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Real Estate Broker Course > Final Deck > Flashcards

Final Deck Flashcards

1
Q

What is Ostensible (apparent) Agency?

A

When someone who has not been authorized to represent another, acts as if they are that person’s agent

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2
Q

What is an “estoppel” and what does it prevent?

A

An estoppel is a legal doctrine that prevents a person from asserting facts that are inconsistent with earlier actions or statements.

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3
Q

When was the “Real Estate Settlement Procedures Act” (RESPA) prohibited?

A

1974

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4
Q

What form does a non resident real estate license applicant have to file?

A

Irrevocable Consent form

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5
Q

What is a “mortgage banker”?

A

A person or entity licensed to engage in the business of making mortgage loans

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6
Q

What is a “mortgage broker”?

A

A person or entity in the business of soliciting, processing, placing, or negotiating mortgage loans for others.

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7
Q

What are the 4 court order representatives that are exempt from obtaining a real estate license?

A

Executor
Administrator
Banktruptcy Trustee
Trustee/Guardian

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8
Q

What is an “administrator”? 3 ways one is an administrator

A

Court appointed person to handle the estate of someone who…
1) died without a will

2) with a will but no nominated executor
3) the executor named in the will has died, has been removed from the case or does not desire to serve.

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9
Q

What is an “executor”

A

Person named in a will to handle the property of someone who has died and carry out the terms of the will.

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10
Q

T/F : A sales person may NOT be an officer in the corporation nor own any voting stock.

A

True

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11
Q

What class is an “Individual broker”?

A

Class 35

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12
Q

What class is an “associate broker”?

A

Class 30

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13
Q

What class is a “trade name broker”?

A

Class 37

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14
Q

What class is a “Partnership Broker”?

A

Class 33

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15
Q

What are the exemptions from taking CE courses? (2)

A

1) Attorneys who have a license and are admitted to NYS Bar
2) Brokers with more than 15 years consecutive licensure before July 2008 and are actively engaged in real estate business

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16
Q

How much is the fee for a broker licenses?

A

$150 (same fee amount for name change as well)

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17
Q

T/F : License fees are set by the Division of Licensing Services

A

False : Set by Department of State

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18
Q

What notice does a licensee file when they want to leave a brokerage?

A

Termination of Association Notice w/ DOS

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19
Q

Within how many days must a broker file a new record of associate notice with the DOS?

A

Within 5 days

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20
Q

When a broker dies, an executor is given authority for how many days to complete any unfinished real estate transactions that were currently in process by anyone associated with that brokerage?

A

120 Days

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21
Q

When did the Financial Services Modernization Act pass?

A

1999

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22
Q

What does the Financial Services Modernization Act of 1999 include provisions for?

A

Includes provisions to protect and regulate the disclosure of consumer’s personal financial information

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23
Q

What does the “Safeguards Rule” require?

A

requires all financial institutions to

design, implement, and maintain safeguards to protect customer info

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24
Q

T/F : Every branch office must have its own supplemental license?

A

True

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25
Q

What is the fee for each branch office license and how often must it be renewed?

A

$150 and every two years

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26
Q

Within how many days must a broker notify the DOS of a new business address?

A

Within 5 days

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27
Q

What is the illegal act of “conversion”?

A

Occurs if a broker were to use any of the client’s money maintained in the trust account for personal or brokerage expenses

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28
Q

T/F : Money should be deposited into the escrow account as promptly as is practical

A

True

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29
Q

How long must you retain copies of all contracts and other records involving 1-4 family dwellings?

A

3 years

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30
Q

What are “compensatory damages”?

A

Damages award, usually money, intended to compensate plantiff

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31
Q

What are “punitive damages”

A

Damages award added to compensatory damages,

to punish defendant for malicious or outrageous conduct

and discourage others from engaging in similar acts

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32
Q

T/F : YARD SIGNS MUST include the office telephone number of the brokerage

A

True

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33
Q

Actual Authority

A

permission given intentionally to an agent by the principal

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34
Q

Express authority

A

Permission for a specific act or outcome communicated by the principal to the agent

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35
Q

Implied Authority

A

Authority to do everything reasonably necessary to carry out the principals express orders

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36
Q

What is the illegal act of “blockbusting” (panic selling)?

