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Immunology > FINAL EXAM > Flashcards

FINAL EXAM Flashcards

1
Q

What happens to a pathogen as it becomes attenuated?

A

It has weakened virulence.

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2
Q

Which of the following is the BEST example of herd immunity?

  • A child infected with measles travels from Germany to the United States. Several babies contract the disease, but the outbreak is largely contained due to vaccinations.
  • Certain populations of cattle are less susceptible to infection with encephalitis because of their genetic makeup.
  • Once a certain threshold of individuals has been infected with a novel human pathogen, it is unlikely that any more will be.
  • Geese and chickens are infected with different strains of influenza because they express different receptors on their cell surface.
  • When infection spreads through a population, certain individuals generate stronger immune responses than others.
A

A child infected with measles travels from Germany to the United States. Several babies contract the disease, but the outbreak is largely contained due to vaccinations.

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3
Q

Which of the following classes of cell surface receptors are directly encoded in the germline?

  • TCR
  • BCR
  • PRR
  • Antibodies
  • All of the above
A

PRR

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4
Q

How do memory cells develop?

A

T cells and B cells from the primary response persist and become reactivated.

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5
Q

What occurs when someone receives a tissue transplant from an unrelated individual?

A

The host’s lymphocytes enter the tissues and become activated.

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6
Q

List the cells that differentiate from the myeloid progenitors

A

Eosinophils
Neutrophils
Basophils
Erythrocytes
Megakaryocytes (platelets)
Monocytes
Macrophages
Dendritic cells
Mast cell

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7
Q

List the cells that differentiate from the lymphoid progenitors

A

T lymphocyte
B lymphocyte
Natural killer cell
Dendritic cell

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8
Q

Which region of the lymph node typically houses T cells and dendritic cells where antigen presentation is occurring?

A

Paracortex

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9
Q

What primary organ do B cells, Hematopoietic stem cells, and myeloid progenitor cells reside or develop in?

A

Bone Marrow

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10
Q

Which genes are involved in creating a knock-out/knock-in mouse?

A

Neomycin resistance gene
and
Thymidine kinase 1 gene

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11
Q

Mice have been used to study which of the following?

  • The gut microbiome
  • Stem cell development
  • Antibody production
  • All of the above
  • None of the above
A

All of the above

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12
Q

Which of the following BEST describes chemokines?

  • Membrane receptors that detect the presence of soluble messengers in the environment.
  • Soluble proteins that recruit specific cells to an area.
  • Chemical messengers that induce cell differentiation
  • Transcription factors that induce the expression of genes involved in cell adhesion
  • Adhesion molecules that bind to the inside of blood vessels.
A

Soluble proteins that recruit specific cells to an area

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13
Q

Define:
Pleiotropy

A

One cytokine = multiple functions

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14
Q

Define:
Redundancy

A

Different cytokines = same function

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15
Q

Define:
Synergy

A

2+ cytokines working together to do same function

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16
Q

Define:
Antagonism

A

One cytokine blocks anothers’ function

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17
Q

Which IL-2 receptor unit is upregulated upon T cell activation?

A

α (alpha)

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18
Q

Which assay quantifies the number of cells producing a specific cytokine?

A

ELISPOT

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19
Q

Is Type 1 diabetes caused by or does it result in a cytokine storm?

A

NO

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20
Q

What statement BEST differentiates innate and adaptive immune responses?

A

Innate responses are stronger during the primary response and less important during the secondary response, while adaptive responses are less robust during primary responses and stronger during secondary responses.

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21
Q

Which of the following pattern recognition receptors make up the inflammasome?

A

NLRs

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22
Q

True of False:
The first responders to the site of inflammation are T cells and NK cells is part of the initiation of a local inflammatory response?

A

FALSE

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23
Q

Which of the following molecules is considered the initial component of the classical complement pathway?

  • IgM or IgG antibodies
  • Mannose-binding lectin
  • Lipopolysaccharide
  • C5 convertase
A

IgM or IgG antibodies

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24
Q

Which enzyme is responsible for initiating the membrane attack complex?

A

C5 convertase

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25
Q

What is NOT true about CD21?

