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Vet Micro > Final Exam > Flashcards

Final Exam Flashcards

1
Q

what is the larger organism that supports the survival and growth of a pathogenic microorganism?

A

host

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2
Q

a microbe growing and multiplying within a host - may or may not result in overt disease

A

infection

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3
Q

any change from a state of health - part or all of the host is incapable or carrying on normal functions due to presence of pathogen or its products

A

infectious disease

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4
Q

any organism that causes disease

A

pathogen

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5
Q

causes disease by direct interaction with healthy host

A

primary pathogen

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6
Q

may be part of normal microbiota and causes disease when the host is immunocompromised

A

opportunistic pathogen

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7
Q

ability of a pathogen to cause disease

A

pathogenicity

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8
Q

degree of harm (pathogenicity) inflicted on its host

A

virulence

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9
Q

remain in tissues and fluids but never enter host cells during disease

A

extracellular pathogens

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10
Q

grown and multiply within host cells

A

intracellular pathogens

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11
Q

reside within cells of the host or in the environment but can also be grown in pure culture without host cell support

A

facultative intracellular pathogens

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12
Q

only grow inside host cells

A

obligate intracellular pathogens

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13
Q

time between pathogen entry and development of signs and symptoms

A

incubation period

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14
Q

mild, non-specific signs and symptoms

A

prodromal stage

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15
Q

disease is most severe and display signs and symptoms

A

illness period

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16
Q

recovery stage

A

convalescence

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17
Q

objective changes that can be directly observed and measured (fever, rash)

A

signs

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18
Q

subjective changes (pain, loss of appetite) - term often used in broader score in clinical signs

A

symptoms

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19
Q

set of characteristic signs and symptoms for a disease

A

disease syndrome

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20
Q

the host provides the pathogen …

A

protection
nutrients
energy to use

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21
Q

infectious agents develop mechanisms to access and exploit ____

A

hosts
to survive they must also devise methods to move on to a better environment or host when necessary

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22
Q

factors that affect the success of transmission

A
  • virulence of organism
  • number of invading organisms
  • presence of adhesion and invasion factors
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23
Q

organism outcompetes the ____ _____ for resources and survive host defense mechanisms

A

resident microbiota

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24
Q

disease ensues when …

A

organism produces molecules that directly damage host cells or stimulates host immune cells to destroy infected tissue.

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25
Q

natural environment location in which the pathogen normally resides

A

reservoir

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26
Q

organism that spread disease from one host to another (ticks, mosquitos, fleas)

A

vector

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27
Q

5 main routes of pathogen transmission

A
  • airborne
  • contact
  • vehicle
  • vector-borne
  • vertical transmission
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28
Q

efficiency of transmission _____ with extensive multiplication

A

increases

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29
Q

if a pathogen can live outside of a host they might be

A

more virulent

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30
Q

pathogen must make contact with appropriate host tissue

A

tropism

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31
Q

how are droplets in airborne transmission classified

A

direct transmission - placed under force (saliva, mucus)

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32
Q

how are droplet nuceli in airborne transmission classified

A

indirect transmission
result from evaporation of the larger droplets
may remain airborne for hours or days and can travel long distances

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33
Q

how are dust particles in airborne transmission classified

A

indirect transmission
aerosolized - smaller than 1 um, can be dispersed way further
can survive long periods outside the host and can lead to hospital acquired infections

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34
Q

host touching source or reservoir of the pathogen

A

contact transmission

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35
Q

2 types of contact transmission

A

direct contact - person to person
indirect contact - inanimate object (fomite) that transfers infectious agents between hosts

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36
Q

materials that indirectly transmit pathogens

A

vehicle transmission

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37
Q

a single source containing pathogens can contaminate a common vehicle that cases multiple infections

A

dog bowl

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38
Q

vector borne transmission pathogens benefit because

A

extensive reproduction and spread between hosts
- highly virulent and cause diseases such as malaria, lymes, west nile
- important that pathogens do not harm their vectors

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39
Q

external (mechanical) transmission

A

passive carriage of pathogen on body of vector
no growth of pathogen during transmision

