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PSYC 355 > Final Exam > Flashcards

Final Exam Flashcards

1
Q

What are the three systems governing homeostasis ?

A

Negative feedback

Redundancy

Behavioral homeostasis

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2
Q

What is the system that is regulating body temperature ?

A

Thermoregulation

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3
Q

What is happening if there is a deviation from the desired range in thermoregulation ?

A

There will be compensatory actions trying to maintain the set zone.

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4
Q

Regarding the set zone, what can happen if we are fighting an infection ?

A

The set zone will be higher than usual to fight the infection.

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5
Q

What happen if the body temperature is too hot ?

A

Proteins begin to lost correct shape, link together, malfunction or die (denaturing)

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6
Q

What happen if the body temperature is too cool ?

A

Chemical body reactions slow down

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7
Q

What happen if the body temperature is very low ?

A

Ice crystals form damaging cell membrane

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8
Q

What system is known to compensate the loss of functions by the remaining parts ?

A

Redundancy

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9
Q

What thermoregulation system is related to behavior ?

A

Behavioral homeostasis

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10
Q

What are the three types of behaviors that ectotherms and endotherms use to regulate temperature ?

A

They can:

Change exposure of the body surface (huddling

Change external insulation (using clothes or nests)

Change surroundings (moving into the sun, shade…)

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11
Q

What is the difference between an endotherms and ectotherms ?

A

Endotherms are regulating their body temperature by internal metabolic processes (mammals and birds)

Ectotherms are regulating their body temperature by the environment (snakes, bees)

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12
Q

What is the system that usually young species use to regulate their body temperature ?

A

Cooperative homeostasis

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13
Q

What is the fluid space of the body that is contained within cells ?

A

Intracellular compartment

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14
Q

What is the fluid space of the body that exists outside the cells ?

A

Extracellular compartment

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15
Q

What are the channels spanning the cell membrane that are specialized for conducting water molecules into or out of the cell ?

A

Aquaporins

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16
Q

What is the movement of water molecules that occurs when semipermeable membrane separates solutions with different concentrations of solute ?

A

Osmosis

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17
Q

What is the name of the physical force pushing or pulling water across membrane ?

A

Osmotic pressure

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18
Q

What is the number of solute particles per unit volume of solvent ?

A

Osmolality

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19
Q

A solution having a similar concentration of solute to solvent inside and outside cell is an… ?

A

Isotonic solution

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20
Q

What is a solution which has a higher solute concentration than that found in interstitial fluid and blood plasma ?

A

Hypertonic solution

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21
Q

What is a solution which has a lower solute concentration than that found in interstitial fluid and blood plasma ?

A

Hypotonic solution

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22
Q

What will happen to cells if placed in a hypertonic solution ?

A

Inside of the cell becomes dehydrated because of osmosis (water will cross the semipermeable membrane leading to equal concentration of solute on both solutions)

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23
Q

Which system carefully monitors
extracellular compartment to determine if
we should drink ?

A

The nervous system

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24
Q

How the body retains water in the body ?

A

By releasing aldosterone from the adrenal glands. Aldosterone directly stimulates the kidneys to conserve Na+ rather than dumping it into the urine. (Salt homeostasis)

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25
Q

What are the two states signaling that water is needed ?

A

Osmotic thirst (Higher concentration of solute in the extracellular compartment)

Hypovolemic thirst (Reduction in VOLUME of extracellular fluid) Concentration is not changed

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26
Q

What is an example that can triggered an osmotic thirst ?

A

Eating salty foods

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27
Q

Which neuron in the hypothalamus that is monitoring the concentration of the extracellular fluid ?

A

Osmosensory neuron

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28
Q

Which organ monitors the composition of body fluids ?

A

The circumventricular organ

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29
Q

What are the two circumventricular organs ?

A

Organum vasculosum of the lamina terminalis (OVLT)

Subfornical organ (SFO)

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30
Q

What vasopressin is important for ?

