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PCC Astronomy Odman > Final Astronomy Quiz > Flashcards

Final Astronomy Quiz Flashcards

1
Q

The sun is

a. a star.
b. 1 AU from Earth.
c. more than 100 times the diameter of Earth.
d. all of the above.
e. none of the above.

A

all of the above.

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2
Q

If the distance to the nearest star is 4.2 light-years, then

a. the star is 4.2 million AU away.
b. the light we see left the star 4.2 years ago.
c. the star must have formed 4.2 billion years ago.
d. the star must be very young.
e. the star must be very old.

A

b. the light we see left the star 4.2 years ago.

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3
Q

If all the planets and Earth were placed on the same side of the sun, which of the following is the correct sequence of these objects’ distances from Earth, starting with the nearest?

a. the sun, Mars, Proxima Centauri, center of the Milky Way Galaxy
b. Venus, the sun, Pluto, Proxima Centauri, center of the Milky Way Galaxy
c. Jupiter, the sun, center of the Milky Way Galaxy, Proxima Centauri
d. Mars, Jupiter, the sun, Proxima Centauri, center of the Milky Way Galaxy
e. Neptune, Mercury, center of the Milky Way Galaxy, Proxima Centauri

A

b. Venus, the sun, Pluto, Proxima Centauri, center of the Milky Way Galaxy

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4
Q

According to size, starting with the smallest, which of the following is the correct sequence of astronomical objects?

a. Earth, moon, Proxima Centauri, Milky Way Galaxy, galaxy cluster
b. moon, Mars, the sun, galaxy cluster, Milky Way Galaxy
c. galaxy supercluster, galaxy cluster, Milky Way Galaxy, the sun, Earth
d. Earth, Proxima Centauri, Milky Way Galaxy, galaxy cluster, galaxy supercluster
e. Neptune, Mercury, Pluto, the sun, Milky Way Galaxy

A

d. Earth, Proxima Centauri, Milky Way Galaxy, galaxy cluster, galaxy supercluster

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5
Q

Which of the following statements is correct?

a. Stars orbit planets.
b. Stars consist of many galaxies.
c. The Milky Way Galaxy consists of billions of stars.
d. The solar system consists of a single planet orbited by nine stars.
e. The Milky Way Galaxy appears as a fuzzy point of light in the sky.

A

c. The Milky Way Galaxy consists of billions of stars.

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6
Q

Scientific notation can be used to

a. calculate the distance to the sun.
b. determine the age of the solar system.
c. build a scale model of the solar system.
d. determine the age of the sun.
e. write large numbers without a great many zeros.

A

e. write large numbers without a great many zeros.

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7
Q

In scientific notation, 38,000 can be written as 3.8  10x. What is the value of x?
a. 4 b. 5 c. 3 d. 6 e. 7

A

a. 4

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8
Q

Which of the following is a correct representation for 5,000,000?

a. 5.00 x 10^4
b. 0.500 x 10^5
c. 50.0 x 10^6
d. 5.00 x 10^6
e. all are correct representations

A

d. 5.00 x 10^6

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9
Q

Which of the following is the correct distance between Earth and the sun?

a. 1 astronomical unit
b. approximately 93,000,000 miles
c. 1.5 x 10^11 meters
d. all of the above
e. none of the above

A

d. all of the above

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10
Q

The distance that light travels in one year is defined as the

a. mile.
b. kilometer.
c. astronomical unit.
d. 6-billion-mile limit.
e. light-year.

A

e. light-year.

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11
Q

The study of astronomy tries to answer questions concerning

a. the origin of the universe.
d. the origin of the sun.
b. the formation of galaxies.
e. all of the above.
c. the formation of stars.

A

e. all of the above.

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12
Q

Because the speed of light is NOT infinite, the farther away in space astronomers look,

a. the farther apart the galaxies are from each other.
b. the further back in time astronomers see.
c. the larger the galaxies appear.
d. the brighter the galaxies appear.
e. none of the above statements are true.