  • It is a B cell co-receptor
  • It reduces the amount of antigen needed to activate B cells
  • It increases B cell tolerance
  • It inhibits B cell and T cell proliferation
  • It enhances bacterial DNA recognition
A

It inhibits B cell and T cell proliferation

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26
Q

Is increasing production of complement proteins considered part of the microbial evasion strategy against complement?

A

NO

increasing production of complement proteins IS NOT considered part of the microbial evasion strategy against complement

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27
Q

Which genes are involved in the formation of the heavy chain in antibodies?

A

V, D, and J

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28
Q

Rag1 and Rag 2 are responsible for what?

A

Rag1 and Rag 2 are responsible for Recombination of TCR and BCR genes

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29
Q

Why was the TCR harder to discover than the BCR?

A

The TCR only exists in a membrane-bound form, making it difficult to isolate.

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30
Q

The β chain on the TCR is analogous to the
(answer 1) chain on the BCR, while the (answer 2) chain on the TCR is analogous to the light chain on the BCR

A

The β chain on the TCR is analogous to the
heavy chain on the BCR, while the alpha chain on the TCR is analogous to the light chain on the BCR

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31
Q

In Type I diabetes, what cells are attacked by the immune system?

A

β cells

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32
Q

What is the KEY symptom in diagnosing Type I diabetes?

A

Excessive urination and thirst

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33
Q

What symptom is NOT similar between ulcerative colitis and Chron’s disease?

A

Patches of inflammation

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34
Q

Which of the following causes is NOT thought to play a role in IBD?
- Gut microbiome changes
- Thinning of the mucus layer
- Dysregulation of the immune system
- Intestinal cells destroyed by antibiotic use
- Formation of ulcers

A

Which of the following causes is NOT thought to play a role in IBD?

Intestinal cells destroyed by antibiotic use

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35
Q

CD8 is a marker of:

A

CD8 is a marker of Cytotoxic T cells

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36
Q

What binds to MHC class II on antigen-presenting cells?

A

CD4 binds to MHC class II on antigen-presenting cells

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37
Q

What is characteristic of B cells but NOT T cells

A

Surface immunoglobulin

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38
Q

Activation of naïve T cells:

A

Activation of naïve T cells:

-Is stimulated by a single signal induced by engagement of the T-cell receptor

-plus a secondary signal from a co-receptor such as CD28

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39
Q

Protein tyrosine kinase activity following T-cell stimulation:

A

Phosphorylates and thereby activates phospholipase C gamma 1

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40
Q

Is somatic hypermutation involved in generating T-cell receptor diversity?

A

somatic hypermutation is NOT involved in generating T-cell receptor diversity

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41
Q

Which of the following statements is NOT true for both antibody and T-cell receptor molecules?
- Both are antigen receptors
- Members of immunoglobulin superfamily
- Under appropriate conditions, can react/bind with MHC
- Exist in membrane-bound and secretory form

A

Exist in membrane-bound and secretory form

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42
Q

The precursor of T cells that migrate from the bone marrow arrive in the (answer) of the thymus

A

The precursor of T cells that migrate from the bone marrow arrive in the cortex of the thymus

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43
Q

Double-positive thymocytes are so called because they express which molecules on their surface?

A

CD4 and CD8

44
Q

In positive selection, those thymocytes are rescued that bind:

A

Self-peptide + self-MHC with low affinity

45
Q

A defective negative selection of T cells will result in:

A

Autoimmunity

46
Q

Which subset of T cells serves as “helpers” of the B-cell function?

A

Th2

47
Q

The highest level of costimulators are expressed on:

A

Dendritic cells

48
Q

Which of the following surface immunoglobulin interacts with antigen and induces receptor editing?

  • IgM
  • IgE
  • IgD
  • IgG
A

IgM is the surface immunoglobulin that interacts with antigen and induces receptor editing

49
Q

Which of the following components of adaptive immunity can also be considered as part of innate immune system?

  • Th cell
  • B1B cell
  • Tcyt cell
  • B2B cell
A

B1B cell

B1B cell is a component of adaptive immunity that can also be considered as part of innate immune system.

