A

cannabinoid

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26
Q

for this class of drug, its tolerance is associated with a downregulation/desensitization of cannabinoid receptors in the brain

A

cannabinoid

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27
Q

for this class of drug, there is little or no evidence to support many myths about it, such as that it directly causes violence, aggression, permanent intellectual impairment, or irreversible brain damage

A

cannabinoid

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28
Q

for the cannabinoid receptor, is the endogenous ligand: a substance that occurs naturally in the body and activates this type of receptor

A

anandamide

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29
Q

endogenous neurotransmitter that is released postsynaptically and causes the presynaptic neuron to shut down both excitatory and inhibitory transmission

A

anandamide

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30
Q

a neurotransmitter that contributes to functions involved in stress recovery

A

anandamide

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31
Q

class of drug that is primarily characterized by its ability to cause hallucinations, although they are often not taken in high enough doses to do so and other effects seem to be important to the user

A

hallucinogen

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32
Q

class of drug that typically has the following pharmacokinetics: is taken orally, is effective between 30 to 90 minutes after ingestion, has a half-life of 175 to 300 minutes, and has a duration of 8 to 12 hours for its hallucinating effects

A

hallucinogen

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33
Q

is the abbreviation for lysergic acid diethylamide

A

LSD

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34
Q

hallucinogenic drug that has a chemical structure that is indoleamine-like

A

LSD

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35
Q

hallucinogenic drug that is chemically similar to ergot: a fungus that grows on rye and other grains, and that causes hallucinations in the disease known as St. Anthony’s fire

A

LSD

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36
Q

hallucinogenic drug that is a derivative of lysergic acid, which was first synthesized by the Swiss researcher Albert Hofmann in 1938 and tested on himself in 1943

A

LSD

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37
Q

hallucinogenic drug that is sold as hits given in blotting paper, gel tabs, or tiny pills called microdots

A

LSD

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38
Q

is one of the most potent synthetic hallucinogenic drugs, with a minimum dose of only 200 micrograms to produce a full psychedelic experience with visual hallucinations

A

LSD

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39
Q

is a natural hallucinogenic drug that has a chemical structure that is catecholamine-like

A

mescaline

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40
Q

is the main psychoactive ingredient in the peyote cactus, which is native to the deserts of Mexico and southwestern United States

A

mescaline

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41
Q

hallucinogenic drug that is acquired from the dried heads of the peyote cactus and can be consumed orally or soaked in water to create an intoxicating drink

A

mescaline

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42
Q

refers to MDMA (3,4-methylenedioxymethamphetamine)

A

ecstacy

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43
Q

hallucinogenic drug that has chemical and behavioral properties similar to mescaline and amphetamines

A

ecstacy

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44
Q

hallucinogenic drug that, prior to its legal reclassification in 1985, was given to patients by psychiatrists in order to enhance intimacy and communication between the patient and the therapist

A

ecstacy

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45
Q

hallucinogenic drug that increases monoamine transmission by increasing the release and blocking the reuptake of monoamines

A

ecstacy

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46
Q

hallucinogenic drug that is known to affect oxytocin, a hormone involved in bonding, which may be the cause of the drug’s empathogenic properites

A

ecstacy

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47
Q

hallucinogenic drug that has as its most dangerous effect the loss of heat regulation, since this can lead to hyperthermia and hyponatraemia (electrolyte disturbance)

A

ecstacy

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48
Q

hallucinogenic drug that has stimulus properties that do not generalize to cocaine or mescaline, despite being chemically similar to them, but instead generalizes to serotonin agonists

A

ecstacy

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49
Q

is a natural hallucinogenic drug from the plant Salvia divinorum, which is native to Oaxaca, Mexico and has a long history of use in tribal ceremonies

A

salvia

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50
Q

hallucinogenic drug that does not chemically resemble other typical hallucinogenic drugs, since it is not an alkaloid (meaning it does not contain a basic nitrogen)

A

ecstacy

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51
Q

hallucinogenic drug that differs from other hallucinogenic drugs in that it has no action at 5-HT2A receptors but instead is a highly selective kappa-opioid receptor agonist

A

ecstacy

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52
Q

hallucinogenic drug that is not only very potent (requiring a minimum dose of only 200 micrograms) but also short-lasting (with effects lasting anywhere from 5 to 30 minutes) and shows no tolerance

A

salvia

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53
Q

class of drug that generally acts as a selective 5-HT2A receptor agonist in the central nervous system, although it triggers a particular intracellular signaling cascade that is distinct from other 5-HT2A receptor agonists

A

hallucinogen

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54
Q

class of drug that suppresses the release of norepinephrine from the locus coeruleus and serotonin from the raphe system

A

hallucinogen

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55
Q

class of drug that enhances the response of the locus coeruleus to novelty, which may be the cause of it making people feel like they are seeing things for the first time

A

hallucinogen

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56
Q

class of drug that increases activity within the medial prefrontal cortex, such as by stimulation of 5-HT2A receptors there

A

hallucinogen

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57
Q

class of drug that (in the case of MDMA) has been shown at doses slightly higher than normal effective doses to cause depletion of serotonin in the brain for 1 week after a single administration

A

hallucinogen

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58
Q

class of drug that produces images which are initially of geometric quality but in a later stage take the form of meaningful pictures of people, animals, and places

A

hallucinogen

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59
Q

class of drug that causes the perception of time to be distorted but not in any consistent direction

A

hallucinogen

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60
Q

class of drug that has as a common side effect acute psychosis or psychedelic crisis when the user is having an unpleasant experience or bad trip

A

hallucinogen

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61
Q

class of drug that can unpredictably produce its main effect long after the drug has worn off, which is commonly known as flashbacks

A

hallucinogen

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62
Q

class of drug that in animals has aversive effects, and in humans is self-administered only episodically and typically in smaller doses now than was used in the 1960s since using a high dose is not always a pleasurable experience

A

hallucinogens

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63
Q

characteristic of hallucinogens that refers to the enhancement of enjoyment or appreciation of music and social situations

A

phantasticant

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64
Q

characteristic of hallucinogens that refers to the user feeling closer to God or the universe

A

phantasticant

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65
Q

characteristic of hallucinogens that refers to having experiences of great emotional or worldly significance, often of a spiritual nature

A

phantasticant

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66
Q

characteristic of hallucinogens that has made them widely used in traditional religious ceremonies

A

phantasticant

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67
Q

characteristic of hallucinogens that refers to an enhancement of pleasure that can be derived from viewing art and listening to music

A

phantastican

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68
Q

characteristic of hallucinogens that means literally “mind manifester”

A

psychedelic

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69
Q

characteristic of hallucinogens that refers to accessing and developing unused potentials of the human mind

A

psychedelic

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70
Q

characteristic of hallucinogens that means literally “touching within”

A

entactogen

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71
Q

characteristic of hallucinogens that refers to the user feeling in touch with their inner self

A

entactogen

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72
Q

characteristic of hallucinogens that refers to the production of personal insights into one’s past and into one’s own mind

A

entactogen

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73
Q

characteristic of hallucinogens that refers to the revealing of repressed thoughts and unrecognized feelings

A

entactogen

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74
Q

characteristic of hallucinogens that refers to the gaining of insights similar to those that psychoanalysis attempts to achieve through psychotherapy

A

entactogen

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75
Q

characteristic of hallucinogens that suggested that they might be useful tools in psychotherapy

A

entactogen

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76
Q

characteristic of hallucinogens that refers to an enhanced awareness of emotions and sensations

A

entactogen

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77
Q

characteristic of hallucinogens that means literally “empathy enhancer”

A

empathogen

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78
Q

characteristic of hallucinogens that refers to the users feeling in touch with others around them

A

empathogen

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79
Q

What characteristic of hallucinogens made psychiatrists in the 1960s administer them to people undergoing couples therapy?