A

b. the further back in time astronomers see.

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13
Q

The celestial equator is

a. a line around the sky directly above Earth’s equator.
b. the dividing line between the north and south celestial hemispheres.
c. the path that the sun appears to follow on the celestial sphere as Earth orbits the sun.
d. a and b.
e. a and c.

A

d. a and b.

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14
Q

The _________________ is the point on the celestial sphere directly above any observer.

a. north celestial pole
b. south celestial pole
c. zenith
d. celestial equator
e. asterism

A

c. zenith

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15
Q

An observer in the northern hemisphere watches the sky for several hours. As a result of Earth’s rotation, this observer notices that the stars near the north celestial pole appear to move

a. counterclockwise.
b. clockwise.
c. from left to right.
d. from right to left.
e. nearly vertically upward.

A

a. counterclockwise.

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16
Q 
Which star in the table below would appear the brightest to an observer on Earth?
Star Name Apparent Visual
Magnitude (mv)
 Dra  3.07
 Cet  2.53
 Per  3.98
Nim     8.07
 Cma   –1.46
a.  Cet b.  Cma c. Nim d.  Per e.  Dra
A

b.  Cma

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17
Q

An observer in the northern hemisphere takes a time exposure photograph of the night sky. If
the illustration below depicts the photograph taken by the observer, which direction was the
camera pointing?
Star Trails ( looks like many rainbow arcs)
Horizon (line under the arcs)
a. straight north
b. straight east
c. straight south
d. straight west
e. straight up, directly overhead

A

c. straight south

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18
Q

An observer in the northern hemisphere takes a time exposure photograph of the night sky. If
the illustration below depicts the photograph taken by the observer, which direction was the
camera pointing?
\\\\\\ Star Trails
Horizon ( imaginary line under the trails )
a. straight north
b. straight east
c. straight south
d. straight west
e. straight up, directly overhead.

A

d. straight west

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19
Q

Most star names, such as Aldebaran and Betelgeuse, are

a. Latin. b. Greek. c. Arabic. d. English. e. Italian.

A

c. Arabic.

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20
Q

The principle use of constellations today is to

a. identify regions of the sky.
b. predict the future.
c. identify ancient gods and goddesses.
d. retell mythologies.
e. all of the above.

A

a. identify regions of the sky.

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21
Q

Of the following objects, the one that is a constellation is

a. the Big Dipper.
b. Ursa Major.
c. the Great Square of Pegasus.
d. Orion’s belt.
e. the Pleiades

A

b. Ursa Major.

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22
Q

The celestial sphere is used to describe the motions of the planets and stars around Earth. Use of the celestial sphere in this way is best described as a
a. theory. b. hypothesis. c. law. d. model. e. paradigm.

A

d. model.

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23
Q

The apparent visual magnitude scale refers to

a. how bright a star looks without correcting for its distance.
b. how faint the stars appear that cannot be seen with a telescope.
c. the brightness of stars that are only visible with the naked eye.
d. the distance factor in the determination of stellar magnitudes.
e. the brightness of the visible stars in the northern hemisphere.

A

a. how bright a star looks without correcting for its distance.

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24
Q

Because of precession, Earth’s axis now points toward the star

a. Polaris, but 5,000 years ago Earth’s axis pointed toward Thuban.
b. Thuban, but 5,000 years ago Earth’s axis pointed to Polaris.
c. Proxima Centauri, but 5,000 years ago Earth’s axis pointed to Vega.
d. Polaris, but 5,000 years ago Earth’s axis pointed to Vega.
e. Vega, but 5,000 years ago Earth’s axis pointed to Thuban.

A

a. Polaris, but 5,000 years ago Earth’s axis pointed toward Thuban.

