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Small Animal Dentisry > Final Exam > Flashcards

Final Exam Flashcards

1
Q

Edentulous

A

Without teeth (like a newborn)

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2
Q

Deciduous teeth

A

Primary (puppy) teeth

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3
Q

Permanent teeth

A

Adult teeth

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4
Q

Mixed dentition

A

Both deciduous and permanent teeth

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5
Q

What is the crown covered by

A

Enamel

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6
Q

What is the hardest substance in the body

A

Enamel

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7
Q

What is enamel formed by

A

Ameloblasts

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8
Q

T/F teeth can have more than one root

A

True

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9
Q

What is a root fraction

A

Where the roots diverge on a tooth

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10
Q

What is the end (apex) of the root called

A

Foramen

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11
Q

What is in the apex (apical area) of the root of the tooth

A

The apical area (inside the apex) contains the nerves, blood vessels, and lymphatics in the pulp of root

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12
Q

What is unique to dogs and cats in terms of the foramen

A

There are multiple foramen forming an apical delta

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13
Q

What is seen radiographically seen as a white line

A

The lamina dura

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14
Q

What is the importance of the lamina dura

A

It is an attachment surface for sharpey’s fibers of the periodontal ligament and an intact lamina dura is a sign of a healthy periodontium

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15
Q

What is the peridontal ligament formed by

A

Collagen fiber bundles called sharpy’s fibers and with blood vessels and nerves

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16
Q

What does the cementum cover and what is it excreted by

A

Covers the roots and allows attachment of periodontal ligament and is excreted by cementoblasts

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17
Q

What is the second hardest tissue in the body

A

Dentin

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18
Q

What is dentin formed by

A

Odontoblasts

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19
Q

When does primary dentin form and where is it compared to other tooth structures

A

It forms before tooth eruption and is the outermost layer of dentin, borders enamel

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20
Q

When is secondary dentin formed and what does secondary dentin cause

A

After the root is completely formed and its formation results in the narrowing of the pulp chamber over time (with age)

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21
Q

When is tertiary dentin (reparative) formed

A

Response to trauma to the odontoblasts, darker in color, no nerve fibers
Can be formed by gradual wear (attrition/abrasion)

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22
Q

What is the pulp? What is located inside?

A

The living tissue within the tooth, located in the pulp channel and canal are connective tissue nerves, lymph, blood vessels, collagen, odontoblasts

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23
Q

What does pulp enter the tooth through

A

Apical delta

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24
Q

What nerve gives off myelinated fibers for the pulp

A

Trigeminal nerve

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25
Q

What is the response called when there is damage to the tooth, dentin, and root

A

Pulpitis

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26
Q

What is the difference between attached and free gingiva

A

Attached is adhered to the subgingival connective tissue and bone and free is the margin that surrounds the tooth

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27
Q

An old dog has ginigival recession, has its mucogingival junction moved with the recession?

A

No, the MCJ remains stationary during life

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28
Q

What is the normal depth for the gingival sulcus of cats and dogs

A

Cats 0.5-1 MM and dogs 1-3 MM

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29
Q

What are incisors for

A

Cutting, scooping, grooming (usually one root)

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30
Q

what are canines for

A

Holding prey, slashing, tearing, holds tongue in (one root)

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31
Q

What are premolars for

A

Holding, carrying, breaking food into smaller pieces (shearing) (normally 2 roots except maxillary PM4 with 3 roots)

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32
Q

What are molars for

A

Grinding food, but cats don’t have true grinding surfaces (b/c obligate carnivores)

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33
Q

What is the canine permanent teeth formula

A

2( I 3/3, C 1/1, P 4/4, M 2/3)= 42

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34
Q

How many teeth are in the maxilla and mandible of a dog

A

The maxilla has 20 teeth and mandible has 22 teeth

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35
Q

What is the dental formula for permanent teeth in cats

A

2 (I 3/3, C 1/1, P 3/2, M 1/1)= 30

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36
Q

What is the difference in the tooth formula between cats and dogs

A

There are no maxillary 1st premolar and no mandibular 1st or 2nd premolars in cats