A

illegal practice of inducing owners to sell their homes by suggesting the ethnic or racial composition of the neighborhood is changing

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37
Q

What is the illegal act of “Steering”?

A

funneling prospective buyers or renters of protected classes to or away from neighborhoods to maintain or change the neighborhood character

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38
Q

Practicing w/o a License: DOS has the authority to impose the following monetary fines (3 offenses)
:

A

First Offense - not exceeding $150

Second Offense - Not Exceeding $500

Third Offense - Not exceeding $1000

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39
Q

What is tortious interference?

A

Interference with a contractual relationship so that one party fails to execute his or her promise

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40
Q

DOS Penalties: What are the examples of administrative discipline?

A
  • refusal to issue or renew license
  • reprimand
  • license suspension
  • licensee revocation
  • fine up to $1000 per offense
  • fine of up to 4x the amount of any commission earned
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41
Q

Before the DOS revokes, suspends, or fines a licensee, it must notify the licensee in writing of the charges at least how many days prior to the date set for the hearing?

A

10 days prior

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42
Q

Which article procedure give the licensee the right to appeal any penalties to the Supreme Court of NYS?

A

Article 78

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43
Q

T/F : Penalties imposed by the DOS could be in addition to any criminal charges filed by the State Attorney General punishable by a fine of up to $1000 and/or imprisonment of up to one year

A

True

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44
Q

What is ownership in severalty?

A

When property is owned by an individual, corporation, or other entity.

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45
Q

What is tenancy in common?

A

When more than 1 person buys or inherits property together (unless husband and wife).

If a tenant in common dies, the deceased person’s interest passes to their heirs or to the person specified in the terms of the deceased person’s will.

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46
Q

What is tenancy in entirety?

A

Married couples who own property as tenants by the entirety each own an undivided interested in the property, each has full rights to occupy and use it and has right of survivorship.

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47
Q

What is joint tenancy?

A

Two or more parties that own estate or property jointly.

the share of each passing to the other or others on death.

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48
Q

T/F : A real estate licensee could be classified as a statutory employee by the IRS

A

False; would be statutory non-employees

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49
Q

What are “statutory employees”?

A

Independent contractors specifically classified as employees by statute for social security and medicare taxes

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50
Q

4 Categories of Statutory Employees

A

Driver
Life Insurance Sales Agent
Individual that works At Home
Full Time traveling or City Salesperson

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51
Q

When was the Sherman Anti-Trust Act?

A

1890

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52
Q

What does the Sherman Antitrust act of 1890 outlaw?

A

Outlaws practices considered harmful to consumers, such as monopoloies.

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53
Q

When was the Clayton Antitrust Act passed?

A

1914

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54
Q

What does the Clayton Antitrust Act of 1914 enhance?

A

Enhances the Sherman Anti Trust Act.

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55
Q

When was the Federal Trade Commission Act passed?

A

1914

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56
Q

What is “illegal per se”?

A

a particular act is defined as illegal in the law and is so obviously harmful to competition that detailed analysis of the activity is not required.

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57
Q

What happens when a legal case is settled with a “consent decree”?

A

A binding agreement through which the accused party consents to change its behavior but admits to no misconduct

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58
Q

What happens when the state sues to enforce federal and invokes “parens patriae”.

A

allows states to sue on behalf of its people.

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59
Q

civil Suits for Antitrust Violations

What is “injunctive relief”?

A

A court-ordered prohibition against a particular act, often imposed for violating a cease and desist order.

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60
Q

3 Criminal Penalties for antitrust violations include…

A

1) Felony conviction
2) Fines not to exceed $350K for individuals, $10M for corporations
3) Imprisonment not to exceed three years

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61
Q

T/F : Only the US DOJ can file criminal charges for violating federal antitrust laws

A

True

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62
Q

What is “dangling commission”?