50
Q

What is not a prerequisite property of an antigen-presenting cell?

A

Should express class I MHC molecules on their cell surface

51
Q

Endogenous antigens present themselves on:

A

Class I MHC

Endogenous antigens present themselves on Class I MHC

52
Q

If an inactivated virus is introduced in the extracellular milieu near a macrophage, it will be presented on:

A

Class II MHC

53
Q

The peptide-binding cleft is kept occupied by this protein till the antigenic peptide arrives. This protein is:

A

CLIP

54
Q

The MHC molecule involved in removing CLIP peptide from the class-II MHC groove is:

A

HLA-DM

55
Q

Lysosome, invariant chain and HLA-DM are associated with:

A

Class II MHC pathway

56
Q

Which one of the following domains is structurally homologous to the transmembrane domain of immunoglobulins?

A

α3 and β2

57
Q

Which of the following is NOT a component of a flow cytometer?

  • Fluidics system
  • Lasers
  • Cytometric bead array
  • Photomultiplier tubes
  • Bandpass filters
A

Which of the following is NOT a component of a flow cytometer?

  • Fluidics system
  • Lasers
  • Cytometric bead array
  • Photomultiplier tubes
  • Bandpass filters

Cytometric bead array is not a component of a flow cytometer

58
Q

Is Annexin V used to measure cell proliferation?

A

NO

Annexin V is NOT used to measure cell proliferation

59
Q

Describe Stokes shift

A

Stokes shift is The difference between the peak of absorption and emission wavelength between two fluorescent antibodies

60
Q

Which of the following types of flow cytometry graphs only measures one parameter?

  • Histogram plot
  • Contour plot
  • Density plot
  • Pseudocolor plot
  • Zebra plot
A

Which of the following types of flow cytometry graphs only measures one parameter?

  • Histogram plot
  • Contour plot
  • Density plot
  • Pseudocolor plot
  • Zebra plot
61
Q

What flow cytometry parameter is used to analyze cell granularity?

A

Side scatter

62
Q

You are a nurse and you suspect that you may have been exposed to a particular virus. You and your health care provider decide to perform a hemagglutinin assay. A sample of your serum is taken and added to a sample of virus. Next, the virus and serum sample are added to erythrocytes. Upon examination, you do not see any agglutination occurring.

What can you conclude from these results?

A

The test result suggests you may have been exposed to the virus, and your serum contains antibodies against the virus.

63
Q

Which of the following KD measurements describes the interaction with the highest affinity?

  • KD=1x10^-6
  • KD=4x10^-7
  • KD=1x10^-8
  • KD=4x10^-8
A

Which of the following KD measurements describes the interaction with the highest affinity?

  • KD=1x10^-6
  • KD=4x10^-7
  • KD=1x10^-8
  • KD=4x10^-8
64
Q

You’ve discovered a novel cancer biomarker and want to validate that the biomarker is solely expressed on the surface of cancer cells. What method would work BEST to illustrate this finding?

A

Immunoelectron microscopy

65
Q

In an experiment, cytotoxic lymphocytes are introduced into culture of virally infected cells. It is shown that these lymphocytes recognize and target the infected cells that display peptides on their cell surfaces. To which of the following molecules are these peptides most likely bound to achieve this effect?

  • CD3
  • C3b
  • IgG
  • IL-2
  • MHC I
A

In an experiment, cytotoxic lymphocytes are introduced into culture of virally infected cells. It is shown that these lymphocytes recognize and target the infected cells that display peptides on their cell surfaces. To which of the following molecules are these peptides most likely bound to achieve this effect?

  • CD3
  • C3b
  • IgG
  • IL-2
  • MHC I
66
Q

NK cells are specialized to kill all of the following cells except:

  • Cells lacking class II MHC
  • Cells lacking class I MHC
  • Cells harboring viruses
  • Tumor cells
A

NK cells are specialized to kill all of the following cells except:

  • Cells lacking class II MHC
  • Cells lacking class I MHC
  • Cells harboring viruses
  • Tumor cells
67
Q

To mediate antibody-dependent cell-mediated cytotoxicity, the effector cells must have:

A

To mediate antibody-dependent cell-mediated cytotoxicity, the effector cells must have Fc receptors

68
Q

Which of the following events do not occur during B-cell development?