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25
Q

The distance to the nearest star, not including our sun, would be approximately which of the following? Hint: you can use the process of elimination to obtain an answer that is correct to within a factor of 10 or the closest guess is probably correct. Assume that 1 light year = 63,000 AU.

a. 100 times the Earth-sun distance
b. 1,000 times the distance from Earth to the center of the Milky Way
c. 1,000 times the diameter of the solar system
d. 2,000 times the Earth-sun distance

A

c. 1,000 times the diameter of the solar system

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26
Q

Winters are colder than summers in the northern hemisphere because

a. Earth is closer to the sun during the summer.
b. the snow that falls in the northern latitudes cools Earth during the winter.
c. the light from the sun shines more directly on the northern hemisphere during the summer.
d. the period of sunlight is longer during the summer than during the winter.
e. c & d are true

A

e.c & d are true

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27
Q

The sun is on the celestial equator at the times of the

a. spring equinox and the summer solstice.
b. autumnal equinox and the spring equinox.
c. summer solstice and the winter solstice.
d. autumnal equinox and the winter solstice.
e. sun in on the ecliptic and is never on the celestial equator

A

b.autumnal equinox and the spring

equinox.

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28
Q

A planet visible in the morning just before sunrise is referred to as

a. the morning object.
b. the morning star.
c. the evening star.
d. the planetary phase.
e. none of the above

A

b.the morning star.

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29
Q

A waxing crescent moon is visible

a. near the eastern horizon just before sunrise.
b. near the eastern horizon just after sunset.
c. near the western horizon just before sunrise.
d. near the western horizon just after sunset.
e. from sunset until sunrise.

A

d.near the western horizon just after sunset.

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30
Q

A total lunar eclipse is

a. visible only from the path of totality.
b. visible only during a new moon.
c. visible to all observers on the side of Earth from which the moon would be visible at that time.
d. an opportunity to study the corona of the sun.
e. none of the above

A

c.visible to all observers on the side of Earth from which the moon would be visible at that time.

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31
Q

The first-quarter moon rises

a. at about noon.
b. at sunset.
c. at sunrise.
d. at about midnight.
e. during the 2nd week of each calendar month

A

a.at about noon.

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32
Q

Total lunar eclipses always occur

a. at the time of new moon.
d. during either solstice.
b. at the time of full moon.
e. at the time that the sun is directly overhead.
c. during either equinox.

A

b.at the time of full moon.

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33
Q

A “phase” of the moon is determined by the

a. portion of sunlight reflected by the lunar surface toward Earth.
b. rate of Earth’s rotation.
c. speed of the moon in orbit about Earth.
d. rate at which the moon rotates on its axis.
e. season of the year as experienced on Earth.

A

a.portion of sunlight reflected by the lunar surface toward Earth.

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34
Q 
The period of time required for the moon to go from new to full and then back to new again is
called the
a.synodic period.
b.lunar period.
c.solar month.
d.sidereal month.
e.precession cycle
A

a.synodic period.

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35
Q

As the moon orbits Earth, the moon rotates on its axis

a. once.
b. twice.
c. 5 times.
d. 24 times.
e. never

A

a.once.

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36
Q

If you were on the lunar surface during a full moon as viewed from Earth, Earth’s “phase” would be

a. full.
b. waxing quarter.
c. waning gibbous.
d. new.
e. crescent

A

d.new.

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37
Q 
According to the Milankovitch hypothesis, which of the following may cause changes in
Earth’s climate?
a.precession
b.small changes in Earth’s orbit
c.small changes in Earth’s inclination
d.all of the above
e.none of the above
A

e.none of the above

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38
Q

If Earth’s orbit became MORE elliptical,

a. northern summers would become cooler and snow and ice would be more abundant, causing the climate to cool.
b. northern summers would become warmer and snow and ice would be less abundant, causing climate to warm.
c. days would be significantly longer, allowing temperatures to rise.
d. days would be significantly shorter, allowing temperatures to lower.
e. nothing would change; there would be no significant effect if Earth’s orbit became more elliptical

A

a.northern summers would become cooler and snow and ice would be more abundant, causing the climate to cool.