A

When a licensee receives commission from a former employing broker if the licensee was licensed under that former employing broker at the time commission was earned.

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63
Q

What is a resolution to keep disputes out of the courts?

A

Mediation

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64
Q

What is mediation?

A

When a third party facilitates a discussion between the parties involved

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65
Q

If mediation cannot resolve the dispute, what may be necessary next?

A

Arbitration

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66
Q

What happens in arbitration?

A

When the court appoints a disinterested arbitrator, who listens to the arguments from each side and renders a judgement that is legally binding

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67
Q

What is the purpose of arbitration?

A

To determine which broker initiated the unbroken series of events and followed through, resulting in the sale of the property

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68
Q

T/F : Within arbitration, agency relationship with the client and entitlement to compensation are considered as separate issues

A

True

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69
Q

What “affidavit of entitlement” do brokers who dispute commission file with the DOS?

A

Affidavit of Entitlement of Commission for completion of brokerage services

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70
Q

T/F : A broker must initiate any legal action within 6 months of deposit or will lose any claim for commission.

A

True

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71
Q

Fact: In NY, a broker has the right to file a mechanic’s lien on commercial real estate, or any interest in that commercial real estate, in the amount of commission the broker is due under a written agreement for a lease of at least three years.

A broker would have to record a notice of a lien within eight months from when the commission was due.

A
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72
Q

Within how many months would a broker have to record a notice of a lien from when the commission was due.

A

Within 8 months

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73
Q

T/F : Arbitration is a binding proceeding that parties in dispute can take to avoid court

A

True

74
Q

Promissory notes are to ____ as mortgages are to _______

A

Financing instruments & security instruments

75
Q

This market is where borrowers and lenders come together to negotiate terms and effectuate mortgage transactions.

Also, is the process of originating, processing, underwriting, closing, and funding a mortgage loan

A

Primary Market/Primary Mortgage Market

76
Q

This market is when lenders sell the mortgage to an investor to receive funds so that they can make additional mortgage loans to others

A

Secondary Mortgage Market

77
Q

Source of funds for primary mortgage market is largely made of ______ of individuals and businesses in the local area served

A

Saving deposits

78
Q

These types of financial institutions specialize in taking saving deposits and making mortgage loans.

Sometimes called “thrifts”

A

Savings and Loan Associations

78
Q

These types of financial institutions specialize in taking saving deposits and making mortgage loans.

Sometimes called “thrifts”

A

Savings and Loan Associations

79
Q

Persons or entities in the business of making mortgage loans

A

Mortgage Bankers

80
Q

Persons or entities in the business of soliciting, processing, placing, or negotiating mortgage loans or offering to solicit, process, place, or negotiate mortgage loans for others

A

Mortgage brokers

81
Q

T/F : Mortgage bankers must be licensed, whereas mortgage brokers must be registered with the Superintendent

A

True

82
Q

Financing instruments that are evidence to a promise to pay a specific amount of money to a specific person within a specific time frame

“Written promise to pay money”

A

Promissory Notes

83
Q

What are two types of Security Instruments?

A

Deeds of Trust

Mortgages

83
Q

What are two types of Security Instruments?

A

Deeds of Trust

Mortgages

84
Q

In these type of theory states, the security instrument creates a voluntary lien against the property that must be repaid by the debtor

NY is this type of theory state

A

Lien Theory States

85
Q

in these type of theory states, while the debt is outstanding, the lender holds legal title to the property. Borrower has possession of the property, but until the debt is fully paid, the borrower has only equitable title.

A

Title Theory States

86
Q

T/F : Mortgages are the primary security instrument used in lien theory states

A

True

87
Q

T/F : Deeds of Trusts are the primary security instruments used in title theory states

A

True

88
Q

T/F : Under title theory, legal title is transferred to the lender until the debt is repaid in full

A

True

89
Q

T/F : A Mortgage creates a voluntary lien

A

True

90
Q

When a property is pledged as security for a debt, but the borrower still holds legal title and possession, it is known as….

