Final Countdown Flashcards

1
Q

What is a mnemonic to remember the steps of a contract analysis?

A

Casey Took a Poop During Recess

Contract
Terms
Performance
Defenses
Remedies

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2
Q

What is the Statute of Frauds? (Provided in UCC 2-201)

A

Contracts fall under the statute of frauds when they are for goods for $500 or more. Because this is a contract for goods over $500, the statue of frauds applies. To be enforceable, any contract falling within the Statute of Frauds must be in writing and signed by the party against whom enforcement is sought. A writing is not insufficient because it omits or incorrectly states a term agreed upon but the contract is not enforceable under this paragraph beyond the quantity of goods shown in such writing.

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3
Q

What are the exceptions to the Statute of Frauds? (Provided in UCC 2-201)

A

There are three exceptions that don’t need writing: Specially manufactured goods (where there has been a substantial progress in the manufacture), OR if one of the parties admits there was a contract in court, OR receipt of payment or receipt of goods.

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4
Q

What is the policy purpose of the Statue of Frauds? (KentLaw)

A

The cautionary function: The idea here is that making parties write down their agreement makes the parties take the agreement more seriously, and makes the approach the whole matter less hastily. It makes the parties more carefully about the contract. (Oh shit I’m signing a contract)

and

The evidentiary function: the other idea is that the statute of frauds is supposed to prevent fraud. Without a written contract you could come into court and lie about there being a contract or about the terms of the contract. (Oh shit now there’s evidence I signed a contract).

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5
Q

What is a mnemonic for the Statute of Frauds exceptions? (Piper)

A

SWAMP

S – Contracts for SPECIALLY manufactured goods
W – WAIVER
A – Judicial ADMISSION of contract
M – “MERCHANT MEMORANDUM”
P – PART PERFORMANCE

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6
Q

What is the Parol Evidence Rule? (Provided in UCC 2-202)

A

The parol evidence rule discharges any prior (or contemporaneous) agreements that are inconsistent with the integrated terms of a final, written agreement.

Put differently, under the parol evidence rule, the court may not admit extrinsic evidence of prior agreements, if the purpose is to supplement or contradict the terms of a fully integrated written agreement.

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7
Q

When is a writing completely integrated? (Chinen Approved)

A

A writing is completely integrated if the parties intend the writing to be the final and exclusive expression of their agreement. If a writing is completely integrated, evidence of terms within the scope of the writing are excluded and evidence of terms outside the scope of the writing are included.

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8
Q

When is a writing partially integrated? (Chinen Approved)

A

An agreement is integrated when the parties intended the writing to be the final expression of one or more terms of their agreement. If a writing is integrated, evidence of consistent contract terms is admitted and evidence of inconsistent terms is excluded.

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9
Q

What is the policy purpose behind the Parol Evidence Rule? (Q) (LII)

A

The rationale behind the Parol Evidence Rule is that the parties to an agreement will include all of their terms in a written contract, so any terms that are not in the written contract were not intended to be part of the final agreement.

The rationale behind the rule is to deter untruthful attacks on contracts.

To simplify the administration of the resulting contract and to facilitate the resolution of possible disputes by excluding from the scope of their agreement those matters that were raised and dropped or even agreed upon and superseded during the negotiations.

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10
Q

What’s a mnemonic for remembering a PER analysis? (VB)

A

WIE

W- Is there a WRITING?
I - Is the writing INTEGRATED?
E - Are there any EXCEPTIONS?

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11
Q

What is a mnemonic for what permits parol evidence? (VB)

A

RIT

RECISION
INTEGRATION or complete integration
Interpret ambiguous TERMS

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12
Q

What is an express warranty?

A

An express warranty is a statement or representation made by a seller that goods meet certain standards of quality, safety, and performance.

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13
Q

How are express warranties created? (Provided in UCC 2-313)

A

Express warranties are created by any fact/promise by a seller that becomes part of the bargain OR becomes part of the basis for a bargain.

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14
Q

What is the policy purpose behind representations and warranties?

A

Allows the purchaser to rely on the seller without independently verifying information. EFFICIENCY. Also, the seller is in the best position to have the information.