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39
Q

Which of the following people did NOT accept a heliocentric model for the universe?

a. Kepler
b. Copernicus
c. Tycho
d. Galileo
e. Newton

A

c.Tycho

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40
Q

A ____________________ is a single conjecture that can be tested.

a. hypothesis
b. paradigm
c. natural law
d. model
e. theory

A

a.hypothesis

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41
Q

Spring tides occur

a. at new moon and first-quarter moon.
b. at first quarter and third-quarter moon.
c. at new moon and full moon.
d. at third-quarter and full moon.
e. at noon and midnight

A

c.at new moon and full moon.

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42
Q

A(n) _______________ orbit is one in which an object orbiting Earth has an orbital period equal to the rotation period of Earth.

a. daily
b. lunar
c. epicycle
d. geosynchronous
e. open

A

d.geosynchronous

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43
Q

Galileo’s observations of the gibbous phase of Venus proved that

a. Venus orbited the sun.
d. the moon orbited Earth
b. Earth orbited the sun.
e. Venus had an atmosphere.
c. all of the planets orbited the sun

A

a.Venus orbited the sun.

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44
Q

Tycho’s greatest contribution to astronomy was

a. his model of the universe.
b. his telescopic observations.
c. his discovery of three laws of motion.
d. his 20 years of careful observations of the planets.
e. a and b above

A

d.his 20 years of careful observations of the planets.

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45
Q

When we say that gravitation is universal, we mean that

a. it is important in all aspects of science.
b. it could be deduced from the appearance of the universe.
c. for every force there is an equal and opposite force.
d. the force of gravity from one object extends to infinity.
e. it is a property of all matter throughout the universe.

A

e.it is a property of all matter throughout the universe.

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46
Q

The diagram below illustrates a portion of the model for the universe described by

Earth) Mars) Sun) Venus) Mercury) Jupiter) Saturn)

(The diagram won’t past here but it shows the earth in the center with the other planets and sun moving in circles while orbitting around the earth

a. Kepler
b. Tycho
c. Ptolemy
d. Copernicus

A

c.Ptolemy

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47
Q

The force resulting from gravity between two objects depends on
I.the mass of each object.
II.the distance each object is from Earth.
III.the distance between the two objects.
IV.the speed of light

a. I and II
b. I and III
c. II and IV
d. I, II, and III
e. I, II, III, and IV

A

b.I and III

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48
Q

A celestial object that appears to move faster and then slower, stops, and then moves backward against the background stars is best identified as

a. Earth.
b. a planet.
c. the moon.
d. the sun.
e. a meteor.

A

b.a planet.

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49
Q

In its orbit around the sun, a planet’s speed is

a. fastest at aphelion (farthest from the sun).
b. fastest at perihelion (nearest to the sun).
c. slowest at perihelion.
d. constant in its orbit around the sun.
e. fastest at the foci of the orbit.

A

b.fastest at perihelion (nearest to the sun).

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50
Q

The friction created when tidal forces move ocean waters over the seabeds

a. causes the lunar phases.
b. slows the rotation of Earth, gradually making the days longer.
c. forces the moon to approach Earth.
d. has no effect on Earth.
e. has no effect on the moon

A

b.slows the rotation of Earth, gradually making the days longer.

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51
Q

Why is the heliocentric picture of the solar system, as presented by Copernicus, called a model of the solar system?

a. It offers an explanation of why the planets orbit the sun.
b. It provides a set of relationships that correctly describes Earth’s orbit around the sun.
c. It is a description of a naturally occurring phenomenon.
d. It offers a set of equations that explain how Earth orbits the sun.
e. None of the above statements are true

A

c.It is a description of a naturally occurring phenomenon.

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52
Q

Both Jupiter and Saturn

a. have liquid metallic hydrogen in their interiors.
b. have rings.
c. emit more energy than they absorb from the sun.
d. have belt and zone circulation.
e. all of the above.