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37
Q

How many teeth are in the maxilla and mandible of a cat

A

16 in maxilla and 14 in mandible

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38
Q

What does the first digit of the triad an numbering system give, and say which each one is in adult dogs and puppies

A

The quadrant
Upper right= 100, 500
Upper left= 200, 600
Lower left= 300, 700
Lower right= 400, 800

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39
Q

What do the second and third numbers in the triadan numbering system denote

A

The tooth position within the quadrant and the sequence starts at the midline

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40
Q

What number is the central incisor in dogs

A

_01 (101,201,301,401)

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41
Q

What number is the canine in dogs

A

_04

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42
Q

What numbers are the premolars in dogs

A

_05-_08 with last premolar being _08

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43
Q

What number is the first molar in dogs

A

_09

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44
Q

What is the numbering for the quadrants in cats

A

Right upper= 100
Left upper= 200
Left lower= 300
Right lower=400

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45
Q

What is the numbering system for quadrants for deciduous teeth in dogs

A

Upper right= 500
Upper left= 600
Lower left= 700
Lower right= 800

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46
Q

What teeth are cats missing

A

105/205 and 305/405 and 306/406

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47
Q

What is the occlusal surface of a tooth

A

The surface of the tooth facing the opposite arcade

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48
Q

What is the medial surface of the teeth

A

The surface of the teeth that is directed toward the midline

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49
Q

What is the distal surface of the teeth

A

The surface opposite from the medial surface, facing the back of the mouth

50
Q

What is the lingual surface of the teeth

A

The surface facing the tongue

51
Q

What is the palatial surface

A

The surface facing the palate (maxillary teeth)

52
Q

what is a malocclusion

A

A discrepancy in alignment in opposing dental arches or an abnormal relationship between teeth

53
Q

What is a class one malocclusion

A

One or more misplaced or rotated teeth with normal occlusion

54
Q

What is class 2 malocclusion

A

An overbite

55
Q

What is a class III malocclusion

A

An underbite

56
Q

What are the number one teeth in a cat to have tooth reabsorption on

A

307 and 407

57
Q

What is important to do when using an elevator

A

Use the short finger stop method to protect the patient from injury- keeps you from accidentally stabbing in too far and potentially going up into somewhere like the eye!

58
Q

How far should you stick your needle in for the infraorbital block

A

2-3 mm

59
Q

What normally gets smaller as the tooth ages

A

The pulp

60
Q

What should you check on radiographs because it may not be fused in small dogs and cats

A

The mandibular symphysis

61
Q

What is periodontal disease?

A

Inflammation of the periodontium (periodontal ligament, gingiva, cementum and alveolar bone)

62
Q

What should be the professional determinant for professional therapy (a COHAT)

A

gingival inflammation

63
Q

what are the three stages of plaque formation

A
  1. Formation of the pellicle
  2. Initial adhesion and attachment of bacteria
  3. Bacterial colonization and plaque maturation
64
Q

How soon does the pellicle for plaque formation form

A

immediately after prophylaxis (COHAT)

65
Q

On what type of tooth surfaces is there irreversible bonding of bacteria more likely

A

irregular or rough surfaces

66
Q

In the third step of plaque formation what is formed and what is it made of

A

a biofilm containing oral bacteria, salivary glycoproteins, and extracellular polysaccharides

67
Q

Things like enamel hypolasia, tooth resorption, crown fractures, and excessive wear make an animal prone to what

A

more prone to developing plaque

68
Q

what is the difference between attrition and abrasion

A

attrition is tooth on tooth contact causing tooth wear and abrasion is tooth wear from other surface contact

69
Q

How fast do bacteria colonize a tooth and what can you do to prevent that

A

If plaque is not disturbed by brushing, bacteria will colonize a tooth in 24 hours and that attachment is irreversible

70
Q

What changes to the bacterial flora are caused due to gingivitis

A

increase in overall numbers of bacteria, increase in gram-negative rods, and increase in anaerobic species

71
Q

Antibiotic therapy in veterinary dentistry is controversial, but if needed what antibiotics may be used

A

amoxicillin- clavulanate, clindamycin, doxycycline, tetracycline

72
Q

where does calculus (tartar) accumulate faster?