A

empathogen

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80
Q

for this class of drug, tolerance develops within 2 or 3 days when taken repeatedly and sensitivity returns within a week

A

hallucinogen

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81
Q

class of drug that shows cross-tolerance only to drugs of the same class (e.g., LSD, psilocybin, and mescaline) and not to other drugs such as amphetamine or THC

A

hallucinogen

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82
Q

for this class of drug, its tolerance is associated with a downregulation of serotonin 5-HT2A receptors in the brain

A

hallucinogen

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83
Q

class of drug that does not cause a loss of consciousness but rather produces a trance-like state that separates people from sensory experience

A

dissociative anesthetic

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84
Q

class of anesthetic that produces emergence delirium: experiencing delirium, disorientation, and agitation while recovering from the drug

A

dissociative anesthetic

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85
Q

class of drug that includes phencyclidine (PCP) and ketamine

A

dissociative anesthetic

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86
Q

class of drug that primarily acts as an antagonist of NMDA receptors through a specific (PCP) binding site on that glutamate receptor

A

dissociative anesthetic

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87
Q

class of drug that induces significant negative psychotic symptoms and a thought disorder very similar to that seen in schizophrenic patients

A

dissociative anesthetic

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88
Q

class of drug that produces euphoric feelings, distortions in body image, and a feeling of floating in space

A

dissociative anesthetic

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89
Q

class of drug that has stimulus properties that generalize only to other drugs known to block NMDA receptors (e.g., dextromethorphan) and not to any other class of drug

A

dissociative anesthetic

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90
Q

class of drug that is used to treat the psychoses

A

antipsychotic

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91
Q

class of drug that is used to diminish the symptoms of psychosis that appear in schizophrenia

A

antipsychotic

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92
Q

class of drug that is also referred to by the term major tranquillizer or neuroleptic

A

antipsychotic

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93
Q

class of drug that can produce side-effects that result from a deficiency of dopamine along the nigrostriatal pathway

A

antipsychotic

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94
Q

class of drug that, when given to healthy subjects, causes slower thinking, tiredness, dejection, anxiety, and irritability

A

antipsychotic

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95
Q

class of drug that is found in animals and humans to have aversive properties that develop slowly with repeated doses

A

antipsychotic

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96
Q

class of drug that is useful in treating Huntington’s chorea, Tourette’s syndrome, and tardive dyskinesia through its dopamine blocking effects

A

antipsychotic

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97
Q

state that is characterized by a loss of touch with reality, and may be briefly brought on by drugs or be a life-long battle in the case of disorders, such as schizophrenia

A

psychosis

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98
Q

in this state people grossly misunderstand and misinterpret events going on around them

A

psychosis

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99
Q

in this state people respond to events inappropriately in both an intellectual and emotional sense

A

psychosis

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100
Q

in this state people may experience bizarre hallucinations and have their behavior be guided by delusions

A

psychosis

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101
Q

is the most well-known of the psychotic disorders

A

schizophrenia

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102
Q

the name of this psychotic disorder literally means “to split the mind”, which refers to not split-personality but rather a separation of thought, emotion, and behavior

A

schizophrenia

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103
Q

psychotic disorder that is characterized by delusions, hallucinations, disorganized speech, disorganized or catatonic behavior, and negative symptoms

A

schizophrenia

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104
Q

type of symptoms that are traits that are abnormally present in psychosis

A

positive symptoms

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105
Q

type of schizophrenic symptoms that hallucinations, delusions, incoherent thought & speech, excessive motor activity, or odd mannequin-like postures would be considered

A

positive symptoms

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106
Q

type of schizophrenic symptoms that typically develop later in schizophrenia, emerging gradually over years after the onset of other symptoms

A

positive symptoms

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107
Q

type of symptoms that are traits that are abnormally absent in psychosis

A

negative symptoms

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108
Q

type of schizophrenic symptoms that affective flattening, anhedonia, alogia, avolition, or social withdrawal would be considered

A

negative symptoms

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109
Q

type of schizophrenic symptoms that are typically the first to develop in schizophrenia

A

negative symptoms

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110
Q

side-effect of antipsychotic medication that resembles Parkinson’s disease: tremors, slowed motor functions, stiff limbs, and trouble maintaining balance

pyramidal system = motor cortex , when you want to voluntarily move a body part

basal ganglia (extrapyramidal)

side effects of blocking dopamine in the basal ganglia

A

extrapyramidal signs and symptoms (EPS)

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111
Q

theory that has been the dominant theory of the neurological basis of schizophrenia from the 1960s to this day

A

dopamine hypothesis

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112
Q

theory that has NOT been confirmed by evidence that dopaminergic circuits progressively deteriorate along with other neurotransmitter circuits in schizophrenia

A

dopamine hypothesis

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113
Q

theory that posits that schizophrenia and other psychoses result from excessive dopamine activity in the brain

A

dopamine hypothesis

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114
Q

theory that is supported by the strong correlation between the therapeutic dose of a typical antipsychotic and the drug’s affinity for the dopamine D2 receptor

A

dopamine hypothesis

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115
Q

theory that is supported by two main observations: (1) drugs which increase dopamine function can produce psychoses & (2) typical antipsychotics are all dopamine antagonists

A

dopamine hypothesis

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116
Q

theory that is supported by the fact that typical antipsychotic medications also produce severe EPS

A

dopamine hypothesis

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117
Q

theory that has NOT been confirmed by evidence of differences in D2 receptor densities between individuals with versus without schizophrenia

A

dopamine hypothesis

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118
Q

theory that is contradicted by the fact that the therapeutic effect of antipsychotic drugs may be delayed for several weeks despite blocking dopamine activity immediately

A

dopamine hypothesis

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119
Q

theory that is contradicted by the fact that negative and cognitive symptoms of schizophrenia do not improve with D2 receptor blockade

A

dopamine hypothesis

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120
Q

theory that is supported by the fact that phencyclidine (PCP) and ketamine both produce symptoms similar to the positive, negative, & cognitive symptoms of schizophrenia

A

glutamate hypothesis

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121
Q

theory that is supported by a correlation between a drug’s ability to produce schizophrenia-like symptoms and its affinity to the NMDA receptor’s PCP binding site

A

glutamate hypothesis

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122
Q

theory that posits that schizophrenia results from glutamate hypoactivity, specifically at the NMDA receptor

A

glutamate hypothesis

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123
Q

theory that has NOT been confirmed by evidence of differences in cerebrospinal fluid glutamate levels between individuals with versus without schizophrenia

A

glutamate hypothesis

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124
Q

theory that is contradicted by the fact that doses of NMDA receptor antagonists that produce schizophrenia-like symptoms increase glutamate release in the prefrontal cortex

A

glutamate hypothesis

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125
Q

type of antipsychotic medication that is also known as a first-generation antipsychotic

A

typical antipsychotic

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126
Q

type of antipsychotic medication that primarily blocks D2 receptors

A

typical antipsychotic

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127
Q

type of antipsychotic medication that was developed first, before 1975

A

typical antipsychotic

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128
Q

type of antipsychotic medication that is most effective in treating the positive symptoms of schizophrenia, rather than the negative or cognitive symptoms

A

typical antipsychotic

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129
Q

with this type of antipsychotic medication adverse EPS side-effects commonly occur

A

typical antipsychotic

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130
Q

type of antipsychotic medication that is more likely to cause tardive dyskinesia

A

typical antipsychotic

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131
Q

type of antipsychotic medication that is also known as a second-generation antipsychotic

A

atypical antipsychotic

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132
Q

type of antipsychotic medication that was developed more recently

A

atypical antipsychotic

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133
Q

type of antipsychotic medication that has only a weak affinity for D2 receptors and has a high affinity for D3 & D4 receptors

A

atypical antipsychotic

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134
Q

type of antipsychotic medication that alleviates the positive, negative, and cognitive symptoms of schizophrenia

A

atypical antipsychotic

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135
Q

with this type of antipsychotic medication adverse EPS side-effects do NOT commonly occur

A

atypical antipsychotic

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136
Q

type of antipsychotic medication that has a greater ability to block 5-HT2A receptors ((serotonin))

A

atypical antipsychotic

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137
Q

side-effect of antipsychotic medication that is characterized by uncontrolled restlessness, constant compulsive movement, and sometimes a protruding tongue and facial grimacing

A

Akathisia

without sit
aka = without
thisia = sit

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138
Q

side-effect of antipsychotic medication that is characterized by involuntary, tic-like, repetitive movements of the face, such as muscle twitching, smacking of the lips, or flicking of the tongue

A

tardive dyskinesia

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139
Q

for this side-effect of antipsychotic medication the symptoms can be permanent and not go away even after the drug is stopped

A

tardive dyskenisia

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140
Q

mood disorder that is characterized by depressed mood, loss of appetite, anhedonia, lack of energy, problems sleeping, feelings of worthlessness & guilt, and thoughts of death & suicide

A

major depressive disorder

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141
Q

mood disorder that can occur in people who do not feel depressed but show anhedonia, weight loss, insomnia, psychomotor retardation, loss of energy, and inability to concentrate

A

major depressive disorder

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142
Q

disorder that has been called the “common cold of mental illness” because large segments of the population experience it at some time in their lives

A

major depressive disorder

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143
Q

disorder that is currently, in Western cultures, the second leading cause of premature mortality and disability leading to loss of productive life

A

major depressive disorder

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144
Q

with this disorder women are more likely to have feelings of sadness, worthlessness, and guilt, whereas men are more likely to be tired & irritable, anhedonic, and have insomnia

A

major depressive disorder

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145
Q

with this disorder the probability of suicide is estimated to be five times greater

A

major depressive disorder

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146
Q

Based on the results of conditioning studies with animals, if Annie wants to improve her motivation to work and also decrease her performance anxiety, what class of drug would you recommend to her?