A

e. all of the above.

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53
Q

As a moon in a very elliptical orbit moves closer to and then farther from a planet, gravity flexes the moon with tides, and friction heats the interior. This process is referred to as

a. tidal heating.
b. occultation.
c. vaporization.
d. differentiation. e. sublimation.

A

a. tidal heating.

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54
Q

Though Titan is small, it is able to retain an atmosphere because

a. it is very cold.
b. it is very dense.
c. it rotates very slowly.
d. it attracts gas from the solar wind.
e. it has a very strong magnetic field.

A

a. it is very cold.

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55
Q

Which of the Galilean satellites are geologically active?

a. Io and Callisto
b. Ganymede and Titan
c. Titan and Callisto
d. Europa and Io
e. Ganymede and Callisto

A

d. Europa and Io

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56
Q

The excess heat produced by Jupiter and Saturn is the result of
a. nuclear reactions in their liquid metallic hydrogen cores.
b. radioactive decay.
c. hot molten lava rising to the surface.
d. the continual slow contraction of each planet.
e. the large number of meteorite and comet impacts
that occur each year.

A

d. the continual slow contraction of each planet.

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57
Q

The rotation of Uranus is peculiar in that
a. it is much slower than is typical for Jovian planets.
b. it is much faster than is typical for Jovian planets.
c. the equator rotates much faster than the poles.
d. the axis is nearly parallel to the planet of its
orbit.
e. it can not be measured because Uranus has no surface features.

A

d. the axis is nearly parallel to the planet of its

orbit.

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58
Q

Uranus and Neptune do NOT contain liquid metallic hydrogen because they

a. are not massive enough.
b. do not contain enough hydrogen.
c. rotate too slowly.
d. are too far from the sun.
e. have magnetic fields that are much too weak.

A

a. are not massive enough

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59
Q

The rings of Uranus were discovered

a. during an occultation (an eclipse) of a star.
b. during an eclipse of one of the moons by the rings.
c. during an eclipse of Uranus by the rings.
d. as Uranus and the rings passed behind Jupiter.
e. by the Voyager 1 spacecraft

A

a. during an occultation (an eclipse) of a star.

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60
Q

Because the rings of Saturn lie within the planet’s Roche limit, the rings may have formed as a result of

a. gravitational perturbations that prevented a large satellite from forming.
b. tidal forces that caused a large satellite to be torn apart and shattered.
c. collisions between previously existing satellites.
d. a and b only.
e. all of the above.

A

d. a and b only.

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61
Q 
The diagram below shows a cross-section of the interior of Uranus. Which of the three
regions do current computer models suggest is composed primarily of water?
1 (in the bulls eye)
2 (one out from the bull's eye)
3 (inside the 3rd region)
a. region 1 
b. region 2 
c. region 3 
d. all of the regions 
e. none of the regions
A

b. region 2

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62
Q

. Which of the following suggests that Earth still has the potential of being hit by an asteroid
or comet?
a. impact craters currently visible on Earth’s surface or covered with sediment
b. large explosion occurring over the Tunguska region of Siberia
c. impact of Shoemaker–Levy 9 comet on Jupiter
d. none of the above
e. all of the above

A

e. all of the above

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63
Q

The interior of Saturn is mostly liquid. As a result, the planet’s rapid rotation produces

a. large methane clouds in the atmosphere.
b. a perfectly spherical planet.
c. a magnetic field more intense than Jupiter’s.
d. the most oblate planet in the solar system.
e. an increasing density in the inner rings of the planet.

A

d. the most oblate planet in the solar system.