A

Hypothecation

91
Q

T/F: Under lien theory, the borrower has legal title while the lender has a lien on the property until the mortgage is fully paid

A

True

92
Q

T/F: lien priority, RET are always paid first.

A

True

93
Q

When a loan meets the criteria necessary to be sold in the secondary market, it is considered what type of loan?

A

Conforming Loan

94
Q

This type of payment is a final lump sum that pays any remaining principal and/or interest at the end of a loan term

A

Balloon Payment

95
Q

This type of loan has the total payments over the life of the loan will pay off the entire balance of principal and interest due at the end of the term.

AKA self-liquidating

A

Fully Amortized Loan

96
Q

T/F : Adjustable Rate Mortgages (ARMs) are not considered traditional conventional loans

A

True

97
Q

T/F : Amortized loans apply payments to the principal and interest

A

True

98
Q

T/F : Private Mortgage Insurance is required for 90% conventional loans

A

True

99
Q

This clause in a contract gives a mortgage recorded at a later date the right to take priority over an earlier recorded mortgage

A

Subordination clause

100
Q

This is a statistical report that is generally reliable indicator of the approximate cost of money.

also an element of arm that determines whether the interest rate goes up or down.

A

An index

101
Q

This type of mortgage incudes both real estate property and personal property.

A

Package Mortgage

102
Q

This type of mortgage covers two or more parcels or lots..

A

Blanket Mortgage

103
Q

this type of mortgage occurs between the termination of one mortgage and the beginning of the next

A

Bridge Mortgage

104
Q

This type of mortgage is a secondary financing arrangement in which a lender, who is often the seller, leaves the original loan intact and gives the borrower a second, larger loan

A

Wraparound Mortgage

104
Q

special type of mortgage where a seller finances all or part of the sale of property for the buyer

A

Purchase Money Mortgage

105
Q

This type of lease enables tenants to lease only the land - not any structures or improvements on the land.

Structured to separate the ownership of the land from the ownership of hte buildings and improvements on the land

aka Ground lease

A

Land lease

106
Q

this exchange allows a taxpayer to sell an investment property and purchase another investment property in its place without paying taxes on the proceeds from the sales

A

1031 Exchange

107
Q

this type of buyer in a commercial real estate who uses the property for his or her own business purposes, as opposed to owning the property and leasing to others

A

Amenity Buyer

108
Q

this is the greatest estate (ownership) one can have in real property

A

Fee simple absolute

109
Q

this estate is a possessory interest in real property of uncertain duration

A

Freehold Estate

110
Q

This estate is an interest that gives the holder, the tenant, a temporary right to exclusive possession of the estate, without title

A

Leasehold estate

111
Q

this is an interest in property that entitles the holder to possess and occupy the property, now or in the future

A

Possessory interest

112
Q

this is an income statement where certain amounts are hypothetical

A

Pro Forma

113
Q

This is the risk that demand for space will affect rents, vacancy rates, and net operating income.

A

Space Market Risk

114
Q

T/F : The principal that an investor pays on a mortgage is an example of using leverage to build equity

A

True

115
Q

T/F : The ultimate goal of an operating statement to find the cash flow

A

True

116
Q

Straight Line Depreciation - REsidential Income Properties = 27.5 years

A

Straight Line Depreciation - Non residential income properties = 39 years

117
Q

this type of basis incudes gains and losses from taxes and boot

A

adjusted basis

118
Q

this is the price paid for property, including losses and gains

A

basis

119
Q

this is non-like-kind property that is part of a like-kind exchange

A

Boot

120
Q

An investor who takes advantage of a 1031 Exchange has more buying power on the second purchase than another investor who simply sells one property to purchase another

A

True

121
Q

This is a formal summary of a proposed venture, to potential investors

A

Prospectus

122
Q

one of the most widely used approaches to determine value for income producing or investment properties.

relevant for appraisal assignments in which the subject property is leased, or could reasonably be leased, producing an income stream for the owner.

estimates the value of real estate by analyzing the amount of revenue or income the property currently generates or could generate.

aka - capitalization approach

A

income approach

123
Q

This is a percentage rate used by investors to calculate the present value of future income

A

Capitalization Rate

124
Q

this type of laws are those that define our relationships with other people, our rights and responsibilities.