A

Water conservation

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31
Q

Which receptor detect the reduced blood pressure in the body ?

A

Baroreceptors

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32
Q

What happen when baroreceptors of the kidneys detect a reduced blood pressure ?

A

Kidneys release renin, triggering an hormonal cascade that culminates in the circulation of Angiotensin II.

Angiotensin II has several water-conserving actions: Blood vessels constricts (because there was a drop in blood pressure), vasopressin is released, aldosterone is released and than circumventricular organs trigger drinking.

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33
Q

What is the basal metabolism ?

A

The consumption of energy by the basic life-sustaining functions of the body

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34
Q

True or false.

Metabolic rate adjusts in response to
changes in nutrition.

A

True.

Metabolic rate adjusts in response to
changes in nutrition

• So resist to losing or gaining weight

• For example, at start of diet, the basal
metabolic rate will fall to prevent losing
weight

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35
Q

What is the principal sugar used for energy ?

A

Glucose

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36
Q

Which type of cells can take glucose without the aid of insulin ?

A

Brain cells (neurons)

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37
Q

What is essential for the utilization of glucose by the body ?

A

Insulin

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38
Q

What happen to glucose every time we eat a meal ?

A

The foods are broken down and glucose is released into the bloodstream.

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39
Q

What are the three mechanisms that stimulate insulin release ?

A

Cephalic phase: Sensory stimuli from food (sight, smell and taste) evokes a conditioned release of insulin in anticipation of glucose arrival in the blood

Digestive phase: Food in stomach and intestines causes gut hormones release, which stimulates the pancreas to secrete insulin

Absorptive phase: Glucodetectors in the liver detect glucose entering the bloodstream and signal the pancreas to release insulin

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40
Q

What happen when insulin is released ?

A

Enables the body to use glucose immediately and the extra glucose is converted into glycogen, which is stored in the liver and muscles.

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41
Q

How is the liver communicated with the pancreas ?

A

Via the nervous system

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42
Q

Informations from the glucodetectors in the liver travels via which pathway ?

A

Via the vagus nerve to the nucleus of the solitary tract (NST) and then to the hypothalamus

*This system informs the brain of circulating glucose levels and contributes to hunger

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43
Q

What is the name of the process by which the insulin converts glucose into glycogen ?

A

Glycogenesis

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44
Q

When glycogen is stored in liver and skeletal muscles, which type of storage is this ?

A

Short-term storage

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45
Q

When fats are deposited in fat-storing cells forming adipose tissues, what type of storage is it ?

A

Long-term storage

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46
Q

How can the body take out glucose from storage ?

A

By glycogenolysis

Glucagon (pancreatic hormone) mediates the conversion of glycogen into glucose.

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47
Q

Under conditions of prolonged food deprivation, fat can be converted into… and… ?

A

Glucose and ketones

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48
Q

True or false.

The hypothalamus is important for regulation of metabolic rate, food intake and body weight.

A

True.

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49
Q

Why if we injected a large dose of insulin doesn’t produce fully satiated animals ?

A

In normal conditions, high level of insuline is secreted because there is food in the pipeline so it might signal the brain to produce the sensation of satiety.

If we injected a large dose of insulin, the high insulin levels direct much of the blood glucose into the storage, resulting in hypoglycemia (reduced circulating glucose) which the brain detects via glucodetectors, leading to a hunger response.

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50
Q

What happen is we lesioned the ventromedial hypothalamus (VMH) ?

A

Because the VMH is the ‘‘satiety center’’, if we lesioned it, it will leads to hyperphagia (ate to excess) and then will eventually lead to obesity.

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51
Q

What happen is we lesioned the lateral hypothalamus (LH) ?

A

Because the LH is the ‘’ hunger center’’, if we lesioned it, it will leads to cessation of eating (aphagia) and then eventually leads to a weight loss.

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52
Q

What are the two behaviors that the VMH and LH can cause ?