  • Positive selection
  • TdT expression
  • Receptor editing
  • Negative selection
A

Which of the following events do not occur during B-cell development?

  • Positive selection
  • TdT expression
  • Receptor editing
  • Negative selection
69
Q

The germinal center is associated with all of the following events, except:

  • T-dependent response
  • Affinity maturation
  • Memory cell formation
  • T-independent response
A

The germinal center is associated with all of the following events, except:

  • T-dependent response
  • Affinity maturation
  • Memory cell formation
  • T-independent response
70
Q

Which molecule, present on B-cells, is involved in the interaction of B and TH cell?

A

B-7 is the molecule, present on B-cells, that is involved in the interaction of B and TH cell

71
Q

Which of the following cells is not involved in cell-mediated immunity?

  • B cell
  • Macrophage
  • T cell
  • NK cell
A

Which of the following cells is not involved in cell-mediated immunity?

  • B cell
  • Macrophage
  • T cell
  • NK cell
72
Q

Which of the following is NOT considered a form of asthma?

  • Exercise-induced asthma
  • Spore-induced asthma
  • Occupational asthma
  • Allergy-induced asthma
A

Which of the following is NOT considered a form of asthma?

  • Exercise-induced asthma
  • Spore-induced asthma
  • Occupational asthma
  • Allergy-induced asthma
73
Q

Which conditions can be caused by chronic myeloid leukemia?

  • Thrombocytopenia
  • Anemia
  • Leukopenia
  • Neutropenia
  • All of the above
A

Which conditions can be caused by chronic myeloid leukemia?

  • Thrombocytopenia
  • Anemia
  • Leukopenia
  • Neutropenia
  • All of the above
74
Q

Immuno-mediated damage of the myelin sheath in multiple sclerosis is attributed mostly to which cell type?

  • B cells
  • T cells
  • NK cells
  • Macrophages
  • Neutrophils
A

Immuno-mediated damage of the myelin sheath in multiple sclerosis is attributed mostly to which cell type?

  • B cells
  • T cells
  • NK cells
  • Macrophages
  • Neutrophils
75
Q

Which chemokine receptors do T cells and B cells express while navigating through the lymph node?

A

CCR7 and CXCR5

76
Q

For T cells, name the region they migrate to in the lymph node and the type of cell they use to move around that region.

A

Paracortex, using fibroblast reticular cells

77
Q

For B cells, name the region they migrate to in the lymph node and the type of cell they use to move around that region.

A

Cortex, using follicular dendritic cells

78
Q

Describe the final destinations in the body for the different effector cell types

A

IgM typically stays in the medulla of the lymph node;
IgG goes to the bone
marrow;
IgA goes to Mucosa-Associated-Lymphatic-Tissue in the gut.
CD8+ T cells follow chemokines released by
innate immune cells to specific sites of infection.
CD4+ T cells vary on their destination by subtype; many stay in the lymph node to stimulate differentiation of other cells or travel to infection sites to help phagocytes take care of opsonized pathogen.

79
Q

What statement best describes how antigen presenting cells cause graft rejection?

A

Host APCs process antigen from the donor, causing activation of host CD8+ T cells

80
Q

What molecule do T cells and B cells use to bind to each other during T cell-dependent B cell activation?

A

CD40

81
Q

Desensitization or hyposensitization involves:

A

Stimulating or inducing IgG synthesis against allergen

82
Q

The administration of penicillin to a child results in increased blood pressure and red blood cells in the urine. This reaction is probably mediated by:

A

Immune complex deposition

83
Q

The term anaphylaxis was coined by:

A

Portier and Richet

84
Q

Leukocyte adhesion disease results from a mutation in which CAM?

A

Integrins

85
Q

In an allergic individual, IgE formed binds to which structure first?

A

Mast cells

86
Q

Is it possible for an antibody to bind to the cell and directly induce cell death through apoptosis?