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15
Q

What does it mean that express warranties are SAD? (Piper)

A

Express warranties are SAD:
S – SAMPLE or model, which is the basis of the bargain
A – Written or oral AFFIRMATION of fact or promise made by the seller relating to the goods
D – DESCRIPTION of the goods in advertisements, brochures, or catalogs

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16
Q

What is the implied warranty of merchantability? (Themis) (Provided in UCC 2-314)

A

Goods the merchant normally sells for their ordinary purpose - can be disclaimed by very conspicuous language (either using merchantability or as is).

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17
Q

What is the implied warranty for fitness for a particular purpose? (Themis) (Crunchtime) (Provided in UCC 2-315)

A

Buyer relies on the seller’s expertise to select proper goods.

Elements are (1) Seller had reason to know buyer’s purpose (2) seller had reason to know buyer was relying on seller’s skill (3) buyer did in fact rely

PSR

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18
Q

What is a condition? (Q)

A

A condition is an uncertain event that must occur before a party can be required to perform.

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19
Q

What is an express condition? (Q)

A

An express condition is one to which the parties explicitly agree.

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20
Q

What are the excuses for express conditions?

A
  • Forfeiture
  • Waiver
  • Estoppel
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21
Q

What is an implied (constructive) condition? (Q)

A

An implied condition is a condition implied by law to avoid injustice. If a requirement of performance in a contract is ambiguous as to the parties’ intent, it may be interpreted as an implied condition rather than as an express condition.

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22
Q

How can an obligor waive a condition? (Q)

A

An obligor can waive a condition by making an express statement to that effect or by accepting performance despite knowing of the nonoccurrence. However, a waiver doesn’t excuse nonoccurrence if the condition is a material part of the contract, that is, if nonoccurrence would deprive the obligor of the benefit of the bargain.

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23
Q

What are the elements to prove disproportionate forfeiture? (Q)

A

First, the condition is not a material part of the contract;

Second, the obligee has substantially relied on the expectation of the parties’ exchange; and

Third, the obligee’s loss if the condition were enforced would be much greater than the obligor’s loss if the nonoccurrence were excused.

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24
Q

What is material breach?

A

A material breach goes to the essential parts of the contract, and is so substantial a failure to perform that the nonbreaching party did not receive the basic value of the contract. If a breach is material, then the nonbreaching party’s performance is excused.

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25
Q

What is mnemonic to remember significant circumstances in determining when a breach is material? (VB)

A

Brendan Asked For Casey’s Giraffe

Deprived of the BENEFIT which he reasonably expected
The injured party can be ADEQUATELY compensated
The extent to which the failing party will suffer FORFEITURE
The likelihood that the failing party will CURE his failure
The extent to which the behavior of the party failing to perform or offer to perform comports with standards of GOOD faith and fair dealing.

26
Q

What is substantial performance?

A

Substantial performance means that the breaching party did not perform entirely, but performed enough that the nonbreaching party received the essential value of its contract (although not the full value of perfect performance). If the breaching party substantially performed, then by definition material breach has not occurred. The nonbreaching party may still seek damages for the defective performance, but its performance will not be entirely excused.

27
Q

What is estoppel of a condition?

A

Estoppel means that the party benefitting from the condition acted so as to make the other party reasonably believe that it would perform even if the condition did not occur.

28
Q

What is forfeiture of a condition?

A

Forfeiture of a condition occurs when the performance avoided by nonoccurrence of the condition is disproportionate to the condition itself—that is, if the party benefiting from the condition would disproportionately forfeit its expected return performance, were the court to excuse the condition.

A court will weigh the forfeited compensation or performance against the express condition, taking into account the individual circumstances and the preferences of the party benefiting from the condition.

Mr. L

29
Q

What is waiver of a condition?

A

Waiver means that the party benefiting from the condition promised to perform even if the condition did not occur.

30
Q

Is a party who who causes a nonoccurrence in bad faith still required to perform? (Q)

A

Yes.

31
Q

What is the duty of good faith and fair dealing? (Defined in UCC 1-201(20)) (Chinen Approved)

A

Every contract imposes upon each party a duty of good faith and fair dealing in its performance and its enforcement. Good faith means honesty in fact and the observance of reasonable commercial standards of fair dealing.