A

antidepressant

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147
Q

class of drug that is used to treat depression

A

antidepressant

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148
Q

for this class of therapeutic drug the placebo effect accounts for up to 75% of the improvement in depressive symptoms seen with the drug

A

antidepressant

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149
Q

class of drug that is more effective than stimulants at increasing operant response rates, and also decrease avoidance behavior at doses that have no effect on escape behavior

A

antidepressant

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150
Q

theory that is contradicted by the fact that the therapeutic effect of antidepressant drugs may be delayed for several weeks despite increasing synaptic monoamine transmitter levels immediately

A

monoamine theory

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151
Q

theory that is contradicted by the fact that tryptophan depletion has no effect on the mood of individuals with no personal or family history of depression

A

monoamine theory

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152
Q

theory that is supported by the fact that depressed individuals have low cerebrospinal-fluid levels of 5-HT, its amino acid precursor tryptophan, and its major metabolite 5-H1AA

A

monoamine theory

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153
Q

theory that posits that depression results from reduced levels of monoaminergic activity, especially serotonin (5-HT) activity

A

monoamine theory

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154
Q

theory that is supported by the fact that drugs which increase monoamine activity levels enhance mood

A

monoamine theory

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155
Q

theory that is supported by the fact that drugs (e.g., reserpine) that deplete monoamines, or tryptophan-free diets that deplete serotonin, can produce depression

A

monoamine theory

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156
Q

theory that is contradicted by a lack of antidepressant effect of CRH antagonists in some clinical trials with depressed individuals

A

glucocorticoid theory

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157
Q

theory that posits that depression results from hyperactivity of the hypothalamic-pituitary-adrenal (HPA) axis

A

glucocorticoid theory

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158
Q

theory that is supported by the fact that stress is the most influential environmental factor that predisposes an individual to depression

A

glucocorticoid theory

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159
Q

theory that is supported by the fact that depressed individuals show overactivity of the hypothalamic-pituitary-adrenal (HPA) axis, as indicated by high levels of CRH & cortisol

A

glucocorticoid theory

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160
Q

type of antidepressant drug that works by blocking the activity of monoamine oxidase so that monoamines in the cytoplasm are not destroyed and can be available for release

A

monoamine oxidase inhibitors (MAOIS)

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161
Q

taking this type of antidepressant drug before ingesting tyramine-rich food can result in the cheese effect: sympathetic nervous system activation that can potentially result in death

A

monoamine oxidase inhibitors (MAOIS)

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162
Q

what is a monoamine?

A

serotonin, dopamine, epinephrine, norepinephrine

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163
Q

what antidepressant involves enzymes?

A

monoamine oxidase inhibitors (MAOIS)

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164
Q

type of antidepressant drug that, although classified as a first-generation antidepressant, is actually more similar in function to the second-generation antidepressants

A

tricyclic antidepressants (TCAS)

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165
Q

type of antidepressant drug that works by blocking reuptake of the monoamines into presynaptic neurons and so prolongs postsynaptic receptor stimulation

A

tricyclic antidepressants (TCAS)

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166
Q

What class of antidepressant drug can have dangerous cardiovascular effects due to its effects upon adrenergic activity through a mechanism that does not involve enzymes**?

A

tricyclic antidepressants (TCAS)

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167
Q

type of antidepressant drug that is fluoxetine (Prozac) and is included in the designation known as second-generation antidepressants

A

selective serotonin reuptake inhibitors (SSRIS)

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168
Q

type of antidepressant drug that is safer than the other types of antidepressant drugs, with fewer of their bothersome side effects

A

selective serotonin reuptake inhibitors (SSRIS)

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169
Q

type of antidepressant drug that works by blocking reuptake of just serotonin into presynaptic neurons and so prolongs postsynaptic receptor stimulation by serotonin

A

selective serotonin reuptake inhibitors (SSRIS)

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170
Q

potentially lethal condition associated with antidepressant drug use that is caused by an acute increase in serotonergic transmission

A

serotonin syndrome

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171
Q

potentially lethal condition that often results from an interaction between an antidepressant drug and a tryptophan-containing food or other drugs that increase serotonin levels

A

serotonin syndrome

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172
Q

Neurologic vs. Psychiatric disorders

A

neurological = usually can measure something that is wrong in brain

Psychiatric = subjective

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173
Q

type of opioid drug that is derived by taking the sap that exudes from the seed pods of the opium poppy and then compressing it into cakes that are dried

A

opium

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174
Q

type of opioid drug that has been cultivated in the western Mediterranean region since 7000 BCE and was described in writing by the Sumerians in 4000 BCE as a “joy plant”

A

opium

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175
Q

type of opioid drug whose smoking was first invented by the Chinese when tobacco smoking was banned by a Chinese emperor in 1644

A

opium

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176
Q

type of opioid drug that was popularly sold in nineteenth century Britain in a form that was dissolved in alcohol, called laudanum

A

opium

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177
Q

type of opioid drug that naturally contains the following three psychoactive ingredients: morphine, codeine, and thebaine

A

opium

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178
Q

type of opioid drug whose injection by means of the hypodermic syringe became popular in late nineteenth century America due to the widespread use of its injections to treat wounded soldiers during the Civil War

A

morphine

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179
Q

is both a type of opioid drug and the major psychoactive ingredient in opium, which accounts for 10% of the weight of opium

A

morphine

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180
Q

metabolite that heroin and codeine must be converted into within the brain in order to have a direct action on receptors

A

morphine

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181
Q

is the lesser of the two main psychoactive ingredients in opium, and accounts for only 0.5% of the weight of opium

A

codeine

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182
Q

minor psychoactive ingredient in opium that is also known as paramorphine

A

thebaine

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183
Q

minor psychoactive ingredient in opium that is the source of many semisynthetic opioid drugs including oxycodone

A

thebaine

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184
Q

minor psychoactive ingredient in opium that is the source of the semisynthetic opioid drug found in many prescription analgesics, such as Percocet, Percodan, and OxyContin

A

thebaine

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185
Q

type of opioid drug that was invented in 1898 by Heinrich Dreser working for the Bayer Company of Germany and originally advertised as having the valuable analgesic effects of morphine without the undesirable side effects of respiratory depression and addiction

A

heroin

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186
Q

is a semisynthetic opioid drug made by adding two acetyl groups to the morphine molecule

A

heroin

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187
Q

type of opioid drug that is more powerful than morphine due to its being 10 times more lipid soluble and, therefore, able to get to the brain faster and in higher concentrations

A

heroin

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188
Q

type of opioid drug that is heated and its smoke inhaled through a tube or straw in the method known as “chasing the dragon”

A

heroin

189
Q

law, passed in 1914, that made it illegal to sell or use opioids or cocaine in the United States

A

harrison narcotic act

190
Q

law passed by US Congress in 1914 that, in effect, made it illegal to be an addict and illegal for physicians to prescribe opioids to addicts

A

Harrison narcotic act

191
Q

class of drug that refers to any drug, natural or synthetic in origin, with properties similar to opium or its main active ingredient

A

opioid

192
Q

class of drug that can naturally be obtained from the seedpod of the opium poppy plant Papaver somniferum

A

opioid

193
Q

class of drug that is frequently given orally as an analgesic because, due to being a weak base, its slow absorption from the digestive system makes it easier to maintain its constant blood levels

A

opioid

194
Q

class of drug that has at least four types of receptors, referred to as mu, kappa, delta, and opioid receptor-like (ORL1) receptors

