Final Cards Flashcards

1
Q

Wrapping definition

A
  • application of non-adhesive cloth wrap or tensor
  • tensors provide excellent compression, but not support
  • focus on reducing by-products of inflammation, initially
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Taping definition

A
  • application of adhesive backed tape
  • provide support and compression
  • does not allow for underlying swelling
  • used in later stages of injury
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

KT tape

A
  • first developed in 1979
  • adopted by high performance athlete (athletes only represent about 15% of users)
  • requires training for application: costly
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

KT tape effects

A
  • lifts skin increasing space between epidermis and fascia - helps with lymph circulation and blood flow
  • relieves pain by releasing compression on nociceptors (sensory receptor for pain)
  • simulates neuroreceptors in skin and fascia stimulating proprioception
  • mechanical correction of underlying soft tissue (corrects positional errors)
  • increase ROM and improves muscle contraction
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Tensor (compression) key ideas

A
  • don’t impair circulation distal to site of compression
  • never wear to bed
  • overlap layers by 1/2
  • keep roll firmly wound and roll off bottom of tensor
  • begin distally and progress proximally
  • do not use excessive tension
  • test for circulation, no tingling or numbness
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

Cloth wrap key ideas

A
  • economical and reusable protection for an ankle that has not recently been sprained
  • it will not prevent all ankle sprains but may reduce severity of a sprain
  • allows practice of the heel lock (designed to lock the ankle bones of the sub-talar joint)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

Purpose of taping

A

1) support:
- supports ligaments and joint capsules of unstable joints
- limits excessive or abnormal movements
2) enhance:
- enhance proprioceptive feedback
3) support (injuries)
- support injuries to musculotendinous unit by compression and limiting movement

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

When to tape

A
  • injury prevention
  • acute injury management (only for support- when acute management do not use for return to play)
  • return to activity (after rehab)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

When not to tape

A
  • when further assessment is required
  • after an acute injury has occurred
  • functional disability/limited ROM
  • swelling
  • after cold application
  • pre-puberty (10-14 years of age)
  • for certain sports
  • if you are unsure/unfamiliar with athlete’s condition
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

General considerations of taping

A
  • familiarity with athletes condition
  • familiarity with severity of injury
  • familiarity with the stage of healing of the injury
  • understanding of the physical requirements of the sport/activity
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

Skin preparation when taping

A
  • hair should be shaved
  • Skin: clean, dry, free from oil, etc. covered irritation with a bandage before taping
  • underwrap should be used if skin is irritated by the tape
  • tufskin for better adhesion (avoid fingers and toes)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

Positioning of the athlete when taping

A
  • support structure to be tapes
  • should be comfortable
  • should pay attention and hold body part in an appropriate anatomical position
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

Positioning of taper during taping

A
  • should be comfortable
  • watch for excessive postural strain on back
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Common taping mistakes

A

Shadows, windows, wrinkles

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

How to avoid common taping mistakes

A
  • constant tension
  • overlap by 1/2
  • reapply if you mess up
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

Tape removal

A
  • use sharks/tape cutters and take care of skin and other delicate structures
  • cut tape on the medial side of the leg, posterior medial malleolus
  • apply counter pressure to protect skin
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

Three different tape strips

A

Anchors, functional tape strips, close off strips

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

Types of functional tape strips

A
  • figure 8s
  • heel locks
  • spicas
  • spirals
  • stirrups
  • fans
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

Describe the evaluation of an athletic injury

A
  • begins when the injury occurs
  • continues through the healing process
  • goes until injured area has been rehabilitated and athlete returns to activity
  • ongoing process
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

KEAP

A

Requirements of athletic injury assessment/evaluation
Knowledge
Experience
Acquired skill
Practice

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

When should you assess the injury? Why?

A
  • ASAP after occurrence
  • not assessing quickly could lead to misjudgement in referral mode
  • ongoing process
  • constant assessment and reevaluation
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

Where should you assess the injury?

A
  • ideally the location at which the injury occurred
  • depends on severity of injury
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

What should not be done during an on-field assessment?

A

Recovering clothing or equipment - this can be done off field when necessary to assess

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

In what circumstances should you not move the athlete?

A

If you suspect:
- head or neck injury
- fractured spine or long bone
- major joint dislocation
- if athlete is unwilling to move

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

Assessment considerations (4 points with specifications)

A

Personal assessment skills:
- be alert during athletic activity
- observe all athletes
- remain calm and use good judgement
Know the sport:
- fundamentals/ injury patters
Know your athletes:
- medical history and personalities
Experience

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

Assessment procedures

A

Primary survey
Secondary survey
Documentation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

What is included int he primary survey of an injury?

A

ABCs

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

What is included in a secondary survey?