A

Hyperphagia (VMH)

Aphagia (LH)

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53
Q

If there is a high level of insulin, what is the feeling that an animal will express ?

A

Satiety (appetite has been satisfied)

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54
Q

If there is a low level of insulin, what is the feeling that an animal will express ?

A

Hunger

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55
Q

What is the hormone that is released by fat cells ?

A

Leptin

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56
Q

Why the brain is monitoring the circulation of leptin in the body ?

A

Because leptin allows the brain to measure and regulate the body’s energy reserves in the form of fat.

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57
Q

What defects in leptin production or leptin sensitivity can cause ?

A

It causes a false underreporting of body fat and lead to overeating, especially of high-fat or sugary foods.

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58
Q

Which hormone is known to be a powerful appetite stimulant ?

A

Ghrelin

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59
Q

How does ghrelin is released in the blood ?

A

Ghrelin is released by endocrine cells in the stomach.

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60
Q

How is the level of ghrelin during fasting ?

A

High

*Ghrelin is an appetite stimulant, it plays an important role in both seeking and consuming foods

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61
Q

How is the level of ghrelin after a meal ?

A

Low

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62
Q

What happen with the level of ghrelin with obese people ?

A

Their level of ghrelin do not drop after a meal so the level of ghrelin is always high than leads to a continual hunger.

63
Q

Which hormone is working in opposition to ghrelin ?

A

PYY 3-36

64
Q

What is the role of PYY 3-36 ?

A

Provides a potent appetite-suppressing stimulus to the hypothalamus (Decrease food intake)

65
Q

How is the level of PYY-3-36 before eating ?

A

Low

66
Q

How is the level of PYY 3-36 after a meal ?

A

Rise rapidly (High)

67
Q

What are the four types of biological rhythms and provide an example with each.

A

Ultradian (sleep cycle): shorter than a day

Circadian (activity): 24 hours period

Infradian (menstrual cycle): longer than a day

Circannual (breeding): Annual basis

68
Q

True or false.

Enable animals to anticipate an event
and help with survival

A

True.

69
Q

How long does the circadian rhythm lasts ?

A

About 24 hours

70
Q

Can the circadian rhythm can be longer than 24 hours ?

A

Yes

71
Q

Name examples of zeitgeber.

A

Any external cues such as light, food, etc.

72
Q

What is a free-running period ?

A

Rhythm of behavior shown by an animal deprived of external cues.

73
Q

Where does endogenous periods occurred ?

A

In the suprachiasmatic nucleus (SCN)

74
Q

What happen to animals who have a SCN lesion ?

A

Circadian rhythms are disrupted. (Irregular rhythm)

75
Q

What happen to hamsters with SCN lesions receiving SCN tissue transplant from hamsters with very short period ?

A

Circadian rhythms restored, nut matched rhythm of donor.

76
Q

How is SCN informed about day and night ?

A

In mammals, light goes to SCN via retinohypothalamic pathway.

Retina ganglions cells are sensitive to light because they contain a special photopigment, called melanopsin.

Retina ganglions cells detect light with melanopsin and then release glutamate in the SCN. Glutamanergic synapses trigger a chain of events in SCN cells that, promotes the production of Per protein.

77
Q

Can blind mices can detect light ?

A

Yes, because their intrinsically photosensitive retinal ganglion cells still function.

78
Q

Why blue light has the largest effect on human circadian systems ?

A

Because melanopsin is most sensitive to light frequencies in the blue range.

79
Q

Explain the whole system that allowed the SCN neurons to keep time.

A

Clock and Cycle (two proteins) bind together to form a dimer (a pair of molecules joined together).

They go to the nucleus and bind to DNA to promote the transcription of two other genes (Per and Cry).

Per and Cry bind together to form a dimer.

They inhibit expression of the Clock/Cycle genes that began the whole process.

With time, Per/Cry proteins either degrade or become chemically modified, eventually the inhibition is lifted, starting the whole cycle over again.

80
Q

True or false.