A

On the buccal surface of the maxillary teeth, especially Maxillary PM4 (108 and 208)

73
Q

What are the four stages of periodontal disease and after what stage is it irreversible

A

Stage 0- no pathology, healthy tissue
Stage 1- gingivitis, no bone loss
Stage 2- Periodontitis with less than 25% bone loss
Stage 3- Periodontitis with 25-50% bone loss
Stage 4- Periodontitis with more than 25% bone loss

Only stage 1 is reversible, irreversible after that

74
Q

What is the gingiva scored on (scale of what to what) during charting

A

a scale of 0-3, normal inflammation up to severe inflammation with marked redness, edema, ulceration, spontaneous bleeding, and hypertrophy

75
Q

decreases in what can increase risk of periodontal disease

A

saliva production

76
Q

At what stage of periodontal disease are extractions due to tooth and bone decay usually recommended

A

stage 3 and higher (there is a little bone loss with stage two but usually just routine dental cleanings and diligent homecare are recommended)

77
Q

At what stage of furcation does the probe go all the way through

A

stage 3, the last stage

78
Q

what is the criteria for the stages of tooth mobility when charting

A

Stage 0- normal physiological mobility up to 0.2mm
Stage 1- mobility is increased in any direction other than axial over a distance of 0.2mm- 0.5mm
Stage 2- mobility is increased in any direction other than axial over a distance of 0.5mm- 1mm
Stage 3- mobility is increased in any direction other than axial over a distance of 1mm or axial movement

79
Q

Can you stage periodontal disease on an awake patient

A

not really, you need to be able to probe and FULL radiographic study to determine the distance between the cementoenamel junction and the gingival attachment

80
Q

what is the number one cause of suture line failure in the oral cavity

A

excessive tension on the sutures

81
Q

T/F X-rays are the standard of care

A

true! easy to miss things without them

82
Q

Does the pulp get larger or smaller with age

A

smaller

83
Q

What blade size is used in oral surgery

A

a size 15 blade

84
Q

What type of drill bits are used for removing bone, sectioning teeth, and smoothing bone

A

round for removing bone, cross-cut for sectioning bone, and diamond for smoothing

85
Q

What is the difference between a winged elevator and a luxator

A

a winged elevator is used to wear and weaken the periodontal ligament like stretching a rubber band until it snaps (uses rotational force)
a locator cuts the periodontal ligament in a circular cutting motion around the teeth

86
Q

What tool is used to remove tissues from cyst walls and alveolar sockets

A

bone curettes

87
Q

Mandibular retained deciduous teeth are usually retained how

A

lateral (buccal) to the adult teeth

88
Q

maxillary retained deciduous teeth are usually retained how

A

caudal to the adult teeth

89
Q

What is the number one complication with extractions

A

fracture of the cranial mandible

90
Q

What is the difference between gingival hyperplasia and overgrowth

A

hyperplasia is a pathological growth from an increase in cells and overgrowth is increase in volume due to excessive accumulation of extracellular matrix proteins

91
Q

What drug can cause gingival hyperplasia as a side effect

A

cyclosporine

92
Q

what is the treatment for gingival hyperplasia

A

withdrawal of a drug if that could be the reason or gingivectomy

93
Q

what is the most common tooth to form a dentigerous cyst and what breeds are prone to them

A

Premolar 1 (105, 205, 305, 405), often bilaterally and brachycephalic breeds

94
Q

What are complications with dentigerous cysts and how can you treat them

A

they aren’t usually painful but can lead to pathological fractures, best treatment is extraction of the unerrupted tooth and removal of the entire cyst wall

95
Q

what are the most common deciduous teeth to be retained and in what type of dogs

A

canines in small breed dogs

96
Q

what teeth areas are where oro-nasal fistulas form

A

incisor, canines, and premolar areas

97
Q

what kind of fistula is found in the caudal premolar and molar areas

A

oro-antral fistula

98
Q

what is the number one rule when repairing oro-nasal fistulas

A

the best chance of repair is the first time!

