Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

Practice Management > Final Exam > Flashcards

Final Exam Flashcards

1
Q

Which communication style:
- get excited
- ask “who”
- show emotion
- likes applause, feedback, recognition
- likes challenges and to get ahead
- relies on hunches and feelings and intuition

A

Expresser

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

What communication Style:
- they like their own way, decisive and strong viewpoints
- asks “what”
- takes charge
- results/goal-oriented
- competitive
- like to save time and be efficient

A

driver

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

What communication style:
- like positive attention, to be helpful and regarded warmly
- asks “why”
- dislikes rejection and being treated impersonally
- likes/values friendships, close relationships

A

relater

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

what communication style:
- seeks data, asks many questions, methodical and systematic
- asks “how”
- dislikes making errors and being unprepared/spontaneity
- likes activity and busyness
- makes decisions at own pace not cornered or pressured

A

analytic

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

what communication style:
- put the rights or others before own, minimizing own self-worth

A

passive

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

what communication style:
- stand up for your rights while maintaining and respecting rights of others

A

assertive

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

what communication style:
- stand up for rights but violate rights of others

A

aggressive

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

what is the role of communicaiton in pt outcomes? (6 things)

A
  • improved pt satisfaction
  • improved adherance to tx plans
  • better clinical outcomes
  • fewer medical errors
  • fewer malpractice claims
  • increase career longevity
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

what part of the brain does executive functions for cognitive empathy

A

pre-frontal cortex

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

what part of the brain has a role in memory that plays a role in perspective taking

A

temporal lobe

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

what part of the brain is responsible for emotional empathy

A

limbic system

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

what part of the brain has mirror neurons for reflexive empathy

A

pre-motor area

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

what are the 3 types of difficult conversations

A
  • what happened
  • feelings
  • identity
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

which type of difficult conversation:
- seeks to understand more about circumstance
- dont argue, explore
- view from other perspectives
- be curious, not certain
- dont assume intentions
consider contributions instead of placing blame

A

what happened converstaion

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

what difficult conversation:
- emotions are the heart of conversation
- ignoring them makes the probelem worse
- negotiate emotions
- express dont evaluate
- acknowledgement of other emotions

A

feelings conversatoin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

what difficult conversation:
- am I competent?
- am I a good person?
- am I worthy?
- become aware of your triggers

A

identity conversation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

what are the 5 steps to a difficult conversation

A
  1. get started - think like a 3rd party, extend an invitation
  2. speak up
  3. learn - be an active listener
  4. ask questions
  5. begin to problem solve
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

what are the 3 types of feedback?

A

appreciation
coaching
evaluation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

what type of feedback:
- to see, acknowledge, connect, motivate, thank

A

appreciation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

what type of feedback:
- to help receiver expand knowledge, sharpen skill, improve capability

A

coaching

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

what type of feedback:
- to rate or rank against a set of standards, to align expectations, to inform decision making

A

evaluation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

what is GRIT?

A

Growth
Resilience
Instinct
Tenacity

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

what type of feedback:
- “the hard work you put in to the evaluation was very evident”

A

appreciation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

what type of feedback:
- “you measured the pt’s shoulder IR wrong”

A

evaluation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

what type of feedback:
- you are right at the beginner level, which is where I expect you to be”

A

evaluation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

what type of feedback:
- “your eval took too long, go faster next time”

A

coaching

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

what are 3 types of triggers

A

truth
relationship
identity

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

what type of trigger:
- related to feedback itself
- we feel it is wrong, unhelpful, unreasonable, etc.
can look like anger, defensiveness, dismissal

A

truth trigger

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

what type of trigger:
- related to the person giving the FB
- perception that they dont have credibility
- perceptions about intent or motive
- may result in hurt feelings, anger, suspicion

A

relationship trigger

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

what type of trigger:
- focus is the FB receiver
- brings up feelings of shame, doubt, unworthiness, etc

A

identity trigger

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

what are the 4 principles of ethics

A
  • autonomy
  • beneficence
  • nonmalfecience
  • justice
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

what ethic principal:
- acknowledge people’s right to make choices for themselves based on own values and beliefs

A

autonomy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

what ethic principal:
- one ought to prevent and remove evil or harm, do good and promote good

A

beneficence

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

what ethic principal:
- do not inflict evil or harm

A

nonmaleficence

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

what ethic principle:
- treat others equally and fairly

A

justice

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

law, ethic or policy:
- it is illegal to drink and drive

A

law

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

law, ethic or policy:
- should not treat a pt when impaired from alcohol

A

ethic

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

law, ethic or policy:
- workplace is drug and alcohol free

A

policy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

what are the 7 steps to solving an ethical problem?