A

HOPS

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

HOPS

A

History
Observation
Palpitation
Special tests

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

History on field vs off field

A

On field:
- mechanism of injury
- noises
- done this before?
- pain scale
Off field:
- detailed open ended questions
- listen to athlete explain the injury in exact detail
- good communication with the athlete is the key

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

Observations on vs off field

A

On field:
- quickly survey entire scene
- obvious fractures/dislocations
- swelling of exposed area
- bleeding
- deformity
- compare both sides
Off field:
- swelling
Redness
Discolouration
Look at athletes reactions to questions and palpitations

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

Palpitation on vs off field

A

On field:
- fracture/dislocation
- pain on palpitation, assist with localizing the injury
- feel swelling/temperature
Off field:
- fracture/hot spot
- Pain on palpitation
- crepitation: grating, grinding sensation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

Special tests on vs off field

A

On field:
- active ROM
- weight bearing
Off field:
- functional tests: active/passive/resistive ROM
- specific stress tests evaluating joint stability
- bilateral comparison

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

Active ROM

A

Athlete initiates movement through as much range as possible

Tests: strength of surrounding
- contractile structures (muscle/tendon)
- inert structures (bone/ligament)

  • ROM of joint
  • athletes willingness to move
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

Passive ROM

A

Examiner moves the joint through entire ROM (athlete is relaxed)
- go until “end feel” is reached
- do not force the joint if athlete is unwilling to move due to pain or spasm

Tests:
- inert (bone/ligament)
- severity of structure injured

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

Resistive ROM

A

Examiner provides resistance
(Counter-pressure) against a joint and the athlete attempts to move

Tests:
- contractile structures: strength/weakness of joint contraction with or without pain

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

Testing sequence

A

1) always perform active testing first
2) if athlete is unwilling to move or feels pain on active movement then do not perform passive an resisted

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

Special testing: stress testing

A
  • stress testing is used to test joint integrity
  • examiner determines which tests will assess the condition most effectively
  • only those test that are deemed to be absolutely necessary should be performed
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

Referral

A
  • pain and muscle spasm can restrict motion and cause an inaccurate result
  • once HOPS is complete, make an assessment of injury severity and what you think the problem is (Not a diagnosis) and decide on your method of referral
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

Label the joints of the shoulder

A

A - acromioclavicular joint
B - sternoclavicular joint
C - gleno-humeral joint

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

Label the anatomy of the shoulder

A

A - humerus
B - tendon of biceps brachii
C - subacromial space
D - coracoacromial ligament
E - acromion process
F - superior acromioclavicular ligament
G - coracoclavicular ligament
H - clavicle
I - costoclavicular ligament
J - anterior sternoclavicular ligament
K - interclavicular ligament
L - articular disk
M - manubrium of sternum
N - Coracold process
O - scapula

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

Label the structures within the glenohumeral joint

A

A - acromion process
B - Coracoid process
C - articular capsul
D - glenohumeral ligaments
E - glenoid labrum
F - glenoid cavity
G - tendon of subscapularis
H - long head of biceps brachii

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

Label the structures of the glenohumeral joint

A

A - coracohumeral ligament
B - anatomical neck
C - greater tubercle
D - lesser tubercle
E - humerus
F - bicep brachii
G - scapula
H - glenohumeral ligaments
I - coracoid process
J - acromion process

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

Label the yellow nerve

A

Brachial plexus axillary nerve

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

Label the purple

A

Subdeltoid bursa

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
46
Q

Label the muscles

A

A - subscapularis
B - teres major
C - latissimus dorsi

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
47
Q

Label the muscles

A

A - subclavius
B - pectoralis minor
C - pectoralis major (cut)
D - abdominal fibres
E - costal section
F - sternal section
G - pectoralis major and clavicular section
H - anterior deltoid

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
48
Q

Label the muscles

A

A - anterior deltoid
B - middle deltoid
C - posterior deltoid

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
49
Q

Label the muscles

A

A - trapezius
B - serratus posterior inferior
C - latissimus dorsi
D - teres major
E - rhomboid major
F - deltoid
G - rhomboid minor
H - levator scapulae

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
50
Q

Label the muscles

A

A - supraspinatus
B - infraspinatus
C - teres minor

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
51
Q

Label the muscles

A

A - serratus posterior superior
B - teres minor
C - levator scapulae
D - supraspinatus
E - infraspinatus
F - teres minor
G - teres major

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
52
Q

Label the muscles. What region of the body is this?

A

A - supraspinatus
B - teres minor
C - infraspinatus
D - subscapularis

Rotator cuff

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
53
Q

SITS

A

Rotator cuff muscles:
Supraspinatus
Infraspinatus
Teres minor
Subscapularis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
54
Q

What are the rotator cuff muscles responsible for?

A

Supraspinatus = abduction
Infraspinatus = external rotation
Teres minor = external rotation
Subscapularis = internal rotation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
55
Q

Movements of the shoulder

A

Flexion/extension
Abduction/adduction
Horizontal abduction/adduction
Internal/external rotation
Circumduction

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
56
Q

Active ROM ranges (degrees) in shoulder

A

Flexion = 0 -180
Extension = 0 - 60
Abduction = 0 - 180
Adduction = 0 - 50 - 70
Horizontal abd/adduction = 0 - 130
Internal rotation = 0 - 60 - 100
External rotation = 0 - 90

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
57
Q

Scapulohumeral movments explained

A

Scapulohumeral rhythm = once the arm gets above a certain degree of movement, the humerus and scapula move continuously and synchronously at a 2:1 ratio which allows increased range of motion at the glenohumeral joint (avoids impingement)

  • coordinated movement
  • 1 degree of scapular rotation for every 2 degrees of humeral movement is needed to facilitate full, normal shoulder motion
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
58
Q

Degrees of scapulohumeral movement

A
  • initial 30 of glenohumeral abduction does not incorporate scapular motion(setting phase)
  • 30 - 90 the scapula abducts and upwardly rotates 1 for every 2of humeral elevation
  • above 90 the scapula and humerus move in 1:1 ratio
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
59
Q

What range does scapulohumeral rhythm movement occur?

