Final Exam Flashcards

1
Q

What is the point in the respiratory track where inspired gas reaches body temperature, ambient pressure, saturated (BTPS) conditions?

A

Isothermic saturation boundary

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2
Q

Which of the following factors cause the isothermic saturation boundary (ISB) to shift farther down into the airways?

A

Decreased ambient temperature
Increased tidal volume (VT)
Endotracheal intubation

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3
Q

What is the primary goal of humidity therapy?

A

Maintain normal physiologic conditions

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4
Q

Inhalation of dry gases can do which of the following?

A

Increase viscosity of secretions
Impair mucociliary motility
Increase airway irritability

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5
Q

Indications for warming inspired gases include all of the following except:

A

Reducing upper airway inflammation or swelling

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6
Q

Which of the following inspired conditions should be maintained when delivering medical gases to the nose or mouth?

A

50% relative humidity (RH) at 20° to 22° C

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7
Q

Which of the following inspired conditions should be maintained when delivering medical gases to the hypopharynx, as when administering oxygen by nasal catheter?

A

95% RH at 29° to 32° C

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8
Q

What device adds molecular water to gas?

A

humidifier

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9
Q

What is the most important factor determining a humidifier’s performance?

A

Temperature

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10
Q

Gas leaving an unheated humidifier at 10° C and 100% relative humidity (absolute humidity = 9.4 mg/L) would provide what relative humidity at body temperature?

A

about 20%

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11
Q

What is the simplest way to increase the humidity output of a humidifier?

A

Increase the temperature of either the water or the gas.

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12
Q

Which of the following types of humidifiers are used in clinical practice?

A

Heat-moisture exchanger
Passover humidifier
Bubble humidifier

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13
Q

What is the goal of using an unheated bubble humidifier with oronasal oxygen delivery systems?

A

Raise the humidity of the gas to ambient levels.

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14
Q

Why should you NOT heat the reservoirs of a bubble humidifier used with an oronasal oxygen delivery system?

A

Condensate will obstruct the delivery tubing.

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15
Q

To protect against obstructed or kinked tubing, simple bubble humidifiers incorporate which of the following?

A

Pressure relief valve

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16
Q

When checking an oxygen delivery system that incorporates a bubble humidifier running at 6 L/min, you occlude the delivery tubing, and the humidifier pressure relief immediately pops off. What does this indicate?

A

Normal, leak-free system

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17
Q

A design that increases surface area and enhances evaporation by incorporating an absorbent material partially submerged in a water reservoir that is surrounded by a heating element best describes what type of humidifier?

A

Wick

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18
Q

Which of the following are types of heat-moisture exchangers (HMEs)?

A

Simple condenser
Hygroscopic condenser
Hydrophobic condenser

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19
Q

A heat-moisture exchangers has an efficiency rating of 80%. What does this mean?

A

Of the exhaled water vapor, 80% returns to the patient on inspiration.

20
Q

According to the National Institute of Standards and Technology of the U.S. Department of Commerce, a gas cylinder that is color-coded brown and green should contain which of the following?

21
Q

The gauge on an E cylinder of O2 reads 800 psig. About how long would the contents of this cylinder last, until completely empty, at a flow of 3 L/min?

A

(800*0.28)/3 = 74.67 minutes (1hr. 14min)

22
Q

What do the components of a liquid O2 bulk storage tank include?

A

Inner & outer steel shells, separated by a vacuum
Safety system that vents O2 if warming occurs
Vaporizer system that converts liquid O2 to gas
Pressure-reducing valves to lower pressure to 50 psig

23
Q

What safety system is represented by this image?

A

Per Gary - know the difference between ASSS, DISS, PISS

24
Q

The black arrow is pointing towards a yellow object, what is this objects function?

A

Gasloc (per Gary)

25
Q

Specific clinical objectives of oxygen (O2) therapy include which of the following?

A

Correct documented/suspected acute hypoxemia
Decrease symptoms associated with chronic hypoxemia
Decrease workload imposes on cardiopulmonary system

26
Q

Which of the following signs and symptoms are associated with the presence of hypoxemia?

A

Tachypnea
Tachycardia
Cyanosis

27
Q

A patient with chronic hypercapnia placed on an FIO2 of 0.6 starts hypoventilating. What is the probable cause of this phenomenon?

A

O2 induced hypoventilatiton

28
Q

Which of the following is false about absorption atelectasis?

A

It can occur only when breathing supplemental O2.

29
Q

Delivery systems that provide only a portion of a patient’s inspired gas are referred to as what?

A

Variable-performance systems

30
Q

A 27-year-old woman received from the emergency department is on a nasal cannula at 5 L/min. Approximately what FIO2 is this patient receiving?

31
Q

What is the minimum flow setting for a simple mask applied to an adult?

32
Q

What is the air to oxygen ratio for a 35% air entrainment mask?

33
Q

A patient is receiving O2 through a nonrebreathing mask set at 10 L/min. You notice that the mask’s reservoir bag collapses completely before the end of each inspiration. Which of the following actions is appropriate in this case?

A

Increase the liter flow

34
Q

A patient receiving 35% O2 through an air-entrainment mask set at 6 L/min input flow becomes tachypneic. Simultaneously, you notice that the SpO2 has fallen from 91% to 87%. Which of the following actions would be most appropriate in this situation?

A

Increase the devices input flow to 10 L/min

35
Q

An O2 delivery device takes separate pressurized(50psi) air and O2 sources as input, then mixes these gases through a precision valve. What does this describe?

A

O2 blending system

36
Q

If the oxygen: air entrainment ratio is 1:10, what is the FIO2?

37
Q

With which of the following devices are therapeutic aerosols generated?

A

Atomizers

Nebulizers

38
Q

Which of the following factors affect pulmonary deposition of an aerosol?

A

Size of the particles
Shape and motion of the particles
Physical characteristics of the airways

39
Q

Most of the spray generated by the majority of metered-dose inhalers consists of which of the following?

A

Propellant

40
Q

To decrease the likelihood of an opportunistic yeast or fungal infection associated with metered-dose inhaler (MDI) steroids, what would you recommend that a patient do?

A

Use a spacer or holding chamber.

Rinse the mouth after each treatment.

41
Q

During aerosol drug delivery using a small-volume jet nebulizer (SVN) set at 8 L/min input flow, a patient asks that the head of the bed be lowered to a semi-Fowler’s position. Immediately after doing so, you observe a significant drop in SVN aerosol output, despite there being at least 3 ml of solution left in the reservoir. What would you do to correct this problem?

A

Reposition the patient so that the SVN is more upright.

42
Q

Normally, when using a 50-psi flowmeter to drive a small-volume jet nebulizer, to what should you set the flow?

A

6 to 10 L/min

43
Q

Persistent breathing at small tidal volumes can result in which of the following?

A

Passive atelecatasis

44
Q

Correct instruction in the technique of incentive spirometry should include which of the following?

A

Diaphragmatic breathing at slow to moderate flows

45
Q

Which of the following is/are necessary for normal airway clearance?

A

Functional mucociliary escalator