A

opioid

195
Q

class of drug that has typically been included in cough medicines since, in addition to depressing the vomiting center, it also suppresses coughing

A

opioid

196
Q

class of drug that, although depressing the vomiting center, when first administered will typically cause nausea and vomiting

A

opioid

197
Q

class of drug that constricts the pupils of the eyes, giving a small pupil appearance, and this effect diminishes only slightly with tolerance

A

opioid

198
Q

class of drug that was first medically used in the treatment of diarrhea and dysentery since it slows the passage of food through the digestive system, but its long-term use can have serious constipation consequences

A

opioid

199
Q

class of drug that decreases the level of sex hormones in both men and women, which is thought to be responsible for decreases in the sexual performance, sex drive, secondary sex characteristics, and fertility of users

A

opioid

200
Q

are opioid-like substances naturally produced by the brain

A

endorphins & enkephalins

201
Q

are endogenously created opioid-like neurotransmitters in the brain

A

endorphins & enkephalins

202
Q

is an opioid antagonist synthesized from thebaine that is used to treat opioid overdose because it immediately terminates the actions of all opioid agonists

A

naloxone

203
Q

drug that when given to an individual who is physically dependent on opioids will immediately cause withdrawal symptoms

A

nalaxone

204
Q

drug that is used to test whether a given effect is mediated by an opioid mechanism, which is established by simply seeing if the effect is blocked by this drug

A

naloxone

205
Q

drug that is a very effective and fast-acting antidote to opioid overdose

A

naloxone

206
Q

opioid antagonist that is poorly absorbed from the digestive system and so, when mixed with opioid agonists, will only block their effects when taken parenterally and not orally

A

naloxone

207
Q

class of drug that, at higher doses, induces a sleepy, trancelike state called a nod, during which the user sees visions or dreams

A

opioid

208
Q

class of drug that, although producing euphoria when initially given to experienced users of it, produces unpleasant feelings when used chronically or when given to naïve participants

A

opioid

209
Q

class of drug that when given to animals at low doses may increase spontaneous motor activity (SMA), but at high doses decreases SMA or even produces catalepsy – a state in which the body becomes rigid and can be molded into almost any position, which it will maintain for extended periods

A

opioid

210
Q

property of opioid drugs that refers to their ability to produce a loss of sensitivity to pain and make a person sleepy

A

narcotic analgesic

211
Q

property that analgesic drugs which do not cause sleepiness (e.g., aspirin) would NOT be classified as having

A

narcotic analgesic

212
Q

type of analgesic that opioid drugs are sometimes referred to as, but which the textbook avoids using as a term because of its connotations with habit-forming and illegal drugs

A

narcotic analgesic

213
Q

class of drug that has a moderate impairing (slowing) effect on the performance (especially psychomotor) of naïve participants but for which tolerance develops in addicted individuals, such as occurred with the “father of modern surgery” Dr. William Halsted

A

opioid

214
Q

for this class of drug, alterations in the sensitivities of mu, delta and ORL1 receptors play a role in the development of its long-term tolerance

A

opioid

215
Q

class of drug that produces withdrawal symptoms that, while never fatal, produce restlessness, agitation, chills, vomiting, diarrhea, cramps, and twitching of the extremities (“kicking the habit”)

A

opioid

216
Q

withdrawal from this class of drug, while not life threatening, is extremely uncomfortable and resembles a bad case of the flu

A

opioid

217
Q

for this class of drug, most users appear to be able to maintain what is called an ice cream habit or chipping - the occasional use of the drug when the opportunities to take it are available, but without the regularity or frequency that is typical of addicts

A

opioid

218
Q

for this class of drug, about 25-67% of addicts show a maturing out of its use – the spontaneous discontinuing of its use usually when they are in their 30s or 40s after some 5 to 10 years of use

A

opioid

219
Q

is used as a maintenance drug for treating heroin addicts

A

methadone

220
Q

opioid drug that has a much longer duration of action and is more effective when taken orally than morphine because it is not significantly destroyed by enzymes in the digestive system

A

methadone

221
Q

drug used for maintenance therapy of heroin addiction that also blocks the effects of heroin

A

methadone

222
Q

compared to other opioid drugs, this opioid drug has an extremely long duration of action in part because it becomes bound extensively to blood proteins and is not available for metabolism

A

methadone

223
Q

for this drug, the only known natural source of it is the tobacco plant, which originated in North and South America and is now used around the world in products manufactured from its dried leaves

A

nicotine

224
Q

is the psychoactive ingredient in tobacco, which is a variety of plants which belongs to the genus Nicotiana of the Solanaceae (nightshade) family

A

nicotine

225
Q

for this drug, its smoking was first linked to cancer by the U.S. Surgeon General’s Report in 1964

A

nicotine

226
Q

drug that can be readily absorbed in the form of chewing tobacco, moist snuff, cigar smoke, or pipe smoke by an intrabuccal route of administration

A

nicotine

227
Q

drug that can be readily absorbed in the form of dry snuff by an intranasal route of administration

A

nicotine

228
Q

drug that can be readily absorbed in the form of cigarette smoke by an inhalation route of administration

A

nicotine

229
Q

for this drug, new forms of its administration have been developed that include gum, the patch, nasal sprays, lozenges, and e-cigarettes

A

nicotine

230
Q

drug that is a weak base with a pKa of 8.0 which can be absorbed by an intrabuccal route of administration but not if it is delivered in an acidic smoke vehicle, such as cigarette smoke which lowers the pH of saliva to about 5.3

A

nicotine

231
Q

drug that is a weak base which can be more readily absorbed by an intrabuccal route of administration if it is delivered in an alkaline smoke vehicle, such as cigar or pipe smoke which raise the pH of saliva to about 8.5

A

nicotine

232
Q

drug that easily crosses the blood-brain barrier and, although its initial concentrations can leave the brain after about 30 minutes, typically accumulates within the brain throughout the day due to habitual patterns of repeated administration

A

nicotine

233
Q

drug that is metabolized by enzymes of the liver and broken down into 2 inactive metabolites - cotinine & nicotine-1’-N-oxide – with a typical half-life of 90-150 minutes

A

nicotine

234
Q

drug that is an agonist of the nicotinic acetylcholine receptor

A

nicotine

235
Q

type of receptor that is blocked by curare, a poison used on arrow and spear points by some South American tribes to create paralysis by stopping muscle contractions

A

nicotine

236
Q

drug that in the peripheral nervous system directly causes neuromuscular and parasympathetic stimulation, and indirectly causes sympathetic stimulation and the release of catecholamines (norepinephrine and dopamine) in the brain

A

nicotine

237
Q

drug that constricts blood vessels in the skin, which accounts for why smokers tend to have cold skin, increased wrinkles, and do not blush easily

A

nicotine

238
Q

drug that is similar to amphetamine and cocaine in the high it produces in regular users and the effects it has upon spontaneous motor activity, conditioned behavior, and performance, but that does not generalize to amphetamine and cocaine

A

nicotine

239
Q

drug that has discriminative properties which are due to its effects primarily upon the medial prefrontal cortex and only partially upon the dopaminergic mesolimbic pathway

A

nicotine

240
Q

drug that must be paired with a conditioned stimulus in a second-order reinforcement schedule to be reinforcing in animals

A

nicotine

241
Q

theory of nicotine smoking that states that smokers attempt to maintain a dose high enough to avoid withdrawal symptoms but below a level that has toxic or aversive effects

A

constant blood level theory

242
Q

theory of nicotine smoking that is supported by nicotine content effects on titration, with smokers taking deeper and more frequent puffs on low-nicotine cigarettes

A

constant blood level theory

243
Q

theory of nicotine smoking that predicts that the first few puffs on a cigarette will be rapid and deep as the smoker tries to raise blood nicotine levels that have fallen since he last smoked

A

constant blood level theory

244
Q

theory of nicotine smoking that predicts that smokers will be most motivated to smoke when their blood nicotine levels are low after a period without smoking, such as after a night of sleep

A

constant blood level theory

245
Q

theory of nicotine smoking that is contradicted by the low efficacy of nicotine replacement therapy, suggesting that additional factors are controlling nicotine intake than just constant nicotine levels

A

constant blood level theory

246
Q

theory of nicotine smoking that is contradicted by the rising blood nicotine levels seen with each smoke across the day

A

constant blood level theory

247
Q

theory of nicotine smoking that states that the sudden high level of nicotine that occurs when smoke is first inhaled (bolus) intensifies the pleasure and reinforces its effect