A

30-90 degrees

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
60
Q

What movement does the yellow depict?

A

Scapulohumeral movement/ rhythm

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
61
Q

Movements of the scapula

A

Abduction/adduction
Elevation/depression
Upward/downward rotation
Protraction/retraction

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
62
Q

What point of reference is used for upwards/downward rotation of the scapular

A

Glenoid fossa

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
63
Q

Movements that create protraction of the scapula

A

Downward rotation
Abduction
Anterior tilt

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
64
Q

Moments that create retraction

A

Upward rotation
Adduction
Posterior tilt

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
65
Q

Label the muscles

A

A - sternocleidomastoid
B - deltoid
C - pectoralis major
D - sternum
E - biceps brachii
F - subclavius
G - clavicle
H - subscapularis
I - pectoralis minor
J - coracobrachialis
K - serratus anterior
L - humerus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
66
Q

What movements is the deltoid responsible for?

A

Anterior deltoid = flexion
Middle deltoid = abduction

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
67
Q

What movement is the pectoralis major responsible for?

A

Flexion

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
68
Q

What are the major anterior chest muscles

A

Deltoid
Pectoralis major
Serratus anterior

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
69
Q

What movement is the serratus anterior responsible for?

A

Scapula abduction

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
70
Q

What is the coracoid process a critical anchor for?

A
  • pectoralis minor
  • coracobrachialis
  • short head of biceps brachii
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
71
Q

Label the ligaments attached to the coracoid

A

A - transverse scapular ligament
B - coracoacromial ligament
C - trapezoid ligament
D - consider ligament
E - coracoclavicular ligaments
F - pectoralis minor
G - coracobrachialis
H - short head of biceps

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
72
Q

What are the major muscles of the posterior neck/back?

A

Trapezius
Rhomboids
Latissimus dorsi
Posterior deltoid

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
73
Q

Movements of the trapezius

A

Separated into 3 regions:
Upper fibres = extend neck, elevate scapula
Middle fibres = adduction scapula
Lower fibres = depress scapula

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
74
Q

Rhomboids muscles description

A

Deep to trapezius muscle
Responsible for scapular retraction

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
75
Q

Label the muscles of the rhomboids

A

A - acromion process of scapula
B - deltoid
C - trapezius
D - rhomboid major
E - rhomboid minor

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
76
Q

Label the muscle and the movement its responsible for

A

Latissimus dorsi for adduction

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
77
Q

Label the minuscule and the movement responsible

A

Posterior deltoid for extension

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
78
Q

Anterior palpitations in the upper body

A
  • stern also notch
  • sternoclavicular joint (ligament)
  • clavicle
  • lesser tuberocity
  • bicipital grove
  • greater tuberocity
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
79
Q

Posterior palpitations of the upper body

A
  • acromion process
  • acromioclavicular joint
  • scapular spine
  • medial border of scapula
  • inferior ankle of scapula
  • lateral border of the scapula
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
80
Q

Clavicle fractures sign and management

A
  • tent deformity at fracture site
  • managed with figure 8 brace or some need surgery
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
81
Q

Label the type of clavicular fractures and the chances of it occurring

A

Left to right:
Lateral: 15%
Middle: 80%
Medial: 5%

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
82
Q

Sprain and separations of the AC joint mechanism, signs, and symptoms

A

Most common
- forced blow to tip of shoulder
- pain with forced motion
- swelling
- decreased ROM
- joint instability

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
83
Q

What is occurring in the two photos

A

Direct vs indirect AC sprain

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
84
Q

Classification of acromioclavicular joint sprains

A

Type I: first degree
- stretch or partial damage of AC ligament and capsule
Type II: second degree
- rupture of
Ac ligament and partial train of coracoclavicular ligament
Type III: second degree
- rupture of AC ligament and coracoclavicular ligament
TYPE IV-V: third degree
- rupture of AC ligament and coracoclavicular ligament and tearing of deltoid and trapezius fascia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
85
Q

Shoulder dislocations

A
  • glenohumeral most commonly dislocated joint
  • forced abduction and external rotation
  • humeral head is anterior to glenoid fossa (95%)
  • avulsion fracture common with first dislocation
  • always refer to physician for reduction and x-rays, never reduce yourself (don’t put it back yourself)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
86
Q

Label the different shoulder positions

A

Left to right:
Normal anatomy
Anterior dislocation
Posterior dislocation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
87
Q

Glenoid labrum

A

Fibrocartilage rim that lines the glenoid fossa

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
88
Q

SLAP lesion

A

Superior Labrum Anterior to Posterior injury
- may include long head of biceps tendon

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
89
Q

What injury is pictured?