Examples: contract law, law of agency, and real property law

A

Substantive Laws

125
Q

this type of law describes how such rights may be enforced by defining the rules that govern how civil and criminal trials operate

A

Procedural laws

126
Q

type of damage that is a sum of money OVER AND ABOVE the actual damages

A

Exemplary Damages

127
Q

a breach of standards of reasonable conduct imposed by law that causes harm to another person

A

Tort

128
Q

these damages are imposed to punish the wrongdoer and to deter others from similar acts

A

Punitive Damages

129
Q

The two ways the NYS constitution can be amended.

A
  • Constitutional Convention

- Legislative Proposal

130
Q

T/F : When a federal law and a state law are in conflict with each other, the US constitution provides that federal law can preempt the state law in a number of different situations

A

True

131
Q

Laws adopted by the US congress and by state legislatures are called…

A

Acts or Statutes

132
Q

this law refers to the rules of law developed by judges in court decisions..

AKA common law

A

Case Law

133
Q

a judge’s decision in a specific case can become a rule of law applied to all cases

A

doctrine of stare decisis

134
Q

Personal property is also known as….

A

Chattel

135
Q

a trust established by will or after death of trustor is called a ….

A

testamentory trust

136
Q

This provides public notice of a pending lawsuit that could affect the property’s title

A

Lis pendens

137
Q

This legal instrumental is used when selling significant personal property, trade fixtures, farm equipment, etc

also comes into play when purchasing shares in a coop building with respect to a proprietary lease

A

Uniform Commercial Code Financing Statement or UCC-1

138
Q

an unconditional promise or order to pay a fixed amount of money.

Classified as an order or promise..

must be in writing and signed by the drawer

A

Negotiable Instrument

139
Q

this is a two party negotiable instrument that serves as an acknowledgement by a bank or other financial institution of receipt of money deposited with a promise to repay it

A

Certificate of Deposit

140
Q

this clause gives the holder or payee of a time to declare the entire balance due immediately b/c of some event, like default.

A

acceleration clause

141
Q

T/F : If an instrument includes any other conditions, it is not negotiable, therefore not transferable

A

True

142
Q

What is it called when a person dies w/o a will (intestate), and their property automatically descends to his natural heirs or next of kin as provided for by state law, which would include spouses, children, and relatives

A

Descent

143
Q

What is it called when a person dies with a will (testate) and the property is transferred to their heirs (devisees) as indicated in the will

A

Devise

144
Q

T/F : in NYS, a surviving spouse is entitled to the first $50,000 or 1/3 of the net estate, whichever is greater.

A

True

145
Q

When property ownership is reverted back to the state b/c a person dies w/o valid will and no living heirs

A

Escheat

146
Q

the right of surviving spouse who is not named in the will to choose a mandated dollar amount or percentage of the deceased’s estate, whichever is greater

A

right of election

146
Q

the right of surviving spouse who is not named in the will to choose a mandated dollar amount or percentage of the deceased’s estate, whichever is greater

A

right of election

147
Q

this easement occurs when the government uses its power of eminent domain to bring a condemnation lawsuit against a property to create an easement as well as to obtain fee simple title of that property

A

easement by condemnation

148
Q

T/F : The difference between a taking and eminent domain is that the property is regulated by a government authority to the economic detriment of the owner, w/o compensation

A

True

148
Q

T/F : A rezone that favors a particular property owner without justification is known as spot zoning