A

nicotine bolus theory

248
Q

theory of nicotine smoking that is supported by the fact that cigarette smoking is more addictive than other, slower routes of nicotine administration

A

nicotine bolus theory

249
Q

theory of nicotine smoking that cannot be explained by a mechanism of action involving a decrease in desensitization of nicotinic receptors, since nicotine receptors enter a desensitized configuration if they are continuously exposed to high concentrations of an agonist and nicotine levels typically never drop before the next puff

A

nicotine bolus theory

250
Q

theory of nicotine smoking that accounts for the ability of non-nicotine stimuli to enhance the reinforcing effects of smoking

A

dual reinforcement model

251
Q

theory of nicotine smoking that states that nicotine not only stimulates the dopaminergic mesolimbic pathway but also enhances the effect of non-nicotine stimuli

A

dual reinforcement model

252
Q

theory of nicotine smoking that states that the ability of nicotine to enhance the reinforcing properties of the smell and taste of tobacco smoke make it a more powerful reinforcer

A

dual reinforcement model

253
Q

methylxanthine product that is made from a plant that is native to Ethiopia but is now widely cultivated in Africa and South America and in tropical climates all over the world

A

coffee

254
Q

methylxanthine product that is made by roasting, grinding, and mixing with boiling water dried berries from a bush with the same name as this product

A

coffee

255
Q

methylxanthine product that is made from a plant that is native to Asia and is first known to have been cultivated and sold commercially in China by 780 CE

A

tea

256
Q

methylxanthine product that is made from leaves of the Camellia sinesis plant by either steaming them raw (green leaves) or by first drying and oxidizing them (black leaves)

A

tea

257
Q

methylxanthine product that contains relatively large amounts of theophylline

A

tea

258
Q

methylxanthine product that is made from a plant that is native to South America but is now a more profitable crop in Africa

A

cocoa

259
Q

methylxanthine product that is made by fermenting, roasting, and crushing the seeds of the cacao tree

A

cocoa

260
Q

methylxanthine product that is mixed with sugar to make chocolate

A

cocoa

261
Q

methylxanthine product that contains relatively large amounts of theobromine

A

cocoa

262
Q

methylxanthine product that contains substances that resemble anandamide and block its metabolism (agonist)

A

cocoa

263
Q

is the best-known member of the methylxanthines

A

caffeine

264
Q

is probably the most widely self-administered drug in the world

A

caffeine

265
Q

drug that can naturally be found in coffee, tea, and cocoa

A

caffeine

266
Q

drug that is typically added to soft drinks

A

caffeine

267
Q

drug that is a typical ingredient in many over-the-counter painkillers, cold remedies, stimulant pills, and energy drinks

A

caffeine

268
Q

drug that, despite being alkaloid (basic), does not become ionized in the acidic environment of the digestive system since it has a very low pKa of 0.5

A

caffeine

269
Q

drug that increases wakefulness by blocking adenosine receptors

A

caffeine

270
Q

drug that blocks benzodiazepine receptors as well as stimulate the release of epinephrine in the peripheral nervous system and catecholamines (norepinephrine and dopamine) in the brain

A

caffeine

271
Q

drug that is similar to amphetamine and cocaine in the effects it has upon spontaneous motor activity, conditioned behavior, and performance, but that also increases responding that has been suppressed by punishment

A

caffeine

272
Q

chronic use of this drug leads to an upregulation of adenosine receptors in the brain

A

caffeine

273
Q

for withdrawal from this drug, the most common symptom is headaches but also shows decreases in alertness, energy, concentration, and feelings of well-being, and shows increases in irritability and flu-like symptoms

A

caffeine

274
Q

is a preparation that appears like a controlled psychoactive drug but instead contains a drug or combination of drugs that are not prescribed or controlled substances

A

turkey drug

275
Q

a drug designed to mimic amphetamine or cocaine by containing caffeine in combination with other substances (e.g., ephedrine) would be called this

A

turkey drug

276
Q

_____ and _____ are indirect agonists of dopamine and norepinephrine

A

nicotine and caffeine

277
Q

disorder that causes sensory disturbances, mild delirium, and excitement as a result of caffeine intake

A

caffeinism

278
Q

disorder that causes agitation, twitching, rambling flow of thoughts & speech, irregular heart rhythm, and inexhaustibility as a result of excessive (>1 gram) caffeine intake

A

caffeinism

279
Q

disorder that is referred to as caffeine intoxication in DSM-V

A

caffeinism

280
Q

type of psychomotor stimulant that is derived from a plant that is native to South America

A

cocaine

281
Q

type of psychomotor stimulant that is extracted from the leaf of a small tree known as the coca bush

A

cocaine

282
Q

type of psychomotor stimulant that Sigmund Freud proposed be used as a treatment for addictions and depression

A

cocaine

283
Q

type of psychomotor stimulant that also acts as a local anesthetic

A

cocaine

284
Q

the leaves of this type of psychomotor stimulant are used in the making of Coca-Cola

A

cocaine

285
Q

type of psychomotor stimulant that has the shortest duration of action, with a half-life of 45-75 minutes in normally acidic urine

A

cocaine

286
Q

type of psychomotor stimulant that acts as a reuptake inhibitor equally to norepinephrine, dopamine, & serotonin but not as a monoamine substrate-type releaser or MAO inhibitor

A

cocaine

287
Q

type of psychomotor stimulant that causes a mild depression (dysphoria), called the crash or comedown, 20-30 minutes after its use

A

cocaine

288
Q

psychomotor stimulant with which coke-out occurs: an acute tolerance to its mood-elevating properties with its continuous use

A

cocaine

289
Q

equally uses norepinephrine, dopamine and serotonin

A

cocaine

290
Q

form of cocaine that is cocaine mixed with a solution of baking soda (sodium bicarbonate), heated until it forms crystalline chunks (rocks), and then smoked in a pipe

A

crack

291
Q

form of cocaine that has greater lipid solubility than regular cocaine since a base is added to it which removes the ionic charge from the molecules of cocaine

A

crack

292
Q

type of psychomotor stimulant that is a synthetic version of the naturally occurring herb ephedrine

A

amphetamine

293
Q

type of psychomotor stimulant that can be synthesized from cold medication containing ephedrine or pseudoephedrine, iodine, hydrochloric acid, ether, and ammonia

A

amphetamine

294
Q

type of psychomotor stimulant that is called crystal, ice, or crystal meth when sold in a powder form that has been recrystalized

A

amphetamine

295
Q

type of psychomotor stimulant that has the longest duration of action, with a half-life of 7-14 hours in normally acidic urine

A

amphetamine

296
Q

type of psychomotor stimulant that acts as a reuptake inhibitor (primarily to norepinephrine and secondly to dopamine), a monoamine substrate-type releaser, and a MAO inhibitor

A

amphetamine

297
Q

type of psychomotor stimulant that a speed freak injects every few hours for days at a time

A

amphetamine

298
Q

type of psychomotor stimulant that is derived from a plant that is native to eastern Africa and southern Arabia

A

cathinone

299
Q

type of psychomotor stimulant that is found in the leaves of a plant called Catha edulis, and is also known as khat in Yemen, tscaht in Ethiopia, and miraa in Kenya

A

cathinone

300
Q

type of psychomotor stimulant that is used primarily in the area where it is grown and not exported for use elsewhere since it degrades shortly after the plant is harvested

A

cathinone

301
Q

mephedrone is a synthetic version of this type of psychomotor stimulant that is often sold over the Internet as plant food or bath salts

A

cathinone

302
Q

type of psychomotor stimulant that has neither the shortest nor the longest duration of action, with a half-life of about 90 minutes

A

cathinone

303
Q

primarily norepinephrine , secondary dopamine

A

cathinone

304
Q

class of drug, other than antidepressants, that directly stimulates transmission at synapses that use monoamines (norepinephrine, dopamine, and serotonin)

A

psychomotor stimulant

305
Q

class of drug that directly stimulates epinephrine transmission at sympathetic synapses and thus mimics sympathetic arousal

A

psychomotor stimulant

306
Q

class of drug that is used to treat Attention Deficit Hyperactivity Disorder (ADHD) and the sleep disorder narcolepsy

A

psychomotor stimulant

307
Q

class of drug that improves speed, short-term memory, vigilance, and attention but can also produce tunnel vision – the focusing of all attention on only one characteristic or event compared to others and therefore have an increased chance of missing other things in the environment

A

psychomotor stimulant

308
Q

high-dosage use of this class of drug results in punding: the repetitive performance of some (usually useless) act for an extended period of time

A

psychomotor stimulant

309
Q

high-dosage use of this class of drug can cause monoamine psychosis, which is virtually indistinguishable from paranoid schizophrenia

A

psychomotor stimulant

310
Q

high-dosage use of this class of drug can cause automutilation and formication: the sensation of small creatures (e.g., bugs) crawling around just under the skin

A

psychomotor stimulant

311
Q

disorder that causes death as a result of a cocaine overdose

A

caine reaction

312
Q

disorder that causes severe headache, nausea, vomiting, and severe convulsions, and then followed by respiratory depression and cardiac failure as a result of excessive cocaine

A

caine reaction

313
Q

what class of drugs are all agonists of the GABA-A receptor

A

depressants

314
Q

Why do depressants (like alcohol) reduce anxiety?