A

SLAP lesion

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
90
Q

What injury is pictured? What is the mechanism?

A

Bankart lesion:
- a bogey bankart occurs when the labrum is avulsed and the glenoid has been fractured
- associated with recurrent anterior shoulder instability
- tears may also come from degeneration or trauma

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
91
Q

Label the anatomy

A

A - labrum
B - long head of the biceps muscle
C - glenoid cavity

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
92
Q

What injury is this? Label the anatomy

A

Glenoid labrum tear
A - tear
B - glenoid cavity
C - glenoid labrum

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
93
Q

Common chronic injuries in the shoulder

A

Strains and impingements:
- rotator cuff strain
- rotator cuff impingement

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
94
Q

Impingement syndrome

A
  • tendons of the rotator cuff are pinched as they pass between the top of the humerus and the acromion
  • progressive degeneration changes to the supraspinatus, bicep tendon, and/or bursae
  • trauma causing swelling in increased friction in the area
  • deep pain around acromion
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
95
Q

Biceps brachii rupture

A

Rupture can occur when an unexpected force applied to the bicep muscle
- attempting to catch morning, fall with elbow in flexed position

96
Q

Tendonitis in the shoulder aka throwers arm

A
  • overuse from throwing
  • rapids overhead move et involving excessive elbow flexion and supination
  • irritates rotator cuff tendon of biceps tendon (bicipital tendonitis)
97
Q

Thoracic outlet syndrome

A
  • thoracic outlet: anterolateral aspect of neck
  • compression of neuromuscular structures at the thoracic outlet (vein, artery m nerves)
  • compression at three locations:
    1) scalene triangle
    2) costoclavicular space
    3) sub coracoid space
98
Q

Label the locations of the thoracic outlet

A

A - scalene triangle
B - subcoracoid space
C - costoclavicular space

99
Q

TOS: mechanisms, signs, and symptoms

A

Overhead rotational stresses with muscle leads aggravate:
1) nerves compressed:
- aching pain
- pins and needles sensation
- numbness into arm (medial side into ulnar nerve aspect)
- weak grip strength and muscle atrophy
2) vein compressed:
- deems, stiffness into hand
- cyanosis in arm
3) rapid onset of coolness, numbness in entire arm, fatigue after overhead activity
4) seen in overhead athletes
- swimmers, weightlifting, volleyball

100
Q

Another name for effort thrombosis

A

Paget-Schroetter syndrome

101
Q

Treatment of acute injuries in the shoulder

A
  • signs for immediate referral
  • control inflammation (ice packs, spica)
  • immobilize and transport to hospital
  • vigorous rehab will be required to reduce chance of more dislocations
102
Q

What situations should immediate referral be conducted in the shoulder

A
  • obvious deformity suggesting fracture, separation, or dislocation
  • significant loss of motion or weakness in myotomes (group of muscles innervated by the motor fibres of a single nerve root - cervical region for shoulder)
  • joint instability
  • abnormal sensation in shoulder, arm, hand
  • absent or weak pulse distal to injury
  • any significant unexplained pain
103
Q

Painful arc sign

A
  • active abduction of shoulder through full range and pain between 60-120 degrees
  • positive for impingement
  • pain between 170-180 degrees is positive for AC joint injury
104
Q

What test is this? What does it assess?

A

Apley’s scratch test
A - medial rotation and adduction
B - medial rotation, extension, and adduction
C - abduction, flexion, and lateral rotation

105
Q

Special tests for acromioclavicular instability

A
  • piano key sign
  • AC distraction and compression
106
Q

Special test for glenohumeral instability

A
  • apprehension test (crank test) - shoulder subluxation
  • sulcus test - glenohumeral instability
107
Q

Rotator cuff special tests

A
  • drop arm/empty can test - supraspinatus
  • open door test/lateral rotation - teres minor, infraspinatus
  • lift off test/internal rotation - subscapularis
108
Q

Special tests for bicipital tendonitis

A

Speeds and yergasons

109
Q

Thoracic outlet syndrome special tests

A

Addison test

110
Q

Two aspects of rehab of shoulder complex

A

Immobilization and general body composition

111
Q

Immobilization during rehab of the shoulder complex

A
  • will vary depending on injury
  • isometrics can be performed during immobilization
  • time in brace or splint are injury specific
  • ROM and strengthening are dictated by healing
112
Q

General body conditioning for rehab of shoulder complex

A

Maintain cardiovascular endurance through sucking, running and walking

113
Q

Flexibility in shoulder rehabilitation

A
  • Codman’s pendulum exercises should begin early
  • progress to active assisted ROM in pain free range
  • should be performed in conjunction with rotator cuff and scapula strengthening exercises
114
Q

Strengthening for shoulder rehab

A
  • isometric exercises first
  • progress to more dynamic exercises
  • neuromuscular control (must regain appropriate firing sequence for specific mercies, proprioception, CKC and OKC are necessary in complete rehab plan)
115
Q

Functional progress of shoulder rehab

A
  • incorporation of sport specific skills
  • strengthening that involves PNF patters (resembles throwing)
  • gradual and progressive increase in angular velocities
116
Q

Return to activity for shoulder rehab

A
  • based on pre-established criteria
  • functional performance testing
  • object measures of strength and performance
117
Q

Movements of the elbow

A

Flexion/extension
Pronation/supination

118
Q

Label the bones of the elbow

A

A - humerus
B - radius
C - ulna

119
Q

Label the elbow

A

A - humerus
B - radius
C - ulna

120
Q

Label the elbow. Is this the anterior or posterior side?