A

NO.
This does not occur when an antibody binds to a cell.

87
Q

Which cells are NOT involved in a type IV delayed hypersensitivity reaction?

A

B cells.

B cells are not involved in a type IV delayed hypersensitivity reaction?

88
Q

Which of the following did we NOT discuss in class about decreasing the incidence of allergy development?

  • Children born during the COVID pandemic did not see an increased incidence of allergy development
  • Giving peanuts to children under 1 year old decreased the incidence of peanut allergy development.
  • Industrialized farming indicated a higher rate of the development in asthma in comparison to traditional farming practices.
  • Babies delivered via C-section increased the incidence of allergy development, leading to giving the mother’s microbiome to C-section babies to promote immunity.
A

Which of the following did we NOT discuss in class about decreasing the incidence of allergy development?

  • Children born during the COVID pandemic did not see an increased incidence of allergy development
89
Q

In what disease are antibodies generated against acetylcholine receptors?

A

Myasthenia gravis

90
Q

Is antigen masking a mechanism of induction of autoimmunity?

A

NO.

Antigen masking is not a mechanism of induction of autoimmunity

91
Q

Which of the following grafts is likely to be accepted?

  • Autograft
  • Allogenic graft
  • Xenograft
  • Allograft
A

Which of the following grafts is likely to be accepted?

  • Autograft
  • Allogenic graft
  • Xenograft
  • Allograft
92
Q

During direct presentation of alloantigen, host T cell cross-reacts with:

A

During direct presentation of alloantigen, host T cell cross-reacts with: Foreign peptide displayed on self-MHC

93
Q

One of the monoclonal antibodies that was mentioned in the reading to increase graft success rate is:

A

One of the monoclonal antibodies that was mentioned in the reading to increase graft success rate is: OKT3

94
Q

The organ rejection reaction that is initiated within a few minutes/hours of transplantation and involves natural antibodies is of the type:

A

The organ rejection reaction that is initiated within a few minutes/hours of transplantation and involves natural antibodies is of the type: Hyperacute rejection

95
Q

Which surface markers are used to identify Treg cells?

A

CD4 and CD25 are the surface markers used to identify Treg cells

96
Q

Is age, gender, or racial matching part of the process in finding a histocompatible donor?

A

NO.

97
Q

Nude mice lack:

A

Nude mice lack: Thymus

98
Q

The HIV genome consists of:

A

The HIV genome consists of: Two single-stranded RNA

99
Q

A deficiency in what cell type is the most damaging in a primary immunodeficiency?

A

T cells

100
Q

Which of the following is NOT a receptor/co-receptor of HIV?

  • CD3
  • CCR5
  • CD4
  • CXCR5
A

Which of the following is NOT a receptor/co-receptor of HIV?

  • CD3
  • CCR5
  • CD4
  • CXCR5
101
Q

Secondary immunodeficiencies are NOT caused by which of the following?

  • Malnutrition
  • Infection
  • Metabolic disease
  • Autoimmunity
  • Drug treatment
A

Secondary immunodeficiencies are NOT caused by which of the following?

  • Malnutrition
  • Infection
  • Metabolic disease
  • Autoimmunity
  • Drug treatment
102
Q

HIV has a high mutation rate and creates many variants, thereby making it difficult to develop a vaccine. Which viral disease has a similar situation?

A

Influenza

103
Q

In rheumatoid arthritis, which amino acid replaces arginine in interstitial proteins?

A

In rheumatoid arthritis, Citrulline replaces arginine in interstitial proteins.

104
Q

Treatments for psoriasis include which of the following. Mark all that apply.

  • Antibiotics
  • Vitamin D analogues
  • Phototherapy
  • Corticosteroids
  • Beta blockers
A

Treatments for psoriasis include which of the following. Mark all that apply.

  • Antibiotics
  • Vitamin D analogues
  • Phototherapy
  • Corticosteroids
  • Beta blockers
105
Q

How does the mutated ATM gene in ataxia telangiectasia affect the immune system?

A

Improper TCR and BCR recombination produces non-functional cells and low levels of antibodies.

Immunology (5 decks)

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