A

By decreased activity of your nervous system

315
Q

has probably been a part of the human diet and that of our hominid ancestors for millions of years

A

alcohol

316
Q

all fruit, even ripe fruit, contain a small amount of this because of the sugar and presence of yeasts, and the content of this drug increases as the fruit matures

A

alcohol

317
Q

the taste and smell of this drug has been associated with food and nourishment throughout a significant proportion of our evolutionary history, which probably had a big influence on our physiological and behavioral responses to it

A

alcohol

318
Q

people have likely been brewing this since agriculture began about 10,000 years ago, undoubtedly on a small scale

A

alcohol

319
Q

the earliest proof that humans made this drug involves large earthenware jugs, found in China that date back 9,000 years, and whose contents have been analyzed to show that this drug was made from rice, honey, and fruit

A

alcohol

320
Q

the ancient Egyptians, as well as the Assyrians and the Babylonians, drank this drug primarily in the form of beer made from grain, but they also drank it in the form of wine made from grapes

A

alcohol

321
Q

the ancient British people drank this drug in the form of beer made from fermented barley, mead made from fermented wild honey, and cider made from fermented apples

A

alcohol

322
Q

the Chinese were the first to distill this drug as long ago as 3000 BCE

A

alcohol

323
Q

the distillation of this drug did not occur in England until the sixteenth century when a number of Irish settlers started manufacturing and distributing usquebaugh, which, in English, became known as whiskey

A

alcohol

324
Q

the condemnation of the use of this drug is known as temperance, and for which there were large organized movements against its consumption during the early nineteenth and early twentieth centuries

A

alcohol

325
Q

for this drug prohibition laws were enacted in the United States during the early twentieth century, including in 1917 a ratification of the Eighteenth Amendment to the U.S. Constitution

A

alcohol

326
Q

American consumption of this drug has been speculated by historians to go through cycles, with consumption peaks every 60 to 70 years, and these peaks then followed by declines in use accompanied by preoccupation with health and morality and public concern over the harm that the drug is doing

A

alcohol

327
Q

is also known as ethanol for the type of it that is typically consumed

A

alcohol

328
Q

is produced by fermentation when yeasts consume sugars dissolved in water

A

alcohol

329
Q

has versions that simply result from fermentation (such as wine and beer) as well as versions that require additional distillation (such as whiskey and brandy)

A

alcohol

330
Q

in addition to barbiturates, this drug also binds to an allosteric site on the membrane-spanning portion of the GABA-A receptor complex and enhances the effects of GABA

A

alcohol

331
Q

the effects of this drug are mediated primarily by its ability to be both a GABA agonist and a NMDA glutamate antagonist, leading to a combined suppression of neural activity

A

alcohol

332
Q

this drug is specifically meant to have its effects reversed by amethystic agents, such as antagonists that compete with the drug at its allosteric binding site on GABA-A receptors

A

alcohol

333
Q

an NDMA glutamate receptor antagonist

A

alcohol

334
Q

Increases inhibition in the brain by being a GABA agonist

A

alcohol

335
Q

stops excitation in the brain (glutamate)

A

alcohol

336
Q

type of neurotransmitter that is the major inhibitory neurotransmitter in the brain

A

gamma-aminobutyric acid (GABA)

337
Q

type of neurotransmitter system that is thought to mediate the effects of tranquilizers, anaesthetic gases, and alcohol

A

gamma-aminobutyric acid (GABA)

338
Q

type of neurotransmitter that is the major excitatory neurotransmitter in the brain

A

glutamate

339
Q

type of neurotransmitter that is the precursor for GABA and can get directly converted into GABA

A

glutamate

340
Q

drug that requires a much higher concentration than most other drugs in order to produce its intoxicating effect

A

alcohol

341
Q

this drug is typically given at a dose of about 10 grams per administration, which would cause in a typical North American human adult (who weigh on average 180 lbs) a concentration level of approximately 20 mg of the drug per 100 ml of blood

A

alcohol

342
Q

for this depressant drug neither the pH of the digestive system nor the pH of the blood have an effect on its absorption because its molecules cannot be ionized

A

alcohol

343
Q

this depressant drug usually reaches its maximum blood level within 1 hour and 15 minutes after it is consumed, but shows increased absorption rates and sooner peaks if it is taken multiple times during the same session

A

alcohol

344
Q

the passage of this drug through the stomach may be facilitated by carbonation, such as in the form of sparkling wines

A

alcohol

345
Q

for this drug the most rapid absorption occurs if it is administered in a dosage form that contains 40% of the drug

A

alcohol

346
Q

this drug is distributed almost entirely in body water because it dissolves much more readily in water than in fat

A

alcohol

347
Q

drug that is distributed rather evenly throughout body water, and crosses the blood-brain barrier without difficulty

A

alcohol

348
Q

drug that is metabolized by the body at a rate of about 15 mg of the drug per 100 ml of blood per hour

A

alcohol

349
Q

metabolism of this drug usually takes place at a steady rate throughout most concentrations of the drug in the blood

A

alcohol

350
Q

drug that, when made freely available to animals and humans, shows a somewhat erratic pattern of self-administration with periods of high level intake for several days followed by periods of self-imposed low level intake lasting 2 to 4 days before repeating the cycle

A

alcohol

351
Q

chronic exposure to this depressant drug leads to an upregulation of glutamate NMDA receptor channel functioning and the increased sensitivity seen during its withdrawal

A

alcohol

352
Q

this drug causes decreases in blood flow to the cerebellum, a region that controls voluntary movement and coordination and that contains GABA-A receptors with the type of subunit that is sensitive to this drug

A

alcohol

353
Q

this drug causes an increase in sway apparently as a result of its effect on the sensitive organs of balance in the inner ear, which causes nystagmus - eye movements responsible for the sensation that the room is spinning around - and its effects upon the cerebellum

A

alcohol

354
Q

the memory effects of this depressant drug are partially mediated by its antagonistic effect on NMDA receptors in the hippocampus

A

alcohol

355
Q

this drug at low doses (50 to 100 mg per 100 ml of blood) makes people more talkative, use a higher pitch of voice, and show mild excitement; at moderate doses (100 to 150 mg per 100 ml of blood) makes subjects appear even more talkative and cheerful, and are often loud and boisterous, though later they become sleepy; at high doses (above 150 mg per 100 ml of blood) may make subjects feel nauseous, become lethargic, enter a stupor, experience a loss of understanding, memory blackout, and unconsciousness

A

alcohol

356
Q

the Romberg sway test was designed to detect impairments caused by this drug, where concentrations as low as 60 mg of the drug per 100 ml of blood cause a 40% decrease in steadiness that makes it difficult to stand on one foot with eyes closed, and at higher concentrations the lack of steadiness degenerates into staggering and reeling

A

alcohol

357
Q

drug that slows reaction time by about 10% at concentrations of 80 to 100 mg of the drug per 100 ml of blood, and causes large consistent deficits with larger doses

A

alcohol

358
Q

the effects of this drug on driving, in simulators and in real cars on closed tracks, begin to affect performance at about 50 to 80 mg of the drug per 100 ml of blood, where participants drove at higher average speeds and exhibited performance deficits, which increased the likelihood of collisions

A

alcohol

359
Q

for this drug at low rising concentrations in the range of 87 mg of the drug per 100 ml of blood you do not see increased errors in a short-term (2-minute delay) verbal memory task but you do see impaired accuracy of long-term (20-minute delay) verbal memory