A

A - humerus
B - lateral epiconcyle
C - capitulum
D - radial head
E - radial tuberosity
F - radius
G - ulna
H - coronoid process
I - trochlea
J - medial epicondyle
K - coronoid fossa
L - medial supracondylar crest

Anterior

121
Q

Label the elbow. Is this the anterior or posterior side?

A

A - humerus
B - olecranon
C - radial head
D - radius
E - ulna

122
Q

Carrying angle

A
  • formed by long axis of humerus and midline of forearm
  • larger angles are considered abnormal
  • disappears when the elbow is extended and the forearm is pronated
123
Q

Carrying angles in males vs females

A

Females > males
Male norms: 11-14 degrees
Female norms: 13–16 degrees

124
Q

Cubical valgus

A

Formed by long axis of humerus and midline of forearm

125
Q

Cubical varus

A

Usually develops secondary to condylar humerus fracture

126
Q

Two ligaments of the elbow

A

Ulnar (medial) collateral ligament:
- anterior part
- oblique part
- posterior part
Radial (lateral) collateral ligament

127
Q

Bursa in elbow

A

Olecranon bursa

128
Q

Origin, insertion, innervation, and action of biceps brachii

A

Origin:
- Long head - supraglenoid rim
- Short head - coracoid process
Insertion:
- Radial tuberosity
Innervation:
- Musculocutaneous nerve
Action:
- Elbow flexion, forearm supination, shoulder flexion

129
Q

Origin, insertion, innervation, and action of brachialis

A

Origin:
- distal anterior humerus
Insertion:
- ulnar tuberocity and coronoid process
Innervation:
- musculocutaneous nerve
Action:
- elbow flexion

130
Q

Origin, insertion, innervation, and action of coracobrachialis

A

Origin:
- coracoid process
Insertion:
- medial humerus opposite deltoid tuberosity
Innervation:
- musculocutaneous nerve
Action:
- shoulder flexion

131
Q

Origin, insertion, innervation and action of brachioradialis

A

Origin:
- lateral supercondylar ridge of humerus
Insertion:
- lateral aspect of radial style I’d process
Innervation:
- radial nerve
Action:
- elbow flexion, especially with forearm in neutral position

132
Q

Label the muscle

A

Triceps brachii

133
Q

Label the muscle

A

Anconeus

134
Q

Label the anatomy

A

A - wrist extensors
B - lateral epicondyle
C - common extensor tendon

135
Q

Label the anatomy

A

A - wrist flexors
B - common flexor tendon
C - medial epicondyle

136
Q

Arm arteries from top to bottom

A

Subclavian
Axillary
Brachial
Radial
Ulnar
Palmar arches

137
Q

Palpitations of the elbow

A

Olecronan process
Olecronan fossa
Lateral epicondyle
- common extensor tendon
Wrist extensor
Medial epicondyle
- common flexor tendon
Wrist flexors
Pulse

138
Q

Common acute injuries in the elbow

A

Fractures:
- humerus
- radius: radial head
- ulna: Olecronan process
- medial epiphyseal plate

139
Q

Supracondylar fractures

A

Humerus fractures:
- most common in children/adolescents
- fall on flexed elbow or hyper extension mechanism
Deformity present if displaced, often missed on initial evaluation if non-displaced

140
Q

Ulnar fracture

A
  • coronoid process fracture
  • may be associated with posterior elbow dislocation
141
Q

Radial fractures classifications

A
  • radial head fracture
    Type I: nondisplaced
    Type II: fracture with displacement, depression or angulation
    Type III: comminuted fracture of head (3 or more pieces)
    Type IV: comminuted fracture associated with elbow dislocation
142
Q

Elbow sprain

A
  • ligament injury
  • usually from forced hyperextension or varus/valgus force
  • athlete may hear “click” or “ pop” along with sharp pain at time of injury
  • pain relieved by flexing elbow
  • may also involve avulsion fracture
143
Q

Elbow dislocation

A
  • uncommon, but serious
  • ulna/radius displaced
  • always accompanied by MCL sprain
  • immobilize and refer to a physician
144
Q

Directions of elbow dislocation

A

Posterior
Posterolateral
Posteromedial
Lateral
Medial or divergent

145
Q

Posterior elbow dislocation

A
  • typically results from hyperextension, trochlea levered over coronoid process
  • most common direction is posterolateral
  • involved injustice or most ligament structures
  • may present with subsequent myositis ossifications
146
Q

Elbow dislocation and nerves

A

Potential for injury to brachial artery and medial/ulnar nerve

147
Q

Olecranon bursitis

A
  • typically due to direct trauma
  • immediate swelling, pain, reduced ROM
  • usually easily treated with rest and compression
  • if persists, may be aspirated - risk of infection
148
Q