Double Clock mutants
are severely arrhythmic

A

True.

81
Q

When does the vertex spikes appear ?

A

During Stage 1

82
Q

What are the four functions of sleep ?

A 
Functions of sleep:
• Energy conservation
• Niche adaptation
• Body restoration
• Memory consolidation
83
Q

What are the three effects of sleep deprivation ?

A 
Effects of sleep deprivation - the
partial or total prevention of sleep:
• Increased irritability
• Difficulty concentrating
• Episodes of disorientation
84
Q

What can happen in a case where someone is in total sleep deprivation ?

A

He can die.

Total sleep deprivation compromises the
immune system and leads to death.

85
Q

What happen to a person who has a fatal familial insomnia disorder ?

A

The person sleeps normally at the beginning of their life but stop sleeping in midlife and die 7-24 months later

86
Q

What happen to the brain of a person who has a fatal familial insomnia disorder ?

A

Autopsy shows degeneration in the brain

87
Q

Is Glutamate is inhibitory or excitatory ?

A

Excitatory

88
Q

Is GABA is inhibitory or excitatory ?

A

Inhibitory

89
Q

If we transect the lower brain producing an isolated brain, what would happen ?

A

Signs of alternating between wakefulness, SWS and REM Sleep, showing that systems controlling sleep are found in the brain.

90
Q

If we transect the brainstem at the midbrain producing an isolated forebrain, what would happen ?

A

Signs of a constant SWS, showing that a forebrain system promotes SWS and that brainstem systems promote wakefulness and REM sleep.

91
Q

What is the disorder that involves frequent, intense episodes of sleep, which last from 5 to 30 minutes and can occur anytime during the usual waking hours ?

A

Narcolepsy

92
Q

Name one thing that the subcoeruleus (a brain region that is associated with REM sleep) does regarding the muscles.

A

One job of the subcoeruleus is to profoundly inhibit motor neurons to keep them from firing.

Glutamatergic neurons in the subcoeruleus excite neurons in the ventral medulla, which in turn project axons down the spinal cord to release the inhibitory transmitters GABA and glycine to deeply inhibit spinal motor neurons.

93
Q

What can also be associated with narcolepsy ?

A

Cataplexy, a sudden loss of muscle muscle tone, leading to collapse of the body without loss of consciousness. It can be triggered by an intense emotional stimuli like laughter and anger.

94
Q

Which sleep phase people with suffering narcolepsy entering ?

A

REM sleep

95
Q

Regarding neurons, what is the difference between normal people and people with narcolepsy ?

A

Narcoleptics have only 10% of their hypocretin neurons.

This degeneration of hypocretin neurons seems to cause inappropriate activation of the cataplexy pathway that is normally restricted to REM sleep.

Loss of those neurons in narcolepsy results in abrupt transitions, rather than orderly progression, through various sleep states.

96
Q

What is the role of hypocretin neuron ?

A

Control our switching between wakefulness, NREM and REM sleep.

97
Q

Name one region of the brain that is active during REM sleep.

A

The subcoeruleus nucleus

98
Q

What happen to people with REM sleep behavior disorder ?

A

They lose normal muscle paralysis during REM sleep, which results in pathological levels of movements during REM sleep episodes.

99
Q

What is the role of subcoeruleus cells in the sleep ?

A

SubC cells are glutamatergic (excitatory). So, they are thought to induce REM sleep muscle paralysis by recruiting GABA/glycine neurons in the ventromedial medulla (VMM) and spinal cord. Those GABA/glycine neurons will eventually lead to muscle atonia by inhibiting skeletal motoneurons

100
Q

Which region of the brain is important in slow-wave sleep ?

A

Basal forebrain

101
Q

Which region of the brain is important in arousal ?

A

Reticular formation

So, if we active the reticular formation, wakefulness

102
Q

What is the process by which the initial decision is made for a fetus to develop as a male or a female ?

A

Sex determination

103
Q

What is the main event of the sex determination ?