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40
Q

internal transmission

A
  • carried within vector
  • harborage transmission - pathogen does not undergo changes within vector
  • biologic transmission - pathogen undergoes changes within vector
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41
Q

occurs when unborn child acquires a pathogen from infected mother

A

vertical transmission

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42
Q

babies born with an infectious disease are said to have

A

a congenital infection

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43
Q

the number of microbes required to cause disease in 50% of the inoculated hosts

A

infectious dose

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44
Q

dose that kills 50% of a group of experimental hosts within a specific period

A

lethal dose
influenced by susceptibility of the host

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45
Q

portal of entry

A

skin, respiratory, gastrointestinal, urogenital, conjunctiva of eye

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46
Q

attachment of microbe to ____ ____ is first in adherence and invasion

A

target cell

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47
Q

establish a state of microbial replication on or within host

A

colonization

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48
Q

adherence structures

A

pilli
fimbriae
membrane and capsular materials
specialized adhesion molecules on microbes cell surface

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49
Q

ability to create a discrete point of infection

A

infectivity

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50
Q

ability to spread to adjacent tissues

A

invasiveness

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51
Q

penetration can be active or passive. describe active

A

production of lytic substances that alter host tissue
- attack the extracellular matrix and basement membranes of integuments and intestinal linings
- degrade carbohydrate - protein complexes between cells
- disrupt the host cell surface

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52
Q

penetration can be active or passive. describe passive

A

not related to pathogen itself (that is skin, lesions, insect bites, wounds)

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53
Q

presence of viable bacteria in the blood

A

bacteremia

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54
Q

bacterial or fungal toxins in the blood

A

septicemia

55
Q

_______ ______ is noninvasive because it does not spread from one tissue to another, but toxins become blood borne

A

clostridium tetani (tetanus)

56
Q

_________ _______ and ______ _______ also produce toxins and are highly invasive

A

bacillus anthracis (anthrax) and Tersinia pestis (plague)

57
Q

__________ span the spectrum of virulence factors and invasiveness

A

streptococcus

58
Q

formation of actin tail by intracellular bacterial pathogens

A

invasion

59
Q

actin tail propels bacteria to the ______ ______ _______ where it forms a protrusion

A

host’s cell surface

60
Q

_____ is engulfed by adjacent cell - evades immune response

A

protrusion

61
Q

strategies to evade host immune response

A
  • production of decoy proteins to bind antimicrobial proteins
  • mutate cell surface proteins
  • reduce the number of cell surface proteins
  • phage variation - switch among different genes that encode similar proteins - alter pilli protein sequence and expression
  • produce proteases that degrade host proteins
  • produce special proteins that interfere with the host’s ability to detect and remove them
  • cause host cell fusion to spread without exposure to immune system
62
Q

suppressing host immune response

A
  • infect cells of the immune system and diminish their function while ensuring their own survival
  • bacteria such as strep pneumoniae, nesseria meningitidis and haemophilus influenzae produce a slippery mucoid capsule that prevents phagocytosis by host immune cells
  • eliminate O-antigen on lipopolysaccharide to diminish immune recognition and clearance
63
Q

biofilm bacteria are protected from

A

nutrient deprivation, predators, environmental shifts, antimicrobial agents, and host immune cells

64
Q

some pathogenic bacteria within biofilms exchange

A

plasmids, nutrients, and quorum sensing molecules which alters their behavior. this makes the biofilm community less sensitive to antibiotics and host defense mechanisms

65
Q

large segments of bacterial chromosomal and plasmid DNA found to encode virulence factors

A

pathogenicity islands

66
Q

what do pathogenicity islands do?

A

increase bacterial virulence
absent in nonpathogenic members of same genus or species
genes can be spread from one bacterial cell to another

67
Q

substance that disrupts the normal metabolism of the host cells

A

toxin

68
Q

pathogens ability to produce toxins

A

toxigenicity

69
Q

diseases that rely from entry of a specific preformed toxin into host

A

intoxications

70
Q

intoxications do not require the presence of

A

the actively growing pathogen, just the toxin

71
Q

soluble, heat-liable proteins

A

exotoxins

72
Q

often travel from site of infection to other body tissues or target cells where they exert their effects

A

exotoxins

73
Q

exotoxins are encoded by

A

genes of plasmids or prophages within bacteria

74
Q

what are among the most lethal substances known?

