Final Exam Flashcards

1
Q

What is the role as an RT?

A

To assist physicians in the process of diagnostic reasoning.

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2
Q

What are the main elements?

A

Individual care
Patient involvement
Provider collaboration

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3
Q

What’s is 2 way partnership?

A

•Individuals values, needs, and preferences.
•Patients become active participants in their own care

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4
Q

What are factors that affect communication?

A

Internal factors
Sensory factors
Environmental factors
Verbal expression
Non-verbal expression

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5
Q

What are the stages of clinical interaction?

A

Chart review stage(pre-interaction)
Introductory
Initial assessment
Treatment and monitoring
Follow up

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6
Q

What do you do during the pre interaction stage?

A

Review patient chart
Chart and record everything

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7
Q

What do you do during introductory stage?

A

Introduce yourself
Clarify purpose and role

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8
Q

What is HIPAA?

A

Health Insurance Portability Accountability Act

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9
Q

What are the 3 types of space?

A

Social space (4 to 12 feet) is for introductions, the personal space (18 inches to 4 feet) is for interviewing, and the intimate space (0 to 18 inches) is for physical examination.

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10
Q

What does SMART stand for?

A

Specific
Measurable
Action oriented
Realistic
Time limited

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11
Q

Which of the following are key elements in the provision of patient-centered care?
1. Patient involvement
2. Individualized care
3. Legal representation
4. Provider collaboration

A

1, 2, and 4

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12
Q

After a postoperative patient you are interviewing grimaces while holding her abdomen, you note some confusion about her responses. Which of the following factors likely is affecting communication?

A

Pain and anxiety

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13
Q

Active listening is most essential during what stage of the clinical encounter?

A

Initial assessment stage

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14
Q

After several attempts to instruct a patient with COPD on the proper use of a metered-dose inhaler, the patient complains of the inability to master
the correct technique. Applying patient-centered principles, you should:

A

Request permission from the patient’s doctor to find a more acceptable delivery system

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15
Q

In which of the following spaces is patient rapport best established?

A

Social

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16
Q

Which of the following violates HIPAA-related privacy and security rules?

A

Leaving a computer unattended without logging off

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17
Q

Which of the following cultural beliefs should be explored with your patients during the initial assessment stage of the clinical encounter?
1. Concepts of health and disease
2. Responses to authority
3. Gender and family roles
4. Religious values

A

1, 2, 3, and 4

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18
Q

For most respiratory care to succeed, patients need to:

A

Actively participate in the treatment regimen

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19
Q

During an initial patient encounter, you note that
her acute anxiety appears to be affecting your ability to help her learn more about her disease process. To overcome this problem, you would consider all of the following, except:

A

Recommending that the doctor prescribe an analgesic

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20
Q

A good patient action plan should include which of the following elements?
1. Actions needed to achieve the goal
2. Barriers to goal achievement
3. A specific, measurable goal
4. A follow-up mechanism

A

1, 2, 3, and 4

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21
Q

While supervising a respiratory therapy student, you observe that an anxious patient asks her if the aerosol bronchodilator she is about to deliver has any bad effects. The student replies “none to worry about.” After the treatment session is over, you should explain to the student that:

A

Patients should be encouraged to ask questions about their medications

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22
Q

For a clinical encounter with a patient on airborne precautions, you should:

A

Wear a properly fitting N95 respirator

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23
Q

A patient responds poorly to a treatment you have given. After assuring that the patient is stable, you should:

A

Speak with the patient’s nurse, chart the response and whom you notified

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24
Q

SBAR stands for:

A

Situation, background, assessment, recommendation

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25
All of the following are appropriate roles for a respiratory therapist serving on a team managing a patient with COPD, except:
Recommending changes in diet and nutrition
26
What are pertinent negatives?
Negative responses to important questions during interview
27
What are pertinent positives?
Affirmative responses to important questions during interview
28
What is objective data?
What can be seen felt smelled or heard. A.k.a a sign
29
What is subjective data?
Only evident to the patient. A.k.a symptoms
30
What is a chief complaint?
Why the patient sought healthcare?
31
What are some common symptoms associated with lung disease?
Cough Dyspnea Chest pain Wheezing
32
What is HPI?
Narrative description in detail of each symptom listed in the CC
33
What’s re some descriptions of symptoms?
Description of onset: Date, time, & type Setting Location Severity Quantity Quality Frequency and duration Course Associated symptoms Aggravating and alleviating factors
34
What is PMH?
A description of the patients past medical problems like statemen you peak expiratory how face type also work well to contront discrepancies in the statements: "If I understood you correctly, it is y you to breathe now than it was yesterday" 5. Neutral questions and statements are preferred' actions with the patient. "What happened ne me more about.." are neutral open-ende neutral closed question might give a par responses while focusing on the type of in "Would you say there was a teaspoon, at cup?" In contrast, leading questions cough up blood, did you?" should b imply a desired response. 6. Reflecting (echoing) is repeating the patient has just stated and and stimulate the patient to é For example, saying to the p could not breathe well and about a week" might er information. However. interviewer sound lik litating ohrases.
35
What is pack year history?
The # of years the patient has smoked multiplied by the number of packs per day.
36
What are primary symptoms associated with cardiopulmonary disease?
Cough, sputum production, hemoptysis, SOB (dyspnea) and chest pain
37
Why are cardiopulmonary symptoms assessed?
To determine the seriousness of patients problem The potential underlying cause of the problem The effectiveness of treatment
38
What is the most common symptom seen in patients with pulmonary disease?
Cough
39
What is normal sputum production?
100mL/day
40
Proper introduction of yourself to the patient before the interview is useful for all the following except:
Asking permission to be involved
41
Which of the following is not considered a constitutional symptom?
Dyspnea
42
The family history may be helpful in diagnosing a patient with which of the following problems?
Cystic fibrosis
43
What is the amount if massive hemoptysis?
400 mL in 3 hours or more than 600 mL in 24 hours
44
What is used to measure SOB?
Modified Borg scale
45
What is the difference between PND and trepopnea?
PND is sudden Trepopnea is all the time
46
What is Syncope
a temporary loss of consciousness
47
What is orthostatic hypotension?
>20 Todd drop in systolic BP
48
Which of the following problems is associated with hemoptysis?
Tuberculosis Lung carcinoma Pneumonia All of the above
49
Which of the following is least associated with causing dyspnea?
An increase in lung compliance
50
Which of the following characteristics is least associated with pleuritic chest pain?
Radiates to the neck
51
Which of the following is (are) true regarding dependent edema caused by lung disease?
Accompanying hepatomegaly may be present
52
How do you convert Fahrenheit to Celsius?
F=(Cx9/5)+32
53
How do you convert Celsius to Fahrenheit?
C=(F-32)x5/9
54
Which of the following causes tachycardia in the adult?
Hypoxemia
55
Which of the following causes tachypnea in the adult?
Metabolic acidosis
56
What is the normal range for pulse pressure?
35-40mmHg
57
What does a resonant sound with Hollow quality indicate?
Norma lung
58
What does a full sound with this like quality indicate?
Fluid, liver, consolidation, or pleural effusion
59
What does a hyperresonant (tympanic) sound with drum like quality indicate?
Hyperinflation or pneumothorax
60
What does flat sound and flat quality indicate?
Muscle or bone