A

alcohol

360
Q

drug that in low and moderate doses causes dilation of capillaries in the skin, and tends to cause individuals who have taken high doses to have a flushed face

A

alcohol

361
Q

drug that produces a temporary sensation of warmth but is no longer recommended as a remedy for people exposed to cold because heat is lost from the skin more quickly and the body cools down faster, to the point where core temperature can become dangerously low in extreme cold

A

alcohol

362
Q

drug that animals will self-administer orally when it’s available, but will need to first be forced to take it (e.g., no other food/water available except ones laced with the drug) in order to later voluntarily increase oral intake of the drug to addictive-like levels

A

alcohol

363
Q

for this drug animals trained to discriminate it will partially generalize the response to barbiturates, benzodiazepines, and NMDA receptor blockers

A

alcohol

364
Q

drug that is toxic and has a typical lethal dose (500 mg of the drug per 100 ml of blood) uncomfortably close to the usual social dose (150 mg of the drug per 100 ml of blood), with a therapeutic index of about 3.3

A

alcohol

365
Q

drug that produces discomfort the next day due to 2 contributing factors: (1) its toxic effects on the body - low blood sugar levels, dehydration, and irritation of the lining of the digestive system - and (2) compensatory responses to it - a rebound excitation of the nervous system after the drug has depressed its activity

A

alcohol

366
Q

drug that may increase sexual interest by diminishing inhibitions, but, in higher doses, reduces sexual arousal in both males and females

A

alcohol

367
Q

chronic use of this drug (e.g., more than 5 administrations a day for at least 5 years) increases by 8 times the chance of liver cirrhosis and accounts for somewhere between 40 and 90% of liver cirrhosis deaths in the United States

A

alcohol

368
Q

excessive use of this drug can cause, either directly or indirectly, a number of disorders of both the central and peripheral nervous systems, including epilepsy, cerebellar syndrome, and dementia

A

alcohol

369
Q

the use of this drug is causally related to cancers of the mouth, throat, colon, and liver possibly as a result of the genotoxic effect (gene-damaging properties) of its first metabolite, the acetaldehyde molecule

A

alcohol

370
Q

is the main enzyme that breaks down alcohol

A

alcohol dehydrogenase

371
Q

enzyme that catalyzes first-pass metabolism of alcohol in the stomach

A

alcohol dehydrogenase

372
Q

enzyme that is involved in the rate-limiting (i.e., slowest) step in alcohol metabolism

A

alcohol dehydrogenase

373
Q

converts alcohol to acetaldehyde

A

alcohol dehydrogenase

374
Q

the amount of this substance determines the rate of conversion of alcohol to acetaldehyde

A

alcohol dehydrogenase

375
Q

is the concentration of alcohol in the whole blood

A

blood alcohol concentration (BAC)

376
Q

is expressed in terms of milligrams (mg) of the drug per 100 milliliters (ml) of whole blood

A

blood alcohol concentration (BAC)

377
Q

measurement of drug concentration in the blood that can easily be converted to a percentage of the drug in the blood by simply moving the decimal point three places to the left

A

blood alcohol concentration (BAC)

378
Q

enzyme that converts the byproduct of alcohol metabolism (acetaldehyde) into acetyl coenzyme A - which is more harmless and helps produce energy and fatty acids

A

aldehyde dehydrogenase

379
Q

enzyme that is blocked by the drug disulfiram (Antabuse) that causes, after drinking alcohol, acetaldehyde to build up and the drinker to hence become nauseous

A

aldehyde dehydrogenase

380
Q

system that normally metabolizes 5-10% of alcohol, but its activity increases with high continuous levels of blood alcohol

A

microsomal ethanol-oxidizing system (MEOS)

381
Q

the increased activity of this system accounts for 50-65% of the increased alcohol metabolism induced by heavy drinking and partly accounts for alcohol tolerance

A

microsomal ethanol-oxidizing system (MEOS)

382
Q

system that is both stimulated by continuous alcohol use and responsible for the metabolism of a number of other drugs, such as barbiturates

A

microsomal ethanol-oxidizing system (MEOS)

383
Q

system that is responsible for the cross-tolerance to the effects of barbiturates seen in alcoholics

A

microsomal ethanol-oxidizing system (MEOS)

384
Q

uses an enzyme called cytochrome p450 - used for metabolizing alcohol, barbiturates, and benzodiazepines

A

microsomal ethanol-oxidizing system (MEOS)

385
Q

type of blackout that occurs when an alcohol drinker is only able to remember bits & pieces of the events that occurred during a drinking episode

A

grayout

386
Q

type of blackout from alcohol that is more common but less serious

A

grayout

387
Q

type of blackout that occurs when an alcohol drinker is able to remember missing memories if reminded of these events or if he/she returns to the place where they occurred

A

grayout

388
Q

type of blackout with alcohol that is primarily caused by a problem with retrieving memories

A

grayout

389
Q

type of blackout with alcohol that is thought to result from dissociation

A

grayout

390
Q

type of blackout that occurs when an alcohol drinker is unable to remember any of the events that occurred during a drinking episode

A

en bloc blackout

391
Q

type of blackout from alcohol that is less common but more serious

A

en bloc blackout

392
Q

type of blackout that occurs when an alcohol drinker is NOT able to remember missing memories even if reminded of these events

A

en bloc blackout

393
Q

type of blackout with alcohol that is primarily caused by a problem with putting memories into long-term storage

A

en bloc blackout

394
Q

is the loss of restraint or the inability to withhold inappropriate behavior

A

disinhibition

395
Q

phenomenon that is demonstrated by the effects of alcohol on the go-stop task: where subjects are required to withhold a go response if the go signal is followed by a stop signal

A

disinhibition

396
Q

phenomenon that is demonstrated when alcohol given to rats increases the response rates that are normally suppressed by an administered shock

A

disinhibition

397
Q

phenomenon that is demonstrated when animals who have been administered barbiturates continue to make responses that are normally punished by electric shock

A

disinhibition

398
Q

is a stage of alcohol withdrawal that involves agitation, tremors, muscle cramps, vomiting, nausea, sweating, vivid dreaming, and irregular heartbeat

A

early minor syndrome

399
Q

type of withdrawal syndrome from alcohol that starts 8-12 hours after withdrawal and is usually over by 2 days after abstinence

A

early minor syndrome

400
Q

AKA HANGOVER

A

early minor syndrome

401
Q

is also known as delirium tremens, or the DTs

A

late major syndrome

402
Q

is a stage of alcohol withdrawal that involves severe agitation, disorientation, confusion, and hallucinations

A

late major syndrome

403
Q

during this stage of alcohol withdrawal seizures may occur

A

late major syndrome

404
Q

type of withdrawal syndrome from alcohol that starts 2 days after withdrawal and may last as long as 7-10 days

A

late major syndrome

405
Q

type of alcohol withdrawal involving hallucinations that do not usually take the form of the proverbial pink elephant, but frequently involve smaller animals (e.g., rats, bats, or insects)

A

late major syndrome

406
Q

syndrome that is common in alcoholics and whose primary symptom is severe memory loss

A

korsakoff’s syndrome

407
Q

syndrome that results from deficiency of thiamin (vitamin B1), which is common among many alcoholics

A

korsakoff’s syndrome

408
Q

syndrome that is caused by the use of alcohol during pregnancy and results in a number of behavioral, anatomical, and physiological irregularities in the child

A

fetal alcohol syndrome (FAS)

409
Q

syndrome that is produced by prenatal exposure to alcohol and is manifested as mental retardation, poor coordination, loss of muscle tone, and characteristic facial features

A

fetal alcohol syndrome (FAS)

410
Q

phenomenon that occurs when substances that are physiologically stressful and toxic at high doses are beneficial at low doses

A

hormesis

411
Q

phenomenon that may reflect an evolutionary adaptation to alcohol that maximizes its benefits and minimizes its harm

A

hormesis

412
Q

concept that explains the U-shaped relationship seen, in adults over the age of 45, between alcohol consumption and overall mortality rates, as well as for the risk of developing heart disease, diabetes, ischemic strokes, and age-related dementias

A

hormesis

413
Q

concept that accounts for the estimated 80,000 more deaths from coronary heart disease each year in the United States that would occur if all consumption of alcohol ceased