A

exotoxins

75
Q

AB toxin

A

two subunit types
- A subunit - catalyze reaction that cause toxicity
- B subunit - binds to host cell receptor

76
Q

types of exotoxins

A

AB toxin
specific host site endotoxins
membrane destabilizing exotoxins
superantigens

77
Q

what do superantigens do?

A

stimulate about 30% of host T cells of the immune system
- Causes T cells to overexpress genes that encode cytokines and release pro-inflammatory molecules
- results in failure of multiple host organs allowing time for the microbe to disseminate

78
Q

Lipopolysaccharide is an

A

endotoxin

79
Q

why is LPS called a endotoxin?

A

it is bound to the bacterium and released when the microrganism lyses.

80
Q

what is the toxic component of the LPS?

A

the lipid portion - lipid A

81
Q

general features of endotoxins

A

heat stable
toxic
generally similar despite their source
cause general system effects - fever, shock, damage to lining of blood vessels, inflammation, weakness

82
Q

what are toxins produced by fungi?

A

mycotoxins

83
Q

common contaminates of food crops

A

mycotoxins

84
Q

initial diagnositcs

A

samples taken directly from patients are often gram stained before being cultured

85
Q

information obtained from direct smear may help determine

A
  • suitability of the specimen for identification
  • the predominant organism is a mixed specimen
  • appropriate medium for culture
  • appropriate antibacterials for sensitivity testing
86
Q

serologic methods

A

typically involves testing an unknown antibody against a known antigen bound to a latex particle or similar structure

87
Q

direct methods

A

microscopy
stained specimen
electron microscopy
immunofluorescence
virus culture

88
Q

indirect methods

A

antigen detection
antibody detection
PCR
sequencing technologies

89
Q

viruses and parasites are not routinely cultured on

A

conventional agar
- indirect methods are more suitable
- conventional stains are effective against them

90
Q

microscopy is useful for

A

some protzoa and parasites
not fit for viruses

91
Q

viruses are not

A

stained

92
Q

electron microscopy is used for

A

certain viruses not grown in cell cultures

93
Q

immunoflorescence is the direct exam of

A

viral particle

94
Q

immune elctron microscopy improve

A

virus detection by reacting with specific antibodies

95
Q

antigen detections are ___ tests

A

rapid tests like swabs for influenza virus

96
Q

what happens in antigen detection?

A

viral antigens are separated on filter paper
can identify specific antibodies

97
Q

companion animal zoonotic disease

A
  • rabies virus
  • rabies lyssavirus
  • bites from infected animals
98
Q

livestock zoonotic disease/one I am at risk for because of career

A
  • listeriosis
  • listeria monocytogenes
  • ingestion of contaminated foods or direct contact with reproductive tissues
99
Q

wildlife zoonotic disease

A
  • Staphylococcus
  • staphylococcus aereus
  • direct contact (skin, wounds, feces), ingestion (contaminated foods), fomites (equipment), inhalation (aerosols, dust)
100
Q

epizoonotic potential

A

outbreak

101
Q

enzootic potential

A

always there

102
Q

Which type of immunity is the least common in livestock and companion animal management?

A

passive artificial

103
Q

Which is not a characteristic of specific (adaptive) immunity?

A

repair

104
Q

what are the characteristics of specific (adaptive) immunity?

A

Memory
Diversity
Specificity

105
Q

Which immunoglobulin is associated with mucosal secretions?

A

IgA

106
Q

which mode of transmission is reduced by using artificial insemination?

A

direct contact

107
Q

which is associated with endogenous antigen processing

A

MHC1

108
Q

Which activation method is more effective

A

T-cell dependent B-Cell activation

109
Q

Which statement about T cells is false?

A

Once activated they proliferate into mature cells and memory cells

110
Q

T cells

A
  • have a role in activating macrophages, stimulating B Cells, and regulating inflammatory cytokines
  • Mature T cells are naïve until activated by antigen presentation
  • Originate from stem cells in the bone marrow but mature in thymus
111
Q

It is a dry, breezy day and the cattle are in dirt pens. You are concerned about the breeze going from the sick pen to health animals. What type of transmission are you concerned about?