Generally, it is illegal

A

True

149
Q

This is defined as the physical characteristics of a parcel of land including water sources, native vegetation, location of trees and rocks, soil type, and floodplains

A

Topography

150
Q

T/F : Topographical maps help in determine the portion of the land that useable for development

A

True

151
Q

A study to determine how many property units can be sold or rented in the marketplace during a certain period of time.

developers use this to predict market efficiency and for deciding if an oversupply or undersupply situation exists or will exist in the market

A

Absorption analysis

152
Q

This document is part of a site plan that locates and measures the boundaries of a property and identifies improvements, encroachments, and easements associated with the land

A

Survey

153
Q

The acquisition of title to land by its addition to real estate already owned, through human actions or natural processes…

A

accession

154
Q

the gradual addition to dry land by the forces of nature

A

accretion

155
Q

what is the land added through accretion known as?

A

alluvion

156
Q

when land is lost due to sudden acts of nature such as floods or earthquakes…

A

avulsion

157
Q

the gradual loss of soil due to the action of wind, water, or other forces

A

erosion

158
Q

this right gives borrowers the chance to pay the outstanding debt on a mortgage or tax bill after default but before foreclosure occurs

A

equitable right of redemption

159
Q

the acquisition of title to land by its addition to real estate already owned, through human actions or natural processes

A

accession

160
Q
  • sometimes called “general warranty deeds”
  • the strongest and broadest type of titled guarantee
  • legally bind the grantor to certain guarantees, also called covenants, promises or warranties, regarding status of the title
  • guarantee against defects occurring during any previous ownership, not just the grantor’s period of ownership
  • give the grantee the most protection
A

Full Covenant and warranty deeds

161
Q

this type of deed…
-convey whatever right, title, or interest the grantor holds in the property or parcel of land without representation that there is any interest at all

  • make no warranties regarding the title, if any, held by the grantor
  • usually involve just a partial interest in the property
  • may be used to clear up any claims, encumbrances, or defects that make the title to real property unmarketable
  • may be used to remedy clouds on a title, or title problems
  • typically may be used to convey an easment
A

quitclaim deed

162
Q

this deed is given When a buyer purchases property through a foreclosure sale

aka referee’s deed

A

sheriff’s deed

163
Q

What makes a deed valid?

A
  • in writing (does not have to be ink)
  • names of the parties
  • consideration
  • granting clause
  • habendum clause
  • legal description
  • execution
  • recitation
164
Q

this clause in a deed states the grantor’s intent to convey title to the land

A

granting clause

165
Q

these words identify the document as one which involves the transfer of interest from one person to another

aka words of conveyance

A

act of conveyance

166
Q

this clause is typically included after the granting clause in many deeds

  • begins “to have and to hold”
  • clause further describes the type of estate granted, which must be consistent with any estate indicated in the granting clause
A

habendum clause

167
Q

T/F : The deed has no legal effect until there has been delivery and acceptance that typically takes place at settlement. must take place while the grantor is alive or it has no legal effect

A

True

168
Q

this is the intent by the grantor to transfer title immediately and unconditionally

A

donative intent

169
Q

T/F : For a deed to be valid, it must include the signature of the grantee

A

False - just the grantor is needed. grantee must accept the deed

170
Q

Recording a deed is not required however what does it ensure?

A

that its existence is clear to third parties as part of public records

171
Q

T/F : In NY, a recorded deed takes precedence over any prior unrecorded deedT:

A

True

172
Q

T/F : Recording a document provides constructive notice to the world of ownership

A

True

173
Q

T/F : Recording a document also requires the acknowledgement of an authorized official that certifies that the signatures on the document are voluntary and genuine

A

True

174
Q

This type of notice includes what someone personally saw, heard, read, or observed

Also known as actual knowledge

A

Actual Notice

174
Q

This type of notice includes what someone personally saw, heard, read, or observed

Also known as actual knowledge

A

Actual Notice

Real Estate Broker Course (22 decks)

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