32
Q

What is the policy behind good faith and fair dealing?

A

Prevent unjust enrichment or depriving a party of a benefit they are morally entitled to
Lack of bad faith: strikes the conscience as wrongful and surprising. One party benefiting at another’s expense.

33
Q

What is anticipatory repudiation? (Provided in UCC 2-610) (Chinen Approved)

A

Anticipatory repudiation takes place where one party to a contract unequivocally expresses the intent not to perform. The repudiation is itself a breach of the contract, which excuses the other party’s performance. This entitles them to sue for full breach of the contract.

34
Q

What is adequate assurance of performance? (Provided in UCC 2-609)

A

When reasonable grounds for insecurity arise (low threshold) the insecure party can demand adequate assurance. Performance can be suspended for a commercially reasonable time, not > 30 days, while assurance is pending. No receipt of assurance is treated as repudiation of the contract.

35
Q

What is the purpose of communicating a repudiation? (DeLong)

A

The purpose of communicating a repudiation can be to give a warning, permitting the other party to act quickly to mitigate any damage it might suffer from non-performance. (431)

36
Q

What is a mutual mistake? (R)

A

Where a mistake of both parties at the time a contract was made as to a basic assumption on which the contract was made has a material effect on the agreed exchange of performances, the contract is voidable by the adversely affected party unless he bears the risk of the mistake . (152)

37
Q

What is a unilateral mistake? (Q)

A

A unilateral mistake is a mistake by one party to the contract regarding the terms or the subject matter of the contract. A contract is unenforceable due to unilateral mistake if these elements are satisfied: one party to a contract was mistaken as to a basic assumption underlying the contract, that mistake materially affected the contract as it concerned the mistaken party, the mistaken party did not bear the risk of the mistake, and enforcing the contract would be unconscionable as a result.

38
Q

What is the policy purpose of mistakes?

A

The contract, as written, does not express the intention of the mistaken party(s).

39
Q

When does a party bear the risk of a mistake? (R)

A

A party bears the risk of a mistake when the risk is allocated to him by agreement of the parties, or
he is aware, at the time the contract is made, that he has only limited knowledge with respect to the facts to which the mistake relates but treats his limited knowledge as sufficient, or the risk is allocated to him by the court on the ground that it is reasonable in the circumstances to do so. (154)

40
Q

What is misrepresentation? (MEG)

A

Misrepresentation is the act of making a false statement, on which another party relies to his detriment. Under the doctrine of misrepresentation, a party may rescind the contract when the misrepresentation is fraudulent or when it is material.

41
Q

When will a court find duress? (Chinen Approved)

A

If a contract arises because one party improperly threatened the other, leaving the threatened party no reasonable alternative but to accept the contract, then the contract is voidable as the product of duress.

42
Q

When will a court find unconscionability? (Chinen Approved)

A

A court may refuse to enforce a contract where inadequacy of price is coupled with inequitable or oppressive conduct, or undue influence that shocks the conscience. The courts look at procedural unconscionability, the way the contract came about, or substantive unconscionability, where the unfairness in a contract that is the result of excessively oppressive or harsh terms in the contract.

43
Q

What is a policy purpose for unconscionability?

A

Allows contract law to acknowledge moral norms by voiding contracts that are so unfair in either procedure or substance that enforcement would offend justice.

44
Q

What do courts look at when determining whether a contract violates public policy? (DeLong)

A

That a valuable societal interest exists and that enforcement of this contract will materially harm that interest, directly or indirectly. (126)

45
Q

What is the doctrine of frustration? (Chinen Approved)

A

The doctrine of frustration provides that a party’s performance is excused if the party’s principal purpose is substantially frustrated without his fault by the occurrence of an event, the non-occurrence of which was a basic assumption on which the contract was made, unless the contract language or the circumstance indicate the contrary. Additionally, the doctrine of frustration addresses the risk that the consideration a party receives may become unexpectedly worthless.

46
Q

What is the doctrine of impracticability? (Q)

A

A theory of contract law where an act becomes so expensive or difficult to do, its performance is considered impossible.

47
Q

What is the difference between the doctrines of impracticability and frustration?

A

Whereas impracticability addresses the risk that a party’s performance might become unexpectedly burdensome or costly, the doctrine of frustration addresses the risk that the consideration a party receives may become unexpectedly worthless.

48
Q

What is impossibility of purpose? (MEG)

A

Impossibility of purpose occurs when unforeseen event occurs after the contract is made which makes performance impossible.

49
Q

What is the duty of mitigation? (Chinen Approved)

A

A nonbreaching party has a duty to mitigate damages by avoiding reasonably preventable losses resulting from the breach. The nonbreaching party does not need to make extreme or undue efforts or incur unreasonable risk to avoid loss, but if the breaching party can show that the nonbreaching party could reasonably have prevented some of the requested damages, the breaching party will not be held liable for the damages that could have been mitigated.

50
Q

What needs to be done for mitigation for employment?

A

Mitigated damages in employment require that the mitigating party seek substantially similar employment. Typically, when an employer wrongly repudiates an employment contract, the employee’s damages comprise the salary that the employer promised to pay the employee. However, if the employee secured substitute employment, or could have done so with reasonable effort, the damages will be lowered by what the employee either earned or could have earned through substitute employment.

51
Q

What are the elements for damages?

A

In order to establish damages, the nonbreaching party must (1) prove that the damages were reasonably foreseeable and (2) establish the amount of damages with reasonable certainty.

52
Q

What do you need to examine for employment damages?

A

If an employer breaches an employment contract and refuses to pay an employee, the standard total of damages is the promised salary under the contract. If an employee finds substitute employment, however, then damages will be lowered by the avoidable loss.

53
Q

What are expectation damages?

A

The goal of expectation damages is to place the nonbreaching party in the same position as if the breaching party had performed. The court will adjust (up or down) an award of expectation damages to appropriately take into account relevant factors. (cost of substitute performance, partial performance, cost to complete, savings, etc.)

54
Q

What is the formula for calculating expectation damages?

A

Loss in Value + Other Loss - Costs Avoided- Loss Avoided

Expectation Damages=Cost of Reliance + Expected Profit + Other Loss

55
Q

What are consequential damages? (Q) (Provided in UCC 2-715)

A

Consequential damages are damages for a breach of contract that arise not from the ordinary course of events due to the breach, but from special circumstances peculiar to the injured party. Consequential damages are not recoverable unless the breaching party had reason to know of the special circumstances.

56
Q

What are reliance damages?

A

Reliance damages compensate the non-breaching party for any harm suffered in reliance on the contract. Their goal is to place the non-breaching party in the same position as if the contract had never been made. However, if the breaching party can prove that the non-breaching party would have lost money were the contract fully performed, then the court will deduct the amount of that loss from the non-breaching party’s reliance damages. Reliance damages are typically applied when expectation damages can not be calculated.

57
Q

What are liquidated damages? (Provided in UCC 2-718)

A

Liquidated damages are damages for breach of contract that are defined by the parties within the contract itself. The court will only enforce liquidated damages when they are a reasonable amount or estimate and the actual damages would be unreasonably difficult to calculate and damages are difficult to calculate. Liquidated damages will not be enforced if they are set at artificially high amounts, and appear to serve as a penalty or punishment for the breaching party.

58
Q

What are restitution damages? (Q)

A

Compensation granted to remedy the defendant’s unjust enrichment that occurred at the plaintiff’s expense.

59
Q

What is specific performance? (Provided in UCC 2-716) (Chinen Approved)

A

Specific performance is a remedy in which the court actually orders a breaching party to perform under a contract. The court will award specific performance as a remedy when monetary damages are not adequate, typically due to unique consideration (commonly real estate). However, specific performance is not available to force someone to render personal services.

60
Q

What is injunctive relief? (Q)

A

An equitable remedy whereby the court does not order damages but instead instructs a party to do something or refrain from doing something.

61
Q

What is a negative injunction? (Q)

A

A court order, requiring a party not to do something or stop doing something it was engaged in.

62
Q

What is reformation? (Q)

A

An equitable remedy by which a court amends the terms of an agreement to give effect to the true intent of the parties.