A

hormesis

414
Q

concept that accounts for the fact that alcohol in a low to moderate dose may trigger a sort of protective effect on the immune system, but in excessive amounts can produce adverse effects on the immune system

A

hormesis

415
Q

property of depressant drugs that is the reason why they are sometimes referred to as tranquilizers

A

anxiolytic

416
Q

property of depressant drugs that makes them therapeutically useful to treat agitation and anxiety disorders

A

anxiolytic

417
Q

the medicinal property of depressant drugs that is due mainly to their ability to increase GABA-A receptor activity but only if relatively slowly to avoid sedation

A

anxiolytic

418
Q

property of depressant drugs that causes a decrease in avoidance behavior at doses that do not cause much effect upon escape behavior or positively motivated behavior

A

anxiolytic

419
Q

property of benzodiazepines that reduces defensive aggression but not unprovoked aggression or attack behavior

A

anxiolytic

420
Q

property of depressant drugs that is the reason why they are sometimes referred to as sleeping pills

A

sedative-hypnotic

421
Q

property of depressant drugs that makes them therapeutically useful to sedate and aid sleep

A

sedative-hypnotic

422
Q

the medicinal property of depressant drugs that is due mainly to their ability to increase GABA-A receptor activity if done relatively quickly

A

sedative-hypnotic

423
Q

property of benzodiazepines, that if administered in the daytime, is found to be unpleasant by most normal healthy volunteers, unless they have a history of depressant drug abuse, moderate alcohol use, or opioid use

A

sedative-hypnotic

424
Q

was first synthesized in 1864, and, for over 100 years, was one of the most useful drugs in the physician’s black bag for the treatment of anxiety and insomnia, replacing brandy, bromides, and opium as tranquillizers

A

barbiturates

425
Q

was essentially the only drug used as a sedative and tranquillizer from the 1920s to mid-1950s

A

barbiturates

426
Q

depressant drug that, since the 1960s, has declined in medical use and increased in illicit use

A

barbiturates

427
Q

in the 1960s, this drug was sold illicitly on the streets as “downers“

A

barbiturates

428
Q

drug that has the generic drug name stem of barbital

A

barbiturates

429
Q

drug, used therapeutically as an anxiolytic and sedative-hypnotic, that at low doses increases the affinity of the GABA receptor to co-occurring GABA but at high doses can stimulate the GABA receptor to open on its own

A

barbiturates

430
Q

depressant drug, used therapeutically as an anxiolytic and sedative-hypnotic, for which there is NO upper limit on its inhibitory effect on the brain

A

barbiturates

431
Q

depressant drug that is an anticonvulsant that would more likely be used for long-term control of epilepsy

A

barbiturates

432
Q

depressant drug that has few physiological effects at low doses, apart from a depression in respiration and a slight drop in blood pressure

A

barbiturates

433
Q

animals trained to discriminate benzodiazepines will generalize the response to alcohol and this other depressant drug

A

barbiturates

434
Q

depressant drug that shows cross-tolerance with benzodiazepines and alcohol

A

barbiturates

435
Q

depressant drug, used therapeutically as an anxiolytic and sedative-hypnotic, that can in high doses produce unconsciousness and anesthesia, and be life-threatening due to its inhibition of the autonomic centers in the brainstem causing depressed breathing

A

barbiturates

436
Q

is the most common anxiolytic and sedative drug in use today

A

benzodiazepines

437
Q

drug that was first tested in the 1950s as an anxiolytic in order to create a safer alternative to barbiturates

A

benzodiazepines

438
Q

since the 1960s, this drug became increasingly synthesized and tested, and a number of different types of it were eventually marketed as anxiolytics, sedative-hypnotics, muscle relaxants, and seizure suppressants

A

benzodiazepines

439
Q

drug that has the generic drug name stem of azepam

A

benzodiazepines

440
Q

drug that diazepam is a fast-acting type of, which reaches peak blood levels in about 30 to 60 minutes after administration

A

benzodiazepines

441
Q

drug that oxazepam is a slow-acting type of, which may take several hours to reach peak blood levels after administration

A

benzodiazepines

442
Q

the duration of the effect of this drug is not always determined by its half-life because the metabolites of some of its older types (e.g., diazepam), but not the metabolites of its newer types (e.g., oxazepam), are also active

A

benzodiazepines

443
Q

drug that binds to an allosteric site at the interface of one of the alpha subunits and the gamma subunit of the GABA-A receptor complex and enhances the effects of GABA

A

benzodiazepines

444
Q

drug that at both low and high doses increases the affinity of the GABA receptor to co-occurring GABA but does NOT stimulate the GABA receptor to open on its own

A

benzodiazepines

445
Q

drug that enhances the effects of adenosine by blocking its reuptake and permitting its accumulation

A

benzodiazepines

446
Q

drug that produces anxiolysis (anxiety reduction) and alteration of mood by activation of GABA-A receptors in the cortex, dorsal raphe nucleus, limbic system, and interrelated structures that are known to regulate emotion

A

benzodiazepines

447
Q

for this depressant drug, used therapeutically as an anxiolytic and sedative-hypnotic, there is an upper limit on its inhibitory effect on the brain

A

benzodiazepines

448
Q

depressant drug that is an anticonvulsant that is useful in treating petit mal seizures and infantile spasms, but is typically not used for long-term control of epilepsy

A

benzodiazepines

449
Q

depressant drug that does not, even at high doses, produce a significant depression of respiration, change in heart rate, or change in blood pressure

A

benzodiazepines

450
Q

Animals trained to discriminate barbiturates will generalize the response to alcohol and this other depressant drug

A

benzodiazepines

451
Q

drug that the sedative-hypnotic, nitrazepam, would be a type of, which shows a withdrawal rebound in REM sleep and insomnia that reaches a peak about 10 days after the drug is stopped and that may last for several weeks

A

benzodiazepines

452
Q

depressant drug that shows cross-tolerance with barbiturates and alcohol

A

benzodiazepines

453
Q

depressant drug, used therapeutically as an anxiolytic and sedative-hypnotic, that can in high doses cause extreme sedation and grogginess but is NOT, by itself, life threatening

A

benzodiazepines

454
Q

depressant drug, used therapeutically as an anxiolytic and sedative-hypnotic, that is considered less addicting than the barbiturates, although it is known to have abuse potential

A

benzodiazepines

455
Q

type of withdrawal from benzodiazepines that is seen in individuals who have taken high doses of the drug for at least one month

A

sedative-hypnotic withdrawal

456
Q

type of withdrawal from benzodiazepines that involves symptoms of tremors, delirium, cramps, and possibly, convulsions

A

sedative-hypnotic withdrawal

457
Q

type of withdrawal from benzodiazepines that starts within a few days of abstinence and is gone within about 10 days

A

sedative-hypnotic withdrawal

458
Q

type of withdrawal from benzodiazepines that is seen in individuals who have taken low therapeutic doses of the drug for more than 6 months

A

low-dose withdrawal

459
Q

type of withdrawal from benzodiazepines that involves symptoms of anxiety, panic, irregular heartbeat, increased blood pressure, impaired memory and concentration, feelings of unreality, muscle spasm, and a sensitivity to lights and sounds

A

low-dose withdrawal

460
Q

type of withdrawal from benzodiazepines that typically cycles every 10 days and can last anywhere from 2 weeks to as long as a year

A

low-dose withdrawal

461
Q

is a physician-caused pattern of drug use in which the prescribed drug is continued unnecessarily, or the dose is escalated

A

iatrogenic

462
Q

is the most common pattern of benzodiazepine self-administration that humans show outside the laboratory, aside from its use for legitimate medical conditions

A

iatrogenic

463
Q

What are the 3 major types of depressants?

A

alcohol, barbiturates, benzodiazepines

464
Q

What are the 3 major stimulants?

A

Nicotine, Methylxanthines, Psychomotor Stimulants

465
Q

What are the 3 methylxanthines?

A

caffeine (coffee), theophylline (tea), theobromine (cocoa)

466
Q

What are the 3 psychomotor stimulants?

A

cocaine, amphetamine, cathinone

467
Q

What are the 4 hallucinogens?

A

LSD, mescaline, salvia, ecstasy

468
Q

What is the drug class and the drug:

caffeine, psychomotor stimulants, opioids, hallucinogens, amphetamine, ecstasy

A

Drug Class: opioid, psychomotor stimulants, hallucinogens

Drug: caffeine, amphetamine, ecstasy