A
  1. what is the problem and why
  2. what are the facts
  3. interested parties
  4. need further info?
  5. possible solutions
  6. action?
  7. future?
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

what are the 4 leadership approaches

A

trait
skills
behavior
adaptive

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

which leadership style:
- idealized influence (we look up to them)
- inspirational motivation
- intellectual stimulation (value big ideas)
- individualized consideration (work well individually with people on their team)
- lead rom the front

A

Transformational

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

which leadership style:
- power oriented
- self-consumed
- does not encourage independent thought
- little caring for others
- come across as charismatic but not really

A

pseudo transformational

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

which leadership style:
- contingent reward
- management by exception

A

transactional

44
Q

which leadership style:
- revolves around power
- directs and controls all activities
- low follower autonomy
- demands obedience
- military

A

authoritarian

45
Q

which leadership style:
- hands off approach
- non-transactional

A

laissez-faire

46
Q

which leadership style:
- extremely self-aware
- leads from own core values
- strong sense of purpose
- builds relationship
- disciplined, focused

A

authentic

47
Q

which leadership style:
- seeks to help, develop, guide followers
- sensitive to emotional well-being
- puts followers first
- strong moral/ethical code

A

servant

48
Q

which leadership style:
- focuses on solving large/major problems
- teaches follower how to prepare and deal with change
- can see the big picture
- gives followers a voice

A

adaptive

49
Q

why is documentation necessary? (6)

A
  • record of patient mngmt
  • communication
  • demonstrate clinical problem solving and EBP
  • legal record
  • reimbursement
  • outcomes
50
Q

what is the role of documentation in legal considerations

A
  • laws, regulations and policies
  • informed consent
  • malpractice and risk management
51
Q

what are some ethical and legal considerations involving documentation

A
  • pt safety and quality of care
  • confidentiality
  • fraud and abuse
52
Q

for proper reimbursement, payors need to see that care is…

A

skilled
necessary
consistent with charges
effective

53
Q

what are the 3 main payment systems

A

value based
prospective
fee for service

54
Q

what type of payment system:
- payment based on outcomes
- also known as alternative payment model

A

value based

55
Q

the value based payment system aims to … (4)

A
  • reduce cost
  • improve pt satisfaction
  • improve quality of care
  • improve health
56
Q

what payment system:
- lump sum payments
- predetermined
- pt classification system - pt dx
- operating and capital expenses

A

prospective

57
Q

what payment system:
- payment based on dollar amt ascribed to each service
- volume = greater reward
- quality of care does not matter

A

fee for service

58
Q

what is the role of ICD-10 in its role in documentation and billing

A
  • used for clinical and research purposes
  • insurance providers
  • public health sector
  • consistency needed for reimbursement
59
Q

ICD-10 codes can be _____ specific or ______ specific

A

diagnosis
sign/symptom

60
Q

T/F - CPT codes are discipline specific

A

False

61
Q

T/F - CPT codes for re-eval and eval are not timed codes

A

True

62
Q

How is evaluation code determined?

A

complexity - High, Mod, Low

63
Q

what do timed codes require?

A

direct, one-on-one pt care

64
Q

for timed codes - treatment is provided in ___ min increments starting at ____ min

A

15 min
starting at 8 min

65
Q

what are some examples of timed codes

A

ther ex
neuro re-education
gait training
MT

66
Q

what are some examples of non-timed codes

A

hot/cold pack
mechanical traction
e stim
group therapy

67
Q

T/F - untimed codes require direct, one-on-one pt care

A

False - do not require

68
Q

how many units are billed for untimed treatments

A

1 unit

69
Q

what is CCI?

A

correct coding initiative - says that some things cannot be billed for on the same day and if they are they require a modifier

70
Q

what are the qualifications to receive Medicare

A

age > 65 yrs
younger than 65 yrs with a disability
end stage renal disease

71
Q

what settings does Medicare Part A pay for?