Common chronic injuries of elbow

A

Tendinopathy, epicondylitis

149
Q

Tendinopathy

A
  • triceps Tendinopathy
  • lateral epicondylitis = tennis elbow
  • medial epicondylitis = golfers elbow
150
Q

Epicondylitis

A
  • local tenderness over epicondyle
  • pain when using involved muscle and in resistive exercises
  • swelling, pan, redness
151
Q

Little league elbow

A
  • lesions resulting from excessive throwing in young athletes (valgus stress)
  • tendonitis/tendinosis
  • medial humeral growth plate
  • avulsion fracture
152
Q

Tommy john surgery

A
  • ulnar collateral ligament reconstruction
153
Q

Issues to consider with tommy john surgery

A
  • conservative treatment plan
  • fail that, then do surgery
  • only if they want to continue baseball then do surgery
  • 9 month - a year for recovery
  • factors that lead up to surgery aren’t addressed
  • likelihood of it breaking down again
154
Q

Movements of wrist

A

Flexion/ extension
Radial/ulnar deviation

155
Q

Movements of fingers

A

Metacarpals:
Flexion/ extension
Abduction/adduction
Proximal/distal phalanges:
Flexion/extension
Thumb:
Opposition/reposition

156
Q

Label the bones

A

A - 4 proximal carpals (scaphoid)
B - radius
C - ulna
D - 4 distal carpals
E - 5 metacarpals
F - 14 phalanges

157
Q

Label the dorsal ligaments of the wrist

A

A - dorsal inter carpal ligament
B - dorsal radiocarpal ligament

158
Q

Label the palmar ligaments of the wrist

A

A - v-deltoid ligaments
B - lunotriquentral ligament
C - UCL and ulnocarpal meniscus homologue
D - ulnolunate ligament
E - radioscapholunate ligament
F - radiolunate ligament
G - scapholuntate ligament
H - radial collateral ligament
I - radioscaphocapitate ligament

159
Q

Carpal tunnel

A

Created by arched carpal bones and carpal ligament

All wrist flexor tendon run through the tunnel

160
Q

Label the carpal tunnel

A

A - ulnar artery
B - median nerve
C - transverse carpal ligament

161
Q

Ligaments in the finger

A

Collateral ligaments

162
Q

Palpitations of hand

A

Approach as if a fracture
- radial style I’d process
- ulnar style I’d process
- scaphoid: anatomic snuffbox
- metacarpals
- phalanges

163
Q

Common acute injuries in hand

A

Fractures:
- colles fracture
- scaphoid fracture
- metacarpals bones
- phalanges
Subungual hematoma
- from crush injury
Sprains and dislocations:
- skiers thumb
- mallet finger
- boutonnière deformity
- jersey finger

164
Q

Management of subungual hematoma

A
  • sterilize
  • use heated paper clip
  • drain blood to relieve pressure
  • pad and protect
165
Q

Management of finger dislocations

A
  • hyperextension or shearing mechanism
  • PIP most common
  • in DIP or MCP dont let athletes reduce - watch digital nerve and vessels
  • MD reduces with nerve block and may require surgery if instability persists
166
Q

Common chronic injuries

A
  • carpal tunnel syndrome
  • de quervains disease
  • ulnar neuropathy
167
Q

Ulnar neuropathy symptoms

A
  • numbness and tingling
  • pain on the outside or middle of the forearm
    Ulnar nerve:
  • may become compressed due to swelling of surrounding muscles and connective tissues
  • its ability to transmit messages to the muscles of the forearm may be significantly reduced
168
Q

Special tests for wrist, hand, and fingers

A
  • active/passive/ resistive ROM
  • valgus stress
  • varus stress
  • finklestein test
  • phalen’s test
  • tinel’s test
169
Q

Finkelstein’s test

A
  • tuck thumb under fingers by making a fist
  • ulnar deviate wrist
  • positive test increased pain all over radial styloid process and length of extensor pollicis breves and abductor pollicis longus
  • implication of dequervians syndrome
170
Q

Phalen’s test

A
  • examiner applies overpressure during passive wrist flexion and holds for 1 min
  • positive test tingling in distribution of median nerve
  • implications median nerve compression
171
Q

Tinels test

A
  • examiner taps nerve over wrist
  • positive test tingling distribution of median nerve
  • implications median nerve compression
172
Q

Functional anatomy of ankle: bone stability

A
  • tibia (medial malleolus)
  • fibula (lateral malleolus)
  • talus - main weight bearing bone
173
Q

Label the ankle

A

A - subtalar joint
B - calcaneus

174
Q

Label the ankle

A

A - tibia
B - fibula
C - talus
D - talocrural joint

175
Q

Functional anatomy of ankle: articulations

A
  • talocrural joint (hinge - plantar/dorsi)
  • subtalar joint (gliding - inversion/eversion)
176
Q

Movements of ankle

A

Dorsi flexion 20 degrees
Plantar flexion 30-50
Eversion 0-35
Inversion 0-35
Pronation 15-30
Supination 45-60

177
Q

Label the ligaments and name their function

A

A - posterior talofibular
B - calcaneofibular
C - anterior talofibular

Resist inversion

178
Q

Label the ligaments and name their function

A

Deltoid, resist eversion

179
Q

Functional anatomy of the ankle: muscles

A
  • weakest aspect of ankle stability
  • 3 peroneal muscles: longus, breves, tertius
  • these resist inversion
180
Q