A

indirect airborne

112
Q

Least common mode of transmission, diseases transferred by this method are referred to as congenital infections

A

vertical

113
Q

gram positive cell walls

A
  • composed of mainly peptidoglycan
  • teichoic acids - maintain cell envelope, protect from environmental substances, may bind to host cells
    SINGLE LAYER
114
Q

gram negative cell walls

A
  • more complex
  • outer membrane composed of lipids, lipoproteins, and LPS
  • Braun’s lipoproteins connect outermembrane to peptidoglycan
    2 LAYERS
115
Q

bacterial cell organization

A

internal structures
cytoplasm
cell envelope (3 layers)
external structures

116
Q

internal structures

A
  • inclusions - granules that are stockpiled nutrients for cells future use
  • ribosomes - complex protein synthesis
  • nuleoid - chromosome associated proteins
  • plasmids - extrachromosomal DNA - contain few genes that are nonessential
117
Q

cell envelope

A

plasma membrane - encompasses the cytoplasm, selectively permeable, interacts with external environment
cell wall
layers outside of cell wall

118
Q

bacterial cell wall

A

peptidoglycan - rigid structure
- maintain shape
- protect cell from toxic materials and osmotic lysis
- may contribute to pathogenicity

119
Q

LPS

A

3 parts
- lipid A - embedded in outer membrane
- core polysaccharide - extend out from cell
- O side chain (O antigen) - extend out from cell

120
Q

what do LPS do?

A
  • neg charge on cells surface
  • stabilize outer membrane structure
  • attachment to surfaces and biofilm formation
  • creates permeability barrier
  • protection from host defenses (O antigen)
  • can act as an endotoxin (lipid A)
121
Q

components outside of bacterial cell wall

A
  • capsules - structure, protection, composed of polysaccharides, well organized
  • slime layers - diffuse, aid in motility
  • S layers - protect from environment
122
Q

main function for envelope layer

A

plasma membrane - encompasses cytoplasm
cell wall - structure
capsule - protection

123
Q

external structures bacterial cell

A

pili and fimbriae
flagella

124
Q

virus structure

A

all virons contain a nucleocapsid which is composed of nucleic acid and protein coat
NUCLEIC ACID AND CAPSID

125
Q

capsids

A

protein coat over the virus mode of protomers
helical, icosahedral, complex

126
Q

viral envelope proteins

A
  • viral attachment to host cell
  • ID of virus
  • enzymatic activity
  • role in nucleic acid replication
127
Q

selective toxicity

A

ability of drug to kill or inhibit pathogen while damaging host as little as possible

128
Q

how selective toxicity applies to treating bacterial, viral, fungal, and protozoal infections

A

protozoa and fungi are eukaryotes like animals so their cell structure is more similar to that of an animal meaning creating medications to have a selective toxicity to them is more complex than that of a bacteria or virus

129
Q

bacterial drug resistance

A
  • intrinsic - part of structural/naturally that way/born with it
  • acquired - when there is a change in genome of a bacterium that converts it from one that is sensitive to an antibiotic to one that is resistant
130
Q

overcoming drug resistance

A
  • give drug in appropriate concentrations to destroy susceptible microbes and most spontaneous mutants
  • give 2 or more drugs at same time
  • use drugs only when necessary
  • development of new drugs or use bacteriophages to treat bacterial disease (future soln)
131
Q

mechanisms of drug resistance

A
  • modify the target
  • drug inactivation
  • minimize concentration of antibiotic In the cell
  • bypass the biochemical rxn inhibited by the agent or increase production of the target metabolite
132
Q

An example of an enzootic disease

A

campylobateriosis because it can be contracted at any point from ingestion of raw milk or undercooked meat and direct contact with animals. This is present at low levels at all times in a normal population.

133
Q

An example of an epizootic disease

A

influenza A which can transfer back and forth between animals and humans and cause unprecedented outbreaks as the virus mutates.

Vet Micro (3 decks)

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