A

The fusion of egg and sperm

104
Q

If sperm that enters the egg has a Y chromosome, is it a male or a female ?

A

Male

105
Q

If sperm that enters the egg has a X chromosome, is it a male or a female ?

A

Female

106
Q

What is the name of the developmental process of becoming male or female ?

A

Sex differentiation

107
Q

What are gonads that have not yet been differentiated into testes or ovaries ?

A

Indifferent gonads

108
Q

Which gene is important for the development of testes ?

A

SRY gene (Sex-determining Region on the Y chromosome)

109
Q

What happen if there is no SRY gene ?

A

Without SRY gene, no Sry protein is made and an ovary forms

110
Q

True or false.

Embryos don’t have early tissues for both male and female structures ?

A

False.

Embryos have early tissues for both male and female structures.

111
Q

Developing testes produce several hormones or very little ?

A

Several hormones

112
Q

Developing ovaries produce several hormones or very little ?

A

Very little

113
Q

What are the two hormones from the testes masculinize the system ?

A

Testosterone and anti-mullerian hormone (AMH)

114
Q

What testosterone does in the system ?

A

Promotes development of the wolffian system

115
Q

What anti-mullerian hormone (AMH) does in the system ?

A

Cause regression of the mullerian system

116
Q

What happens with the wolffian ducts and the mullerian system in males ?

A

In males, the wolffian ducts develop, the mullerian system shrinks

117
Q

What happens with the wolffian system and the mullerian ducts in females ?

A

In females, the mullerian ducts develop, the wolffian system mostly degenerates

118
Q

What is 5a-reductase ?

A

Enzyme in genital skin that converts testosterone into dihydrotestosterone (DHT), necessary to form male genitalia (penis and scrotum)

119
Q

How does the testosterone is converted into dihydrotestosterone (DHT) ?

A

By the enzyme 5a-reductase

120
Q

What happens in the absence of testes and their secretions ?

A

The wolffian ducts regrees and the mullerian system develops.

121
Q

What is the wolffian ducts ?

A

A duct system in the embryo that will develop into male structures if testes are present (the epididymis, wa deferens, and seminal vesicles)

122
Q

What is the mullerian ducts ?

A

A duct system in the embryo that will develop into femal reproductive structures if testes are not present (oviduct, uterus and inner vagina)

123
Q

What is the anti-mullerian hormone (AMH) ?

A

A protein hormone secreted by the fetal testis that inhibits mullerian duct development

124
Q

Regarding the external, what happen if genital skin is in presence of DHT ?

A

DHT induces skin to form scrotum: tubercle forms penis.

125
Q

What happen to the mullerian ducts in absence of AMH ?

A

Mullerian ducts form oviducts, uterus and inner vagina

126
Q

What happen to the wolffian ducts in absence of testosterone ?

A

The wolffian ducts will regress and no prostate or bulbourethral gland forms

127
Q

What happen to skin in absence of DHT ?

A

Skin forms labia and outer vagina: tubercle forms clitoris

128
Q

What happen in the subcoeruleus nucleus with patients in REM sleep behavior disorder (RBD) ?

A

The SubC pathway is not working properly in these individuals. As such, the motor neurons of RBD patients are not inhibited while they are in REM and thus, they are physically active during the REM phase of sleep. Remember, during this phase the body is typically paralyzed in non-RBD patients.

129
Q

True or false.

The same testicular steroids that
masculinize the genitalia early in life not
masculinized the developing brain.

A

False.

The same testicular steroids that
masculinize the genitalia early in life also
masculinize the developing brain.

130
Q

What is the organizational effect ?

A

Hormones permanently organize the nervous system during early development for adult sexual behaviors.

131
Q

When does a hormone can have an organizational effect ?

A

During a specific sensitive period, generally in early development

132
Q

What is an organizational hypothesis ?

A

A single unitary signal (androgen) diffuses through
all tissues, masculinizing body, brain,
behavior

133
Q

Why does newborn female rats treated with estrogens also failed to show lordosis behavior in adulthood ?