Inversion ankle sprain mechanism

A
  • most common
  • sports with running, jumping, landing
  • fibula causes a longer lever arm on lateral side of ankle
  • vertical load on uneven surfaces
  • tight Achilles’ tendon
  • weak peroneal muscles
181
Q

Ethology of inversion ankle sprain

A
  • combo of plantar and excessive supination when foot contacts the ground
  • common changing directions quickly
  • fast injury mechanism— muscles cannot contract to control the excessive supination
  • ligaments become the only absorbers
  • ATFL is primary lateral stabilizer and is most commonly damaged
  • CFL can be damages
  • PTFL injured in severe injuries
182
Q

Label the ligaments

A

A - deltoid
B - calcaneofibular ligament
C - posterior talofibular ligament
- sitar posterior tibiofibular ligament

183
Q

Signs and symptoms of inversion ankle sprain

A

First:
- pain and swelling anterolateral aspect of lateral malleolus
- point tenderness over ATFL, no laxity with stress test
Second:
- tearing or popping felt on lateral side
- pain and swelling on anterolateral and inferior aspects of lateral malleolus
- painful palpitation over ATFL and CFL: may be tender over PTFL and deltoid ligament
- positive anterior drawers and Tamar tilt
Third:
- tearing and popping sensation felt on lateral aspect
- diffuse swelling
- painful or no pain
- positive drawer and tilt

184
Q

Eversion/medial ankle sprain mechanism

A
  • rare
  • strong deltoid ligament
  • may be associated with avulsion fracture
  • lateral malleolus can fracture
  • deltoid ligament can avulsion the medial malleolus
  • distal tibiofibular joint can be disrupted
185
Q

Grades of ankle sprains

A

Grade I - mild
- a stretch of the involved ligament
GRade II - moderate
- a partial tear of the ligament with part of the ligament remaining intact
- joint suffers minimal instability
Grade II - severe
- a complete tear of the involved ligament
- ligament may separate completely from the bone and the joint will lose stability

186
Q

High ankle sprain (syndesmotic)

A
  • damage to ligaments holding tibia and fibula together
  • more common than eversion ankle sprains
  • most debilitation of any sprains in the foot and ankle
187
Q

High ankle sprain mechanism

A
  • dorsifelxion and pronation most common
  • foot is planted fixed on the ground with internal rotation of the tibia
  • fibula separated from the tibia disrupting the distal tibiofibular ligament
  • cutting and pivoting sports
  • longer to heal than lower ankle sprain — 6-8 weeks
188
Q

Observation of ankle

A
  • postural deviations
  • valgum or varum
  • difficulty walking
  • deformities, asymmetries, or swelling
  • skin condition
  • pain
  • ROM
189
Q

Palpitation of bony anatomy in ankle

A
  • fibular head and shaft
  • lateral malleolus
  • tibial plateau
  • tibial shaft
  • medial malleolus
  • Tamar dome
  • calcaneus
190
Q

Palpitation of soft tissue anatomy in ankle

A
  • peroneus longus, brevis, tertius
  • flexor digitorum longus
  • flexor hallucis
  • tibialis posterior
  • tibialis anterior
  • extensor hallucis longus
  • extensor digitorum longus
  • gastrocnemius
  • soleus
  • Achilles’ tendon
191
Q

Fracture test of ankle

A

Potts compression (squeeze test)
Percussion or bump test (malleolus fracture)

192
Q

Joint stability test of ankle

A

Anterior drawer test
- determine damage to anterior talofibular ligament primarily
Tamar tilt test
- ATFL, CFL, PTFL
- determine extent of inversion or eversion injury
Kleiger’s test (external rotation)
- to determine the extent of damage to the deltoid ligament
- syndesmosis

193
Q

Other special tests for the ankle

A

Thompson’s test:
- detects Achilles’ tendon rupture
- positive is no movement in the foot
Syndesmotic sprain
- squeeze tibia and fibula together
- positive if pain
Tap test (tinels test)
- possible tarsal tunnel syndrome
Mortons test
- Morton’s neuroma
- squeeze metatarsals together
- positive if pain

194
Q

Movements of the hip

A

Flexion/extension
Abduction/adduction
Internal/external rotation

195
Q

Joints of the hip

A

A - sacroiliac joint
B - iliofemoral joint
C - L5/S1 joint

196
Q

Muscles of the hip flexors

A

A - psoas minor
B - illiacus
C - psoas major

197
Q

Label the muscles and what movement they produce

A

A - pectineus
B - adductor longus
C - gracilis
D - adductor brevis
E - adductor magnus

198
Q

Label the muscles

A

A - gluteus Maximus
B - illiotibial tract
C - gluteus medius

199
Q

Label the muscles of the posterior thigh

A

Left to right:
Bicep femoral
Semitendinosus
Semimembranosus

200
Q

Label the ligaments

A

A - pubofemoral ligament
B - iliofemoral ligament (superior and inferior bands)
C - iliofemoral ligament
D - ischiofemoral ligament