A

acute care
IRF
SNF
HH
Hospice

72
Q

what does medicare part B pay for

A

OP therapy
physician visits
DME
HH

73
Q

what is the soft cap for PT, ST and OT in medicare

A

$2150 for PT and ST combined
$2150 for OT

74
Q

what does Medicare Say about co-treatments

A
  • must document medical necessity
  • cannot be more than 2 disciplines treating at once
75
Q

what does medicare part A say about co-treating

A

each therapist can bill for the entire time

76
Q

what does medicare part B say about Co-treatment

A

cannot both bill for entire session

77
Q

medicare and group therapy for acute care - Part A or B?
- allows treatment of more than 1 pt at a time
- need to use the term concurrent
- splits time and charge

A

part A

78
Q

medicare group therapy IRF and SNF - part A or B?
- doing similar activities
- therapist must be in constant attendance
- 2-6 pts, restircted to 25% of total treatment time

A

part A

79
Q

Medicare group therapy - Part A or B?
- if more than 1 pt is being seen at a time, must be billed as group therapy
- must be skilled care
- untimed
- similar level of function
- therapist must be in constant attendance

A

part B

80
Q

medicare and students Hospital - part A or B?
- no problem with reimbursement or documentation
- can be general supervision

A

part A

81
Q

Medicare and students SNF - Part A or B?
- no problem with reimbursement or documentation
- must be in line of sight supervision

A

Part A

82
Q

medicare and students - Part A or B
- will not pay for services provided by unlicensed personnel
- doesnt mean students cannot be hands on
- APTA recommends students do not document directly in the chart

A

part B

83
Q

what is a public health insurance program for low income adults, children, pregnant women, elderly adults and people with disabilities

A

medicaid

84
Q

what does medicaid say about co-treatments

A
  • must be prescribed by physician
  • primary therapist must be designated
  • only primary therapist can bill
  • must be medically necessary
85
Q

what does medicaid say about students

A
  • considered auxiliary personnel
  • may participate in PT services
  • must be supervised
  • may not bill for services provided solely by auxiliary personnel
86
Q

what is a deductible

A

how much you have to pay out of pocket before insurance pays

87
Q

what is a co-pay

A

how much you pay per appointment

88
Q

what is co-insurance

A

% of total that you owe
Ex: if it is 20/80, you pay 20% and insurance pays 80%

89
Q

what are 3 things that good discharge planning can help with

A
  • reduce hospital readmission rates
  • improve pt outcomes/recovery
  • reduce burden on pt families
90
Q

what are 3 things that can occur due to poor discharge planning?

A
  • leads to excessive health care costs
  • reduced medicare payments
  • increased mortality rates
91
Q

what does ALGEE stand for?

A

A - assess risk for suicide or harm
L - Listen nonjudgementally
G - give reassurance and info
E - encourage professional help
E - encourage self-help

92
Q

what type of bias:
- feeling a connection to those similar to us

A

affinity bias

93
Q

what type of bias:
- stereotypes and assumptions about diff groups

A

perception bias

94
Q

what type of bias:
- projecting positive qualities onto people w/o actually knowing them

A

halo effect

95
Q

what type of bias:
- looking to confirm our own opinions and pre-existing ideas

A

confirmation bias

96
Q

who is the ally

A

the subject and the observer

97
Q

integrated patterns of human behavior that includes language, thoughts, actions, etc.

A

culture

98
Q

ability to establish relationship with persons of diff cultures
- requires understanding of others, willingness to embrace ideas, values, beliefs, etc. that are diff from own

A

cultural competency

99
Q

a realization that learning about other cultures is a lifelong process while also realizing one may never be able to understand another culture fully

A

cultural humility

100
Q

using cultural competence to learn about the pt and apply it to the delivery of care

A

cultural responsiveness

101
Q

characterized by attitudes, policies, structures, and practices within a system or organization that are destructive to a cultural group

A

cultural destructiveness

102
Q

lack of capacity of systems and organizations to respond effectively to the needs, interests, and preferences of culturally and linguistic diverse groups

A

cultural incapacity

103
Q

expressed philosophy of viewing and treating all people as the same

A

cultural blindness

104
Q

level of awareness w/in systems or organizations of their strengths and areas for growth to respond effectively to culturally and linguistically diverse populations

A

cultural pre-competence

105
Q

what are the 4 steps to motivational interviewing

A

engaging
focusing
evoking
planning

Practice Management (1 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2024 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions