Final Ch. 13 - 15 Flashcards
Like the DSM-5, the \_\_\_\_\_ is a diagnostic classification system. A. DMI-5 B. ICD-10 C. PSY-7 D. DCM-12
B. ICD-10
The DSM-5 contains a listing of A. disorders not officially named. B. treatment options for most disorders. C. disorders common to ethnic groups. D. state-sponsored treatment resources.
A. disorders not officially named.
To a seasoned clinician, a patient’s DSM-5 diagnosis instantly conveys information about
A. an individual’s behavior, cognition, and emotion.
B. how problematic a psychiatric disorder may be.
C. how responsive to intervention the disorder is likely to be.
D. All of these.
D. All of these.
Applying the definition in your textbook, which of the following is a statement regarding
incidence?
A. the proportion of people diagnosed with depression who are also diagnosed with a physical
illness.
B. the proportion of people diagnosed with a physical illness who will develop depression.
C. the annual occurrence of suicide among people diagnosed with depression.
D. the number of clinical trials needed for a specific intervention to show efficacy.
C. the annual occurrence of suicide among people diagnosed with depression.
Osborn et al. (2016) researched the \_\_\_\_ of anxiety in patients who had suffered traumatic brain injury. A. incidence B. prevalence C. occurrence D. severity
B. prevalence
Knowledge of the incidence and prevalence of certain disorders can
A. influence the priorities of researchers
B. inform policies of health insurance companies
C. guide the plans of pharmaceutical manufacturers
D. all of these
D. all of these
It is a fact that
A. there has been no controversy about DSM-5.
B. there has been no shortage of controversy about DSM-5.
C. the greatest controversy to date concerns the blueprinting of DSM-5.1.
D. the Chair of the Planning Committee for DSM-5.1 resigned in protest.
B. there has been no shortage of controversy about DSM-5.
“A culturally informed understanding of what is and is not abnormal can have profound
consequences for society-at-large.” This statement from the textbook was elaborated on with
reference to
A. varieties of bereavement.
B. the CFI.
C. homosexuality.
D. biopsychosocial assessment.
C. homosexuality.
In \_\_\_\_\_, the American Psychiatric Association de-listed homosexuality as a psychiatric disorder. A. 1970 B. 1971 C. 1972 D. 1973
D. 1973
The American Psychiatric Association's de-listing of homosexuality as a psychiatric disorder was the result of A. political lobbying. B. new scientific evidence. C. the formulation of new theory. D. All of these
A. political lobbying.
The DSM-5 is more culturally sensitive than any of its predecessors. Which is NOT a
reason why?
A. the DSM-5 contains a discussion of cultural formulation.
B. the DSM-5 suggests that a Cultural Formulation Interview be conducted with clients.
C. the DSM-5 contains an 18-item Cultural Competence Test.
D. the DSM-5 contains a section which lists cultural concepts of distress.
C. the DSM-5 contains an 18-item Cultural Competence Test.
DSM-5 departed from the tradition set by previous versions of the diagnostic manual
because it
A. expanded the criteria for a diagnosis of paranoid schizophrenia.
B. used Arabic numbers not Roman numerals to designate its version number.
C. employed committees of psychiatric social workers to contribute to its development.
D. added to the manual a new disorder called binge-consumption disorder.
B. used Arabic numbers not Roman numerals to designate its version number.
Which psychometric concept is cited in Chapter 13 of your textbook to emphasize that
two diagnosticians using the same diagnostic manual and procedures should come to the same
diagnosis when presented with the same patient?
A. inter-rater reliability
B. inter-rater validity
C. concurrent validity
D. internal consistency reliability
A. inter-rater reliability
Dr. Neil Aggarwal was cited in Chapter 13 of your textbook because he
A. was a co-author of the CFI.
B. is a user of the CFI.
C. questioned the reliability of the CFI.
D. introduced the CFI to the World Health Organization.
B. is a user of the CFI.
Controversial changes in the DSM-5 included
A. the de-listing of schizophrenia as a mental disorder.
B. the listing of grief from loss as a mental disorder.
C. the inclusion of cultural and sub-cultural terminology.
D. All of these.
B. the listing of grief from loss as a mental disorder.
Charges of elder abuse and elder neglect are typically levied against
A. the spouse of the abused or neglected person.
B. one who has something to gain from the further disabling of the abused or neglected
person.
C. life insurance salespeople and investment counselors.
D. one who stands in a position of trust with respect to the abused or neglected person.
D. one who stands in a position of trust with respect to the abused or neglected person.
Which is not a form of elder abuse mentioned in your textbook?
A. sexual abuse
B. financial abuse
C. online abuse
D. Neither sexual abuse nor financial abuse are mentioned in the textbook.
C. online abuse
Which of the following should raise a red flag regarding the existence of elder abuse?
A. an unexpected change in physical health or appearance
B. a change in communication habits
C. suspicious discrepancies in accounts given by elders and their caregivers
D. All of these.
D. All of these.
Dr. Ronald Jay Cohen’s vignette about the Bellevue outpatient who took prescription
medication during a therapy session was presented as a cautionary tale regarding
A. suicide.
B. homicide.
C. drug abuse.
D. patient insight.
A. suicide.
Which is true about the vignette Dr. Ronald Jay Cohen presented about the Bellevue
outpatient who took prescription medication during a therapy session?
A. Dr. Cohen turned out to be right in the end.
B. the supervisor turned out to be right in the end.
C. the patient turned out to be right in the end.
D. the patient’s wife turned out to be right in the end.
B. the supervisor turned out to be right in the end.
According to statistics cited from the World Health Organization, approximately ______
people, worldwide, die annually from suicide.
A. 200,000
B. 400,000
C. 800,000
D. 1,600,000
C. 800,000
Which of the following is not a sign of possible suicidal intent on the part of a patient?
A. the patient talks about committing suicide.
B. the patient has a detailed plan for committing suicide.
C. the patient has attempted suicide in the past.
D. the patient’s family member committed suicide.
D. the patient’s family member committed suicide.
Interpretation of interview, test, or other suicidal assessment data by a clinician may
result
A. the signing of a “no suicide” agreement by the patient.
B. the initiation of therapy that is focused on reducing and eliminating the risk of suicide.
C. the immediate placement of the patient in an inpatient therapeutic facility.
D. All of these.
D. All of these.
An estimated _________ of military veterans and serving military personnel are expected
to experience posttraumatic stress injuries either immediately after, or even years after, their
deployment.
A. 12 to 20%
B. 6 to 11%
C. 18 to 24%
D. 9 to 18%
A. 12 to 20%
Novel diagnostic and therapeutic insights relevant to post-traumatic stress disorder in
returning vets may be obtained from the study of military
A. recruiting.
B. deployments.
C. culture.
D. groups.
C. culture.
Historically, training for military service entails a kind of re-socialization process wherein
traditional masculine gender norms of behavior are traded-in for what might be termed
A. “male warrior norms.”
B. “new Centurion norms.”
C. “hyper-masculine gender norms.”
D. “Spartan-reminiscent role norms.”
C. “hyper-masculine gender norms.”
According to the Close-Up in Chapter 13, veterans diagnosed with PTSD may see
themselves as going from ________ in fairly short order.
A. “hero to zero”
B. “zero to sixty”
C. “friend to foe”
D. “winner to loser”
A. “hero to zero”
Which is not a type of competency mentioned in the textbook? A. competency to consent to surgery B. competency to make a will C. competency to stand trial D. competency to choose homelessness
A. competency to consent to surgery
__________ is defined as “the capability of people to make reasonably sound decisions
regarding day-to-day money matters as well as more global aspects of their personal
finances.”
A. Monetary competency
B. Real world competency
C. Financial competency
D. Wealth management competency
C. Financial competency
Working in the country of \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_, Liliana Sousa and her colleagues developed a measure of financial competency. A. Columbia B. Portugal C. Brazil D. Puerto Rico
B. Portugal
Many variables may be considered when conducting an examination of an individual’s
financial competency. Which is not a variable mentioned in the textbook?
A. the assessee’s pre-morbid functioning
B. the assessee’s past values and preferences
C. the complexity of the finance-related decisions that need to be made
D. the presence of legal challenges to the individual’s financial competency
D. the presence of legal challenges to the individual’s financial competency
A classic work by Cleckley profiled 15 psychopaths. Cleckley’s profiles have since been
re-evaluated by Crego and Widiger (2016) in an effort to
A. formulate an updated model of psychopathy.
B. disprove Cleckley’s basic thesis regarding psychopathy.
C. redefine psychopathy in a culturally competent way.
D. contrast Cleckley’s work with that of contemporary researchers in the field of criminal
justice.
A. formulate an updated model of psychopathy.
According to Dr. Stephen Finn’s description of how tools of assessment are selected for
use in the process of therapeutic assessment,
A. clients are tested on a standard battery first and then decisions are made.
B. the tools of assessment are selected after an initial session with clients.
C. the selection of tests is made in consultation with the therapist of the clients.
D. only specially developed Center for Therapeutic Assessment tests are used.
B. the tools of assessment are selected after an initial session with clients.
Dr. Stephen Finn characterized psychological tests as “empathy magnifiers,” meaning
that
A. test enlarge the “world of psychology” for clients.
B. test data place clients’ focus on bigger problems.
C. test data can make “molehills out of mountains.”
D. tests allow evaluators to “get into their clients’ shoes.”
D. tests allow evaluators to “get into their clients’ shoes.”
Dr. Stephen Finn characterized psychological tests as “empathy magnifiers,” meaning
that
A. test enlarge the “world of psychology” for clients.
B. test data place clients’ focus on bigger problems.
C. test data can make “molehills out of mountains.”
D. tests allow evaluators to “get into their clients’ shoes.”
D. tests allow evaluators to “get into their clients’ shoes.”
In the Chapter 13 Meet an Assessment Professional, Dr. Stephen Finn characterized clients as A. "co-experimenters." B. "co-therapists." C. "co-assessment professionals." D. All of these
A. “co-experimenters.”
In the Chapter 13 Meet an Assessment Professional, Dr. Stephen Finn cited different tools
used in therapeutic assessment including “performance-based personality tests” such as
A. the MMPI.
B. situational stress tests.
C. the Rorschach.
D. All of these
C. the Rorschach.
In the Chapter 13 Meet an Assessment Professional, Dr. Stephen Finn described how tools
of assessment are selected for use in the process of therapeutic assessment. He said that
A. clients are tested on a standard battery first and then decisions are made.
B. the tools of assessment are selected after an initial session with clients.
C. the selection of tests is made in consultation with the therapist of the clients.
D. tests and procedures specially developed by the Center for Therapeutic Assessment tests
are used.
B. the tools of assessment are selected after an initial session with clients.
According to Dr. Stephen Finn, therapeutic assessment typically ends
A. with the termination of the client from therapy.
B. when the client has achieved a “modicum of insight.”
C. with a discussion of test scores and “next steps.”
D. when the client can no longer afford it.
C. with a discussion of test scores and “next steps.”
Tools of assessment used by profilers include
A. tests.
B. the interview.
C. the case study.
D. Both the interview and the case study.
D. Both the interview and the case study.
Most of the highly publicized crimes for which profilers have been employed have been
solved
A. with the aid of forensic psychologists as profilers.
B. by persons from a law enforcement background.
C. as the result of a perpetrator “slip-up.”
D. as the result of the FBI “Top 10 Most Wanted” List.
B. by persons from a law enforcement background.
The psychiatrist and philosopher Karl Jaspers wrote that “there is no sharp line to be
drawn between different types, nor between what is healthy and what is not.” This quote was
a reference to a potential problem with
A. a dimensional approach to personality disorder.
B. overlapping criteria for the diagnosis of schizophrenia.
C. a proposed Personality Disorder Trait Specified diagnosis.
D. a categorical approach to personality disorder.
D. a categorical approach to personality disorder.
An interview procedure similar to a hypnotic interview but without the hypnotic induction is A. the mental status examination. B. the stress interview. C. the cognitive interview. D. None of these
C. the cognitive interview.
An interview technique that is similar to the hypnotic interview entails A. focused meditation. B. collaborative evaluation. C. insightful recollection. D. None of these
A. focused meditation.
As discussed in Chapter 13 of your text, case history data was used to support the view
that
A. a rhesus monkey is capable of experiencing anxiety disorder and depression.
B. racial intolerance can lead to a number of debilitating psychosomatic conditions.
C. exposure to Christian Science predisposed one patient to an obsessive disorder.
D. All of these
C. exposure to Christian Science predisposed one patient to an obsessive disorder.
The most widely used test to measure the severity of depression is A. the MMPI. B. the BDI-II. C. the MCMI-III. D. the SADS.
B. the BDI-II.
The MAC was a scale derived from the MMPI that was constructed to aid in
differentiating
A. appetite-disordered from non-appetite disordered patients.
B. marijuana-abusing from non-marijuana-abusing patients.
C. alcoholic from non-alcoholic patients.
D. so-called “foodies” from “fast foodies.”
C. alcoholic from non-alcoholic patients.
The legal term mens rea refers to one's A. "lack of awareness." B. "clean slate." C. "pureness of motives." D. "guilty mind."
D. “guilty mind.”
Competence to stand trial has largely to do with understanding the charges against the
defendant and being able to assist in one’s own defense. The “understand and assist”
requirement is an extension of the constitutional prohibition against trial
A. a posteriori.
B. nolo contendere.
C. in absentia.
D. mens rea.
C. in absentia.
Many measures may be used to evaluate competency to stand trial. Which of the following is NOT such a measure? A. the RCRAS B. the ECST-R C. the MacCAT-CA D. the FIT
A. the RCRAS
What is commonly referred to as profiling is referred to by the FBI as A. criminal psychological analysis. B. criminal psychoanalysis. C. criminal investigative analysis. D. investigative psychological analysis.
C. criminal investigative analysis.
At the core of profiling is the assumption that perpetrators of serial crimes leave at their crime scenes A. physical evidence. B. psychological evidence. C. philosophical evidence. D. business cards.
B. psychological evidence.
A type of interview in which the interviewee is given wide latitude to interact with the interviewer is called a A. hypnotic interview. B. elaborative interview. C. structured interview. D. collaborative interview.
D. collaborative interview.
Biopsychosocial assessment was likened by your textbook authors to
A. the great paradigm shift in disability research.
B. being the prized “Snagglepuss” pokemon in Pokemon GO.
C. closing the barn door after the cows have left.
D. broadcasting in widescreen.
D. broadcasting in widescreen.
Who is the person credited with having coined the term Barnum effect? A. Tallent B. Patterson C. P. T. Barnum himself D. Meehl
B. Patterson
The biopsychosocial approach to assessment could BEST be described as A. multicultural. B. multidisciplinary. C. psychoanalytic. D. All of these
B. multidisciplinary.
A culturally sensitive psychological assessment includes sensitivity to A. acculturation and language. B. values and worldview. C. personal identity. D. All of these
D. All of these
Culturally sensitive psychological assessment
A. includes differential diagnosis with attention to cultural issues.
B. includes consideration of cultural issues when evaluating suicidal potential.
C. includes differential diagnosis with attention to cultural issues and includes consideration
of cultural issues when evaluating suicidal potential.
D. None of these
C. includes differential diagnosis with attention to cultural issues and includes consideration
A mental status examination may be administered to
A. screen for intellectual, emotional, and neurological deficits.
B. assess thought content and thought processes.
C. assess whether an individual is oriented “times three.”
D. All of these
D. All of these
Which of the following would NOT typically be assessed in a routine mental status
examination?
A. short-term memory
B. memory for one’s own name
C. memory for who is currently serving as President of the United States
D. All of these would typically be assessed.
D. All of these would typically be assessed.
The current version of the DSM is a diagnostic system that is used by psychologists and other mental health professionals A. to diagnose patients. B. for insurance reimbursement purposes. C. for research purposes. D. All of these
D. All of these
The outcome of the debate on what constitutes a disorder is important because it will influence A. research. B. treatment. C. public policy. D. All of these
D. All of these
A case history
A. is not appropriate for children under age 8.
B. may be found in hospital records.
C. is more important in clinical than counseling psychology.
D. is rarely utilized by behavioral psychologists.
B. may be found in hospital records.
Which measures are typically included as part of a standard battery?
A. measures of intelligence and personality
B. measures of intelligence, personality, and neurological intactness
C. measures of intelligence, personality, neurological intactness, and case history data
D. a measure of intelligence, a measure of neurological intactness, and the Mooney Problem
Checklist
B. measures of intelligence, personality, and neurological intactness
A problem with self-report measures of depression, such as the Beck Depression
Inventory, is that
A. testtakers can fake depression or fake the absence of depression.
B. they are highly unreliable and based solely on what happened to the testtaker during the
previous day or so.
C. they do not gauge the severity of depression, only its presence or absence.
D. the theory on which they are based has been shown to be severely flawed.
A. testtakers can fake depression or fake the absence of depression.
Forensic psychological assessment entails evaluation in matters involving
A. whether a parent should retain custody of a child.
B. whether an individual is competent to stand trial.
C. whether an individual is guilty by reason of insanity.
D. All of these
D. All of these
Forensic psychology is different from clinical psychology because in forensic
psychology:
A. the clinician’s client may not be the assessee.
B. when the assessee is in an adversarial relationship with the assessor, the assessee may not
be truthful.
C. the clinician may be called on to offer recommendations that run counter to the stated
interests of the assessee.
D. All of these
D. All of these
An assessor determines that Farley is incompetent to stand trial. This means that Farley
A. is unable to understand the charges against him and is unable to assist in his defense.
B. is mentally retarded or psychotic.
C. may have been under the influence of alcohol or some controlled substance at the time the
alleged offense was committed.
D. All of these
A. is unable to understand the charges against him and is unable to assist in his defense.
Psychologists who are called on by the courts to render an opinion regarding a person’s
sanity must be prepared to
A. explain all the ramifications of the fact that “sanity” and “insanity” are psychological, and
not legal terms.
B. deal with all the ramifications of the fact that the determination of “sanity” and “insanity”
are ultimately left to a judge or a jury to decide.
C. be sued by the patient if their opinions regarding the sanity of the patient are at odds with
the determination of the court.
D. undergo an examination evaluating their own mental status prior to being admitted to the
courtroom.
B. deal with all the ramifications of the fact that the determination of “sanity” and “insanity”
are ultimately left to a judge or a jury to decide.
A convict’s readiness for parole or probation
A. can be predicted by the “Readiness for Parole Checklist.”
B. is determined solely on the basis of self-report testimony from the convict.
C. is a decision often made on the basis of Rorschach protocols.
D. None of these
D. None of these
“If a person is judged to be mentally retarded, psychotic, or suffering from a debilitating
neurological disorder, that person is automatically judged to be incompetent to stand trial.”
This statement is
A. true.
B. false.
C. true if two or more of the listed criteria are met.
D. true if the defendant was a minor at the time of the alleged offense.
B. false.
Which of the following tools of psychological assessment is MOST likely to be used in
order to evaluate a patient’s level of premorbid functioning?
A. role-play
B. behavioral observation
C. the case history
D. All of these
C. the case history
Computer-based test interpretation
A. is always actuarial in nature.
B. may be actuarial in nature.
C. has nothing to do with actuarial assessment.
D. is synonymous with mechanical prediction.
B. may be actuarial in nature.
A compromise between the two extreme positions in the clinical versus mechanical
prediction controversy has it that clinical information developed by clinicians be
A. put to optimal use by computers using decision rules.
B. reviewed and modified by other clinicians before submission for processing by computer.
C. checked by computer before submission to a panel of “second opinion” clinicians for
action.
D. sent to the main frame supercomputer at the National Institutes of Health for processing
using that organization’s own data base.
A. put to optimal use by computers using decision rules.
Which question might a mental health professional be MOST likely to be asked during the
course of a civil proceeding?
A. Is this individual competent to stand trial?
B. Was this individual sane at the time the crime was committed?
C. To what extent did this individual suffer emotional distress?
D. All of these
C. To what extent did this individual suffer emotional distress?
In determining parental custody
A. one impartial mental health professional is always used to assess both parents.
B. tests of intelligence or personality may be necessary in addition to interviews.
C. the child’s parental preference will not be taken into account by the court.
D. All of these
B. tests of intelligence or personality may be necessary in addition to interviews.
One problem in confirming a diagnosis of child abuse is that
A. no legal definition of this term exists.
B. signs of abuse may also be symptoms of other conditions.
C. definitions of this term vary from state to state.
D. professionals who wrongfully report abuse or neglect, even in good faith, are subject to
fines, imprisonment, or both.
B. signs of abuse may also be symptoms of other conditions.
Which tools of psychological assessment are used to assess child abuse and neglect? A. psychological tests B. interviews C. anatomically correct dolls D. All of these
D. All of these
The Barnum effect in psychological report writing refers to
A. very technical jargon that is too difficult for lay readers to understand.
B. conflicting statements about the assessee within the same report.
C. statements that are by their very nature tend to be prejudicial.
D. vague, general statements that could be applied to most people.
D. vague, general statements that could be applied to most people.
In the child custody evaluation conducted by your textbook’s author, the child expressed a
preference for
A. leaving Earth with E.T. and his father.
B. leaving Earth with E.T. and his mother.
C. leaving Earth with E.T. only.
D. not leaving Earth with any extra-terrestrial but staying at home with his parents.
B. leaving Earth with E.T. and his mother.
Which of the following statements from a hypothetical psychological report BEST
exemplifies the Barnum effect in report writing?
A. “Herb exhibits significant indicators of a specific learning disability in the visual channel
of learning.”
B. “At times, Betty’s unconscious hostile urges become evident in the form of expressed
anger.”
C. “Patty’s mild mental retardation indicates that she may need close supervision in a job
setting.”
D. “Tom reports frequent auditory hallucinations commanding him to take out the garbage.”
B. “At times, Betty’s unconscious hostile urges become evident in the form of expressed
anger.”
Which of the following tools of assessment is MOST frequently used by clinicians in their daily work? A. an interview B. a rating scale C. a picture-story projective test D. reports from others
A. an interview
A physical examination is to a physician as a \_\_\_\_\_\_\_ is to a clinician. A. psychological examination B. neuropsychological examination C. mental status examination D. differential diagnosis
C. mental status examination
A clinician's note that a person is "oriented × 3." This means that the person is oriented to A. person, place, and thing. B. person, place, and time. C. who, what, and where. D. when, where, and how.
B. person, place, and time.
A stress interview is most similar in nature to
A. an analogue study.
B. a mental status examination.
C. a structured interview.
D. watching back-to-back episodes of Dancing with the Stars.
A. an analogue study.
According to your textbook, who was known for encouraging the use of a test battery
rather than the use of a single psychological test?
A. Thurstone
B. Thorndike
C. Exner
D. Rapaport
D. Rapaport
A group of personality tests administered to a client is referred to as a A. personality test battery. B. personality mix. C. personality re-mix. D. specific battery.
A. personality test battery.
The most commonly used measure of depression is A. the MMPI-II. B. the Beck Depression Inventory. C. the Draw-A-Person. D. the Thematic Apperception Test (TAT).
B. the Beck Depression Inventory.
Amy is a teenager with a diagnosis of paranoid schizophrenia. She understands that she is
being charged with assaulting her parents, and she is able to assist her attorney in her defense.
Amy will MOST probably be found by the court
A. competent to stand trial.
B. incompetent to stand trial.
C. competent but not mentally able to stand trial.
D. competent but not physically able to stand trial.
A. competent to stand trial.
A psychotic individual who has broken the law and has been apprehended would MOST
likely be
A. found competent to stand trial.
B. screened to determine if she or he meets the “understand and assist” requirement.
C. found not guilty by reason of insanity regardless of the specific facts of the case.
D. found guilty but insane under Rule Number 76015 of the Federal Rules of Evidence.
B. screened to determine if she or he meets the “understand and assist” requirement.
Research on the Psychopathy Checklist suggests that it is useful in
A. predicting crimes committed by inmates.
B. identifying a psychotic disorder.
C. identifying criminal recidivists.
D. predicting violence within prisons.
C. identifying criminal recidivists.
A person with few inhibitions and little regard for others is MOST likely to be found to be A. a recidivist. B. a psychopath. C. severely depressed. D. a dentist.
B. a psychopath.
It is important for clinicians who conduct child custody evaluations to understand that
A. there may be many reasons for a custody battle, some not involving the child.
B. the parents’ intentions are always in the best interest of the child.
C. both parents desperately want custody of the child.
D. All of these
A. there may be many reasons for a custody battle, some not involving the child.
The definition of the term child abuse
A. was developed by the federal government.
B. varies from state to state.
C. requires the direct observation of abusive behavior by a professional.
D. does not include sexual offenses against the child.
B. varies from state to state.
Under law, the failure to provide a child with adequate food and shelter is considered A. abuse. B. neglect. C. malnourishment. D. abandonment.
B. neglect.
Which of the following physical signs are MOST suggestive of child abuse? A. crying. B. a bruise on the knee. C. poor hygiene. D. grab marks.
D. grab marks.
If a psychologist strongly suspects that a child has been abused or neglected, the
psychologist
A. is required to tell the parents.
B. is mandated by law to report the suspected abuse to authorities.
C. must discuss the suspected abuse with colleagues before taking any further action.
D. must contact the American Psychological Association’s Office of Child Abuse.
B. is mandated by law to report the suspected abuse to authorities.
The Parenting Stress Index is MOST appropriately used as A. evidence in court. B. a predictor of child abuse. C. a tool of prevention. D. a diagnostic instrument.
C. a tool of prevention.
A psychological report is BEST written with
A. the diagnosis in mind.
B. the goal of the assessment in mind.
C. the tools of assessment that were employed at hand.
D. the best interest of the referral source in mind.
B. the goal of the assessment in mind.
When it comes to the matter of writing a psychological report
A. there exists no one acceptable style or form.
B. most contain a section describing the credentials of the examiner.
C. a detailed, physical description of the testtaker is typically presented in the
Recommendations section of the report.
D. All of these
A. there exists no one acceptable style or form.
Which is MOST likely to engender a Barnum-like effect in its reader?
A. the headlines of a tabloid newspaper
B. a crossword puzzle in a book of puzzles
C. a birthday card on the rack of a store
D. a horoscope published in a newspaper
D. a horoscope published in a newspaper
The Parenting Stress Index (PSI) was designed to measure
A. risk for child abuse.
B. difficulties in parenting resulting from particular parenting styles.
C. parent competency to testify in court.
D. how well a parent is doing from the perspective of a child or adolescent.
A. risk for child abuse.
Data from the Child Abuse Potential Inventory (CAP) is MOST likely to be used
A. by police when responding to domestic disputes.
B. to provide evidence of child abuse in a court of law.
C. to compel abusive parents to take a risk-reduction class.
D. to prioritize families for social services.
D. to prioritize families for social services.
Making diagnostic criteria specific and listing specific areas to be addressed in an
interview are ways of ____ the Barnum effect in the resulting psychological report.
A. decreasing
B. increasing
C. maximizing
D. eliminating
A. decreasing
One way in which the description of disorders has changed in successive editions of the
Diagnostic and Statistical Manual of Mental Disorders (DSM) is that greater relationship to
________ is in evidence with regard to the descriptions of the various disorders.
A. psychoanalytic theory
B. behavioral measures
C. cognitive-behavioral measures
D. None of these
D. None of these
Dr. Marks wishes to conduct a research study that has to do with the private lives and
thoughts of substance abusers. Which ethical issue is MOST relevant for Dr. Marks to keep in
mind?
A. the issue of “First, do no harm”
B. the issue of informed consent
C. the issue of right to treatment
D. the issue of cultural sensitivity
B. the issue of informed consent
An experiment is conducted wherein college student subjects play the role of party-goers
who are thinking aloud as they are being asked to participate in illicit drug use. What tool of
assessment is being used?
A. case study
B. behavioral analogue
C. the MAC-R
D. drug paraphernalia
B. behavioral analogue
Which of the following tools of assessment is MOST likely to be administered to a new
civilian employees of the United States Department of Defense?
A. the Rorschach
B. the MMPI-2-RF
C. the Addiction Potential Scale
D. a urine test for drugs
D. a urine test for drugs
Which of the following is MOST typically used early in independent practice settings to help devise a therapeutic contract? A. behavioral observation B. case history data C. an interview D. an attorney
C. an interview
Of the following tests, which one is the MOST commonly used in evaluating substance abuse? A. MacAndrew Alcohol Scale-Revised B. The Addiction Potential Scale C. Addiction Severity Index D. Addiction Acknowledgment Scale
C. Addiction Severity Index
One difference between the MacAndrew Alcohol Scale-Revised (MAC-R) and The
Addiction Acknowledgment Scale (AAS) is that the
A. AAS requires hand-scoring by the examiner, the MAC-R does not.
B. MAC-R was validated with college students, the AAS was not.
C. AAS has more face validity than the MAC-R.
D. MAC-R is a self-report measure and the AAS is not.
C. AAS has more face validity than the MAC-R.
Compared with clinical psychologists, counseling psychologists are more likely to be
A. practicing in independent practice.
B. concerned with more forms of psychopathology.
C. involved in providing vocational guidance.
D. users of the MMPI-2-RF.
C. involved in providing vocational guidance.
Which of the following is generally TRUE regarding the similarities and differences
between the specialties of clinical and counseling psychology?
A. Clinical psychologists tend to be more involved in consumer issues.
B. Counseling psychologists tend to be more involved in psychoanalysis.
C. Clinical psychologists are more involved with career and vocational assessment.
D. More similarities than differences exist between the two specialties.
D. More similarities than differences exist between the two specialties.
Which of the following is TRUE of the cognitive interview?
A. It is typically used for the assessment of mental retardation.
B. It is a viable alternative to a hypnotic interview.
C. It tends to include more closed than open-ended questions.
D. It has been found to have application in the evaluation and treatment of sleep disorders.
B. It is a viable alternative to a hypnotic interview.
The Beck Depression Inventory-II measures testtakers' feelings over what period of time? A. 1 week B. 2 weeks C. 3 weeks D. the last month
B. 2 weeks
Which of the following is the BEST predictor of violence on the part of an assessee?
A. the assessee reports having written a threatening letter to someone.
B. the assessee’s case history is replete with acts of violence.
C. the assessee contemplates the commission of a violent act aloud.
D. the assessee agrees to appear as a guest on an episode of Jerry Springer that deals with a
love triangle.
B. the assessee’s case history is replete with acts of violence.
Instruments used to screen for depression are
A. routinely administered to prospective contestants on Match Game.
B. valuable only in detecting manic-depressive disorder.
C. exclusively validated on introductory psychology students.
D. None of these
D. None of these
Which type of interview is MOST likely to be used in a criminal investigation? A. stress interview B. cognitive interview C. nonverbal interview D. good cop/bad cop interview
B. cognitive interview
Which of the following tools is MOST useful in identifying factors related to an
individual’s potential for violence against public official?
A. objective personality tests
B. projective personality tests
C. the case study
D. analysis of dreams
C. the case study
In which type of interview would the interviewee most likely be encouraged to shift his
or her perspective and describe events from the viewpoint of the person who committed a
crime?
A. stress
B. mental status
C. hypnotic
D. cognitive
D. cognitive
Why might a clinician interview a culturally different client about cultural aspects of his
or her life?
A. to develop hypotheses about the intelligence and personality of the interviewee
B. to distinguish psychopathological behavior from that which is more typical of the culture
of the interviewee
C. to differentiate between what constitutes psychopathology in the majority culture from
what constitutes psychopathology in the client’s culture
D. to sample new foods
B. to distinguish psychopathological behavior from that which is more typical of the culture
of the interviewee
Compared to an unstructured interview, a structured interview
A. has questions that are all prepared in advance.
B. involves interviewers asking questions in areas that they believe are important.
C. tends not to be useful as a pre-or post-measures of outcome.
D. is the method of choice for homicide investigators.
A. has questions that are all prepared in advance.
The Schedule for Affective Disorders and Schizophrenia is an example of A. an unstructured clinical interview. B. a structured clinical interview. C. a projective test. D. an objective personality test.
B. a structured clinical interview.
Which of the following is the most common reason for psychiatric hospitalization? A. anxiety B. depression C. attention deficit disorder D. schizophrenia
B. depression
In an evaluation to determine dangerousness, information pertinent to \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_ is typically gathered. A. the availability of a weapon B. the type of weapon to be used C. the specificity of the plan D. All of these
D. All of these
If a psychologist determines that a client is a danger to others, that psychologist has a
legal obligation to
A. share this information with a colleague before taking any action.
B. seek a legal opinion from an attorney.
C. warn the person who is in danger.
D. keep the information privileged.
C. warn the person who is in danger.
It is recommended that the BDI-II be used with other tests such as the MMPI-2-RF
because
A. the BDI-II items are now dated and the MMPI-2-RF was published in 2008.
B. the poor discriminant validity of the BDI-II makes use with another scale advisable.
C. the BDI-II items are easily faked and there are no validity scales on the test.
D. the BDI-II items lack cultural sensitivity.
C. the BDI-II items are easily faked and there are no validity scales on the test.
Which of the following is TRUE of the use of the MMPI-2 with Chicano clients?
A. The MMPI-2 is as culturally sensitive as the MMPI.
B. The MMPI-2 overpathologizes Chicano clients.
C. Conflicting evidence exists regarding whether the MMPI-2 is culturally sensitive or
overpathologizes Chicano clients.
D. The MMPI-2 was shown to be more culturally sensitive than the MMPI-2-RF.
C. Conflicting evidence exists regarding whether the MMPI-2 is culturally sensitive or
overpathologizes Chicano clients.
According to your textbook, which is TRUE of cultural competence?
A. The term refers to developing tests that reflect particular values.
B. The term refers to knowledge of a particular culture through academic study, life
experience, or both.
C. The textbook authors recommend it not only for psychologists but many other groups such
as sales people.
D. All of these
B. The term refers to knowledge of a particular culture through academic study, life
experience, or both.
Caution is urged with the use of translators in assessment situations because
A. there is a shortage of translators who are truly “culturally competent.”
B. managed care and other third-party payers do not reimburse translation fees.
C. words do not always retain their original meaning in translation.
D. few translators are qualified to develop, administer, or interpret psychological tests.
C. words do not always retain their original meaning in translation.
A journal article entitled “Socially Reinforced Obsessing” was cited in Chapter 13 of
your textbook. That article is an account of how exposure to
A. an obsessive-compulsive parent can result in an obsessive-compulsive child.
B. an obsessive-compulsive teacher can result in an obsessive-compulsive child.
C. a particular religious ideology led to obsessive-compulsive behavior on the part of an
adult.
D. a socialist political orientation contributed to obsessive-compulsive symptomatology.
C. a particular religious ideology led to obsessive-compulsive behavior on the part of an
adult.
Which of the following would NOT be properly characterized as demographic data? A. religion B. occupation C. telephone number D. medical history
D. medical history
Which of the following is NOT a category listed in your textbook in the description of a mental status examination? A. sensorium B. socioeconomic status C. memory D. appearance
B. socioeconomic status
During the course of a mental status examination, the examiner asks the examinee,
“What is the meaning of the proverb, ‘A stitch in time saves nine?’” By doing this, the
examiner is MOST likely trying to assess the examinee’s
A. aptitude for a position as a tailor.
B. intellectual resources.
C. patience.
D. stress level.
B. intellectual resources.
During the course of a mental status examination, the examiner asks the examinee, “Do
you know why we are here and why I am interviewing you today?” By raising these
questions, the examiner is MOST likely trying to assess the examinee’s
A. verbal abilities.
B. intellectual resources.
C. insight.
D. orientation.
C. insight.
Which of the following is NOT case history data? A. hospital records B. school records C. a letter from current employer D. All of these are case history data
D. All of these are case history data
When it comes to child custody, the courts have recognized that the best interest of the
child is typically best served by awarding custody to
A. the mother.
B. the father.
C. the mother or the father.
D. Angelina Jolie.
C. the mother or the father.
A controversial issue with regard to profiling is whether or not
A. profiling should be done by psychologists or criminologists.
B. profiling is indeed a profession or an “ill-formed forensic discipline.”
C. profiling has a sound theoretical and methodological base.
D. All of these
D. All of these
Which of the following is the BEST example of a factual item from the Georgetown
Criteria for Competency to Stand Trial?
A. the defendant’s ability to identify and locate witnesses
B. the defendant’s ability to make decisions after advice
C. the defendant’s ability to tolerate stress while awaiting trial or at the trial
D. the defendant’s ability to refrain from irrational behavior during trial
A. the defendant’s ability to identify and locate witnesses
The FBI refers to it as criminal investigative analysis but most other people would know it as A. forensic assessment. B. legal evaluation. C. examining. D. profiling.
D. profiling.
According to your textbook, a key assumption in criminal profiling is that perpetrators of
serial crimes
A. can be identified from profiles gathered on the Psychopathy Checklist.
B. can be identified by psychologists.
C. leave more than physical evidence at a crime scene.
D. are unable to control themselves from repeat offenses.
C. leave more than physical evidence at a crime scene.
Hypotheses typically made by profilers regarding crime scene evidence usually relates to the perpetrators' A. organizational skills. B. planning ability. C. degree of risk. D. All of these
D. All of these
According to Dr. Eric Kramer, in an outpatient setting, the person coming for an evaluation
of dementia typically
A. is accompanied by a significant other or caregiver.
B. complains of forgetfulness.
C. has word-finding difficulties.
D. All of these.
D. All of these.
According to Dr. Eric Kramer, a neurologist’s in-office evaluation for dementia will
typically begin with observation and an interview question like,
A. “What is your name?”.
B. “Who referred you to this office?”.
C. “Where are you right now?”.
D. “Why are you seeking help at this time?”.
D. “Why are you seeking help at this time?”.
According to Dr. Eric Kramer, it is during the initial interview that
A. the patient’s ability to comprehend communication and to express thought is assessed.
B. tests such as the trail-making test are administered.
C. the social skills of the caregiver are informally evaluated.
D. All of these
A. the patient’s ability to comprehend communication and to express thought is assessed.
According to Dr. Eric Kramer, red flags for the presence of dementia include
A. receipt of a number of late payment notices.
B. a recent accident or incident while driving—uncharacteristic of the patient in the past.
C. a sudden feeling of being lost in an otherwise familiar locale while driving or being driven.
D. All of these
D. All of these
Which test was specifically cited by Dr. Eric Kramer as one typically administered in an inoffice evaluation for dementia? A. the UCLA Memory Test B. the Montreal Cognitive Assessment C. the Mini-Mental-Status-Examination D. All of these
C. the Mini-Mental-Status-Examination
According to Dr. Eric Kramer, when evaluating a patient for dementia, prior behavioral and
medical records as compared to more current information may be particularly useful in
identifying a potentially reversible cause of the observed cognitive dysfunction. Here, the
category of “reversible causes” includes pathology related to
A. metabolic disturbances.
B. inflammatory conditions.
C. infectious conditions.
D. All of these
D. All of these
According to Dr. Eric Kramer, when evaluating a patient for dementia, the possibility of the
existence of dementia-like symptoms must be ruled out. One such test for that purpose
measures
A. the amount of kale one has consumed.
B. the number of steps one has taken.
C. the amount of Vitamin B-12 in the body.
D. the amount of free uric acid in the bloodstream.
C. the amount of Vitamin B-12 in the body.
According to Dr. Eric Kramer, the existence of dementia-like symptoms is a state called A. pseudo-dementia B. petite-folie C. memory-lapsis D. None of these
A. pseudo-dementia
According to Dr. Eric Kramer, when evaluating a patient for dementia, it may be useful to
determine if the patient has a prior history of
A. a gluten-free diet.
B. a syphillitic infection.
C. obsessive-compulsive disorder.
D. playing Pokemon Go.
B. a syphillitic infection.
According to Dr. Eric Kramer, when evaluating a patient for dementia,
neuropsychological assessment has value in differentially diagnosing dementia of the
A. Alzheimer’s type.
B. vascular type.
C. frontotemporal type.
D. All of these
D. All of these
According to Dr. Eric Kramer, when evaluating a patient for dementia, the neurologist
may order technologically sophisticated medical tests to provide information critical to
making a differential diagnosis. In this context, Dr. Kramer made reference to a relatively new
procedure that
A. attempts to identify a particular protein accruing in the blood vessels and nerve cells.
B. provides an image of the plaque and tangles thought to be causal in dementia.
C. yields a working map of the thyroid gland and its possible contribution to dementia-like
symptoms.
D. scans for the amount of dopamine the brain has available for its use.
A. attempts to identify a particular protein accruing in the blood vessels and nerve cells.
According to Dr. Eric Kramer, when evaluating a patient for dementia, a neurologist may
order both an EEG and an MRI for the patient so that
A. the neurologist has data from both a static structural and dynamic functional evaluation.
B. the neurologist can compare brain pathology images at different critical points in time.
C. the neurologist can better evaluate the extent of current damage that has been done.
D. the neurologist’s billing department is satisfied that every possible test that can be ordered
has been ordered.
A. the neurologist has data from both a static structural and dynamic functional evaluation.
According to Dr. Eric Kramer, a particular protein deposit in the blood vessels or the
nerve cells that may act as a marker for senile dementia of the Alzheimer’s type is called
A. a suetoxin.
B. an edithalid.
C. a jentinen.
D. an amyloid.
D. an amyloid.
According to Dr. Eric Kramer, a diagnosis of dementia, or senile dementia Alzheimer’s
type, is made
A. on the basis of three or more instance of forgetting in a week.
B. if senile dementia or Alzheimer’s type markers are present in urine specimens.
C. using various psychological and biological tools of assessment.
D. All of these
C. using various psychological and biological tools of assessment.
The largest referral source for neuropsychologists is A. psychologists. B. neurologists. C. pediatricians. D. attorneys.
B. neurologists.
________ is an example of a neurological condition that is most typically diagnosed on
the basis of presenting signs and symptoms rather than any formal test.
A. Diabetic neuropathy
B. Brain tumor
C. Microcephaly
D. Parkinson’s disease
D. Parkinson’s disease
It is second only to dementia as the most common neurological disorder in the world. A. ALS B. Multiple sclerosis C. Microcephaly D. Parkinson's disease
D. Parkinson’s disease
Being able to call for help and supply first responders with emergency-relevant
information is referred to in the text as an
A. executive function.
B. emergency capability.
C. urgent capacity.
D. ability to multi-task.
A. executive function.
A performance-based test which is abbreviated as the ______ is used to help in the
assessment of one’s capacity for independent living.
A. AAFR
B. SOS-1
C. TEFE
D. 911-FR
C. TEFE
A second edition of the Bender-Gestalt was published \_\_\_\_ years after the original. A. 8 B. 13 C. 18 D. 65
D. 65
Larrabee (2015) described a valid flexible battery that required about ____ hours of
administration time including administration time for the MMPI-2.
A. 5
B. 7
C. 9
D. 11
A. 5
Of the following, who is considered the "founding father of neuropsychology"? A. L. L. Thurstone B. Ralph Reitan C. Ward Halstead D. Mehmet Oz
B. Ralph Reitan
Ralph Reitan shied away from writing textbooks because he felt that
A. students had no basis of comparing his “readable” writing from other, difficult-to-getthrough
books.
B. his writing style was better suited to publication in scholarly journals.
C. he could do more good by personally presenting at scientific meetings.
D. writing textbooks should be reserved for the end of one’s career.
D. writing textbooks should be reserved for the end of one’s career.
Parkinson's disease is a neurological disorder characterized by A. tremors. B. slowness of movement. C. problems with balance. D. All of these.
D. All of these.
Non-motor symptoms typically associated with Parkinson's disease include A. depression. B. indigestion. C. compulsions. D. All of these.
A. depression.
In 1817, a British physician named \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_ authored a journal article entitled "An Essay on the Shaking Palsy." A. James Parkinson B. William Constable C. Cecil Parkinson D. Samuel Goldwyn
A. James Parkinson
Parkinson's disease was first referred to as such by A. Mesmer. B. Charcot. C. Rush. D. None of these.
B. Charcot.
Parkinson's disease results from cell loss in an area of the brain called the A. cingulate gyrus. B. superior colliculous. C. substantia nigra. D. None of these
C. substantia nigra.
Parkinson's disease results from a deficiency in the brain of A. glutamate. B. dopamine. C. acetylcholine. D. serotonin.
B. dopamine.
Legendary boxers like Muhammed Ali are thought to have contracted a form of
Parkinson’s disease called _________ as a result of repeated head trauma.
A. pugilistic Parkinson’s
B. traumatic Parkinson’s
C. concussive Parkinson’s
D. Rocky Parkinson’s
A. pugilistic Parkinson’s
Initially, Parkinson’s disease may present as a
A. puzzling loss of perceptual-motor ability.
B. subtle loss of ability to focus attention.
C. clear problem in standing from a sitting position.
D. barely noticeable tremor in the finger.
D. barely noticeable tremor in the finger.
The most common variety of Parkinson’s disease is called idiopathic Parkinson’s disease.
Here, the adjective idiopathic may best be defined as
A. familial.
B. unpredictable.
C. of non-genetic origin.
D. of unknown origin.
D. of unknown origin.
As Parkinson’s Disease progresses, patients typically complain of
A. unwanted nerve sensations.
B. loss of normal arm swing when walking.
C. difficulties associated with balance.
D. All of these.
D. All of these.
Possible problems reported by Parkinson’s patients include
A. stiffness in the limbs or facial muscles.
B. issues with swallowing and salivation.
C. excessive, unexplained sweating.
D. All of these
D. All of these
Parkinson’s disease
A. may be cured through regular dopamine infusions.
B. may be cured through deep brain stimulation.
C. both may be cured through regular dopamine infusions and may be cured through deep
brain stimulation.
D. None of these.
D. None of these.
Many of the medications available to treat Parkinson’s Disease elicit their own problems,
such as dyskinesias. Dyskinesias are
A. slowness in standing from a seated position.
B. involuntary, jerking-type movements.
C. tremors spreading from one side of the body to the other.
D. muscular problems affecting the production of speech.
B. involuntary, jerking-type movements.
The elevation in certain chemicals that naturally occurs during exercise may
A. serve a protective function against dopamine depletion.
B. mimic the effects of certain anti-oxidants.
C. reduce depression in patients with Parkinson’s disease.
D. All of these.
A. serve a protective function against dopamine depletion.
A number of conditions can present like, and be misdiagnosed as Parkinson’s disease.
Which is NOT such a condition?
A. tremors induced by certain medications
B. serotonin deficiency syndrome
C. a neurological disorder called essential tremor
D. Lewy body dementia
B. serotonin deficiency syndrome
Psychologists who suspect that a patient may have undiagnosed Parkinson’s disease
should refer the patient for
A. a neurological battery to confirm the diagnosis.
B. a DaTscan to rule out the diagnosis.
C. an evaluation by a medical doctor.
D. an evaluation by a neurologist who specializes in movement disorders.
D. an evaluation by a neurologist who specializes in movement disorders.
A DaTscan entails the use of high-tech imaging equipment to gauge
A. whether or not a brain tumor has changed in size.
B. approximately how damaged the brain is by plaque.
C. the amount of dopamine that is present in the brain.
D. approximately how damaged the brain is by tangles.
C. the amount of dopamine that is present in the brain.
Which is true about Parkinson’s Disease?
A. There is no cure.
B. There is no way to slow its progression.
C. It is best treated by a team of multi-discipline professionals.
D. All of these
D. All of these
The dominant brain hemisphere takes the lead in all of the following EXCEPT A. spatial recognition. B. arithmetic calculations. C. writing. D. reading.
A. spatial recognition.
These brain lobes contain areas for visual reception: A. temporal lobes. B. occipital lobes. C. parietal lobes. D. frontal lobes.
B. occipital lobes.
These brain lobes contain areas for auditory reception: A. temporal lobes. B. occipital lobes. C. parietal lobes. D. frontal lobes.
A. temporal lobes.
This term refers to a deficit in writing ability: A. acopia. B. agnosia. C. agraphia. D. aphasia.
C. agraphia.
This term refers to a deficit in the sense of smell: A. amusia. B. anolfactoria. C. ataxia. D. anosmia.
D. anosmia.
Cranial nerve damage as evidenced by neuroimaging is
A. a hard sign of neurological deficit.
B. a soft sign of neurological deficit.
C. indicative of a verbal-performance discrepancy.
D. All of these
A. a hard sign of neurological deficit.
If you did not have a copy of the UPSIT and had to improvise, which of the following
would you be MOST LIKELY to employ in your evaluation of a patient?
A. water
B. a whisper
C. a wire hanger
D. perfume
D. perfume
At what age does a child typically reach the developmental milestone of being able to say "mama" and "da-da"? A. 6 months B. 9 months C. 12 months D. 18 months
C. 12 months
In 2010, the second edition of the MMSE was published. Which is TRUE of the MMSE-
2?
A. It was also published in a brief version.
B. It was also published in an expanded version.
C. It should be used for screening, not diagnosis.
D. All of these
D. All of these
The Romberg test is also referred to as the A. standing still test. B. nose-finger-nose test. C. finger wiggle test. D. walking-running-skipping test.
A. standing still test.
As reported by Dr. Jeanne Ryan in Chapter 14’s Meet an Assessment Professional feature,
every athlete in the public school system of New York State must have on file a baseline
neuropsychological assessment on file. Data from this assessment
A. is compiled for research on sports-related neurological injuries.
B. is used in the event that the athlete suffers a concussion.
C. has been helpful in designing treatment programs for athlete injuries.
D. All of these
B. is used in the event that the athlete suffers a concussion.
As used in Chapter 14, the term pattern analysis refers to
A. a tool for evaluating eye-to-brain visual perception ability.
B. a pattern of test responses indicative of neuropsychological deficit.
C. a neuropsychological tool of assessment that entails feeling textures.
D. None of these
B. a pattern of test responses indicative of neuropsychological deficit.
“It’s an ill wind that blows nobody good.” One would MOST likely find this proverb on a
neuropsychological test designed to measure
A. aptitude for meteorology.
B. episodic memory.
C. perceptual-motor ability.
D. the ability to abstract.
D. the ability to abstract.
MRI is to fMRI as
A. photo is to video.
B. wrist is to arm.
C. standard definition is to high definition.
D. two-dimensional is to three-dimensional.
A. photo is to video.
Which of the following is NOT a research question raised in an fMRI study cited in
Chapter 14 of your textbook?
A. How does traumatic brain injury impact the brain network that mediates memory?
B. How does depression moderate reward anticipation?
C. How does watching aggression on the tv show Cops affect the brain?
D. How does one’s favorite song activate brain circuitry?
C. How does watching aggression on the tv show Cops affect the brain?
According to your textbook, which of the following is BEST completed while the
individual is blindfolded?
A. the Seashore Test of Musical Talent
B. the Piers-Harris Children’s Self-Concept Scale
C. the Seguin-Goddard Formboard
D. getting dressed to attend the Grammy Awards
C. the Seguin-Goddard Formboard
According to your textbook, so-called "unconscious memory" is thought to be accessible only by means of A. hypnosis. B. meditation. C. indirect measures. D. direct measures.
C. indirect measures.
A test discussed in Chapter 14 of your textbook features a three-dimensional matrix. The
test was designed to evaluate nonverbal reasoning primarily through the testtaker’s
A. visual sense.
B. olfactory sense.
C. kinesthetic sense.
D. haptic sense.
D. haptic sense.