99
Q

what is the difference between endodontic and periodontic disease

A

endodontic is disease originating from the pulp cavity and periodontal is disease originating from outside the tooth

100
Q

what can be a big determinant of if a fractured tooth can be saved or not

A

if there is pulp canal exposure

101
Q

what is CUPS and a potential cause of it

A

Chronic Ulcerative Periodontal Stomatitis- though to be a hypersensitive immune response to bacteria and plaque on the teeth surfaces

102
Q

What are potential “treatments” for CUPS

A

super regular COHATs (3-4 months) and maybe with a sealant, also daily brushing, chlorahexadine rinse, and corticosteroids or cyclosporine, may need a full mouth extraction

103
Q

what is the difference between enamel hypocalcification and enamel hypoplasia

A

hypo calcification is a defect in the quality of the enamel and it causes it to be softer whereas hypoplasia is a defect in the quantity of the enamel

104
Q

What is theorized to be the main inciting factor for feline chronic gingivostomatitis (FCGS)

A

Plaque bacteria and Pasturella multocida is over represented

105
Q

What is the presentation of a cat with FCGS

A

Painful, dropping food, weight loss, halitosis, ulcerations that extend past the mucogingival junction and on the palatoglossal arch

106
Q

What will you see on lab work of a cat with FCGS

A

Hyperproteinemia and neutrophilia

107
Q

What is the standard of care for a cat with FCGS

A

Surgical extractions of the full or partial mouth

108
Q

What looks like FCGS but is in young cats and what is the difference

A

Feline juvenile onset gingivitis/ periodontitis but it is typically not painful unlike FCGS

109
Q

What is the treatment for juvenile gingivitis

A

Routine COHATs every 3+ months and brushing and chlorahexidine rinse at home with dental diets

110
Q

T/F tooth resorption is usually symmetrical

A

True

111
Q

What is the most common tooth affected by resorptions

A

Mandibular 3rd premolar (307 and 407)

112
Q

What is a type 1 vs. type 2 tooth resorption

A

A type one has a lesion on the crown and a distinct periodontal ligament space is usually seen, type one is usually associated with inflammation and periodontal disease
Type 2 is a loss of the periodontal ligament space surrounding the tooth and is visualized radiographically and is thought to be idiopathic

113
Q

T/F if a tooth has a type one resorption it can’t get type 2

A

False, a tooth can have both

114
Q

You have a tooth resorption and to treat it fortunately you can just do a crown amputation, what type of resorption is it?

A

Type 2

115
Q

What type of tooth root resorption can be prevented with good oral hygiene

A

Type 1

116
Q

Are tooth root resorptions painful

A

YES! TOC is extraction

117
Q

What is the most common cause of feline oral tumors and are they usually malignant

A

Squamous cell carcinoma and yes they are usually malignant (90%)

118
Q

What causes a tooth to appear “super erupted” and the cats often become frantic because they can’t close their mouth and there is usually a clicking sound

A

Alveolar osteitis/extrusion

119
Q

At what stages of periodontal disease should you schedule a COHAT

A

Stage 1 (gingivitis) and stage 2 (early periodontitis)
Especially stage one if they will do it

120
Q

Who’s seal should you look for on dental treats and products

A

VOHC (Veterinary Oral Health Council)

121
Q

How soft should the things be your dog chews

A

Soft enough to leave a fingernail mark

122
Q

What is the best preventative for oral health

A

Tooth brushing daily!

Small Animal Dentisry (1 decks)

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