A

Because estradiol is a principe metabolite of testosterone. In a single chemical reaction called aromatization, the enzyme aromatase converts testosterone to estradiol. So, testicular androgens enter the brain and are there converted into estrogens, and that these estrogens are what act on neurons to masculinize the developing rodent nervous system.

134
Q

Explain the steps of the aromatization hypothesis.

A
  1. Testes release testosterone into the bloodstream
  2. Testosterone enters neurons in the brain
  3. Hypothalamic neurons produce the enzyme aromatase which will converts testosterone into an estrogens, estradiol.
  4. Estradiol will binds to estrogens receptor
  5. The estrogen-receptor complex binds DNA in the nucleus
  6. The estrogen-receptor complex will increase the transcription of some genes and will decrease the transcription of others. This altered gene expression prevents the appearance of feminine behaviors, such as lordosis, in adulthood. (depending on the cofactor, the effect can be different)
  7. Estrogen molecules in circulation are bound by a-fetoprotein (aFP). aFP prevents maternal estrogens from entering the brain, thereby, protection females from being masculinized by circulating estrogens.
135
Q

What is sexual dimorphism ?

A

The condition in which males and females show pronounced sex differences in appearance.

136
Q

True or false.

Sensitive period can vary depending on the species and the behavior.

A

True.

137
Q

Where does investigators found a nucleus that has a much larger volume in males than females ?

A

In the preoptic area. (SDN-POA)

138
Q

What happen to the size of the SDN-POA to males castrated at birth ?

A

They have much smaller SDN-POAs in adulthood.

139
Q

What happen to the size of the SDN-POA to females androgenized at birth ?

A

They have much larger SDN-POA, male-like as adults.

140
Q

What happen to the size of the SDN-POA to male castrated in adulthood ?

A

Did not alter the size of the SDN-POA.

141
Q

Regarding mating behaviors, what happen to a male castrated in adulthood ?

A

He loses interest in mating because there is no testosterone production.

142
Q

What treatment can restored briefly mating behavior ?

A

The activational effect

143
Q

What is the purpose of emotions ?

A

Survival

Making life meaningful

Motivation

Decision making

144
Q

What folk psychology is proposing ?

A

Feeling triggers autonomic reaction

  1. Stimulus
  2. Perception/Interpretation (danger)
    3) Particular emotion experienced (fear)
    4) Specific pattern of autonomic arousal (heart races, etc)
145
Q

What James-Lange Theory is proposing ?

A

Autonomic reaction triggers feeling

  1. Stimulus
  2. Perception/Interpretation (danger)
    3) Specific pattern of autonomic arousal (heart races, etc)
    4) Particular emotion experienced (fear)
146
Q

What Cannon-Bard theory is proposing ?

A

Simultaneous feeling and autonomic reaction

  1. Stimulus
    2) Perception/Interpretation
    3) General autonomic arousal (heart races, etc), and particular emotion experienced (fear)
147
Q

How facial expressions are mediated ?

A

By muscles, cranial nerves and CNS.

148
Q

What is the system is a set of structures in the brain that deal with emotions and memory and is composed of four main parts: the hypothalamus, the amygdala, the thalamus, and the hippocampus.

A

The limbic system

149
Q

Which structure in the brain is a key in the mediation of fear ?

A

Amygdala

150
Q

What is the pathway that bypasses conscious processing and allows for immediate emotional reactions to stimuli ?

A

Low road

151
Q

What is the pathway bringing the incoming information through sensory cortex, is slower and integrated with higher-level cognitive processes ?

A

High road

152
Q

Biologically, how can we know that we are experiencing stress ?

A

When homeostatic balance is upset

153
Q

What is the initial response to stress ?

A

The alarm reaction

154
Q

Which hormones act faster between epinephrine/norepinephrine and cortisol ?

A

Epinephrine/Norepinephrine

PSYC 355 (3 decks)

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