201
Q

Palpitation of the hip

A

Supine:
- anterior superior iliac spine
- iliac crest
- quads
- groin (muscles, lymph swelling, femoral pulse)
Prone:
- hamstrings
- ischial tuberosity
- posterior superior iliac spine
Side:
- gluteus Maximus
- greater trocanter

202
Q

Acute injuries of hip

A

Fractures:
- femur, pelvis
Immature hip:
- epiphyseal plate fractures
- slipped femoral head
Dislocation
Strained
Contusions

203
Q

Hip larval tear

A
  • hip labrum — fibrous ring of cartilage around hip socket
  • deep groin pain
204
Q

Stress fracture of hip

A
  • neck of femur
  • deep tenderness of anterior hip
205
Q

Osteitis pubis

A
  • repetitive running/jumping, shearing movements
  • inflammation and gradual onset of localized pain around pubis symphysis
206
Q

Sport hernia

A
  • strain or tear of any soft tissue in lower abdomen or groin area
  • severe pain in groin
207
Q

Piriformis syndrome

A
  • tight piriformis irritates sciatic nerve
  • overactive hip flexors and weak gluteals
  • may include gluteal and radiating pain from sciatic compression
208
Q

Illiotibial band syndrome

A
  • repetitive running
  • tenderness on lateral knee; weak hip adductors
  • treatment — rices, assessment, gradual RTA
209
Q

Label the anterior compartment muscles

A

A - extensor digitorum longus
B - tibialis anterior
C - extensor hallucis longus

210
Q

Deep posterior compartment artery and nerve

A

Posterior tibial artery
Tibial nerve

211
Q

Lateral compartment artery and nerve

A

Peroneal artery
Superficial peroneal nerve

212
Q

Tendond of the lower limb

A

Posterior tibial tendon
Quadriceps tendon
Achilles’ tendon

213
Q

Common injuries of lower leg

A

Stress fractures
Strains
Sprains
Tendinopathy

214
Q

Strain and sprains of leg

A

Muscle spasm:
- check fluid and electrolyte intake
- Achilles’ tendon strain: forceful contractions
- rupture tear of muscle resulting in palpable mass
- sprained ankle

215
Q

Achilles tendinopathy

A
  • common in distance runners
  • thickening surrounding tissue
  • tenderness with palpitation, pain with activity, swelling, creputation, stiffness especially with dorsiflexion
216
Q

Exertional compartment syndrome

A
  • exercised induced pain and swelling that is relieved by rest
  • increased tissue pressure
  • compromised muscles, nerves, blood vessels within the space and signal to compartment
  • anterior and deep posterior most common
  • can result in neurological disability
217
Q

Shin splints

A

S/S:
- pain on border of tibia
- increases with weight bearing or pressure
Leading to:
- periostitis
- stress fracture
- anterior compartment syndrome
- stress fracture
Prevention:
- check shoes and arches
- check training load and playing surfaces
- chec flexibility/strength or lower leg muscles

218
Q

Bone stress injury

A

Load applied to the bone exceeds bone’s ability to manage this load
- bone is unable to remodel to remodel sufficiently and a stress reaction develops
- often Rene in running and jumping activities

219
Q

5th metatarsal fracture

A
  • styloid process
  • common area for injury
220
Q

Sand toe

A

Hyper planter flexion of big toe
Commonly seen in beach volleyball

221
Q

Turf toe

A

Excessive upward bending of MTP joint
Repeated motions of running or jumping

222
Q

Plantar fasciitis

A
  • chronic inflammation of plantar fascia
  • pain with initial weight bearing
  • point tenderness at clacaneal portion
223
Q

Mortons neuroma

A
  • pinched/squeezed nerve that passes between metatarsals
  • affect the ball of foot
  • feels like standing on a pebble in your shoe
224
Q

Foot conditions

A
  • bunion (hallux valgus)
  • corn
  • ingrown toenail
  • hammer toe
225
Q

Label the toe deformities

A

A - hammer toe
B - claw toe
C - mallet toe

226
Q

Typical tissue healing time frames

A
227
Q

Movements at the knee

A

Flexion/extension
Internal/external rotation when knee is flexed

228
Q

Joints of the knee

A

Patellofemoral
Tibiofibular
Tibiofemoral

229
Q

Name a test that can be used to detect a bicep rupture

A

Ludington test

230
Q

Avascular necrosis

A

Death of a bone tissue due to lack of blood supply

231
Q

What is the main structural cause of medial epicondylitis

A

Damage to tendons that bend the wrist toward the palm

232
Q

What anatomical structures and hormonal differences of female athletes put them more at risk of ACL injuries than male athletes?

A

-ligament laxity from hormonal fluctuations in the menstral cycle

233
Q

Which group of athletes are most prone to athletic pubalgia?

A

Men under the age of 40

234
Q

What population is more at risk for suffering heat stroke?

A
  • people 65 years of age or older
  • infant and children up to 4 years of age

-people who are overweight

  • people who are on medications
  • people who are working in hot environments
235
Q

What is a test you can use to diagnose patellofemoral pain syndrome?

A

Patellar grind test

236
Q

What is the main muscle where shin splints occur?

A

Tibialis anterior