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64
Q 
The \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_
meteorites could have formed in the crust of a large asteroid that was later fragmented.
a. chondrite 
b. iron 
c. achondrite
d. M-type 
e. chondrule
A

a. chondrite

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65
Q

The short-period comets do
NOT have randomly oriented orbits because
a. they are affected by the sun’s gravity.
b. they are affected by the solar wind.
c. they formed in the Kuiper belt, a belt-shaped region in the plane of the solar system.
d. their orbits are altered by the drag of their ta
ils in the solar wind.
e. they all were originally objects ejected from th
e asteroid belt.

A

c. they formed in the Kuiper belt, a belt-shaped region in the plane of the solar system.

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66
Q

One theory suggests that the bodies in the Oort cloud formed

a. near the present orbits of the terrestrial planets.
b. near the present orbits of the Jovian planets.
c. at high temperatures.
d. from silicate materials.
e. outside of the original solar nebula

A

b. near the present orbits of the Jovian planets.

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67
Q 
\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_ are round bits of glass
found in some stony meteorites.
a. Chondrites 
b. Anorthosites 
c. Achondrites
d. Widmanstätten patterns 
e. Chondrules
A

e. Chondrules

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68
Q

The asteroid Ida has an irregular surface and h
as a small moon that orbits it. What does this
information tell us about Ida?
a. Ida is geologically active.
b. Ida has been fragmented.
c. Ida is differentiated.
d. Ida is an M-type asteroid.
e. Ida is most likely an object that used to orbit
Jupiter, but was pulled out of orbit by a collision

A

b. Ida has been fragmented.

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69
Q

If a large comet struck Earth,
I. large amounts of molten rock would rain down on Earth and cause massive forest fires.
II. the polar ice caps would melt.
III. large amounts of radioactive material would cause the deaths of most animal life on the planet.
IV. thick clouds of dust would form and block out t
he sun for an extended period.
a. I & IV
b. II & III
c. I, II, & III
d. I, II, & IV e. II, III, & IV

A

a. I & IV

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70
Q
  1. The orbit of Pluto is
    a. nearly perfectly circular.
    b. highly elliptical and lying almost exactly within the plane of the ecliptic.
    c. nearly circular, but inclined about 23.5° to the ecliptic.
    d. highly elliptical and, at times, brings the planet closer to the sun than Neptune.
    e. none of the above.
A

d. highly elliptical and, at times, brings the planet closer to the sun than Neptune.

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71
Q

Evidence of a thin atmosphere on Pluto was found during

a. an eclipse of Pluto by Charon.
b. spectroscopic observations of an occultation of a star.
c. an eclipse of Charon by Pluto.
d. the Voyager spacecraft flyby.
e. the Galileo spacecraft flyby

A

b. spectroscopic observations of an occultation of a star.

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72
Q

The three broad categories of meteorites are

a. chondrites, chondrules, and achondrites.
b. carbon, nickel, and stony.
c. iron, stony-iron, and stony.
d. igneous, basalt, and breccia.
e. accreted, differentiated, and sublimated.

A

c. iron, stony-iron, and stony.

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73
Q

Of the following celestial objects, the one that is the most likely source of the gravitational
disturbance that prevented the asteroids from forming a planet is
a. the sun.
b. Saturn.
c. Jupiter.
d. Mars.
e. Neptune.

A

c. Jupiter.

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74
Q

The condensation sequence predicts that asteroids consisting of carbonaceous material would form

a. in the inner solar system where it is warmer.
b. at random locations then migrating to the outer asteroid belt due to the gravitational influence
of Jupiter and Saturn.
c. in the outer solar system where it is very cold.
d. between the orbits of Jupiter and Saturn.
e. in the outer asteroid belt where it is cooler

A

e. in the outer asteroid belt where it is cooler

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75
Q

Once the nucleus of a comet begins to melt and vaporize, it produces a vast cloud of gas and dust called the

a. coma.
b. dust tail.
c. gas tail.
d. corona.
e. core.

A

a. coma

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76
Q

Europa has few craters because

1) it is protected from impacts by Jupiter’s gravity.
2) it does not have a solid surface.
3) it has erased craters nearly as fast as they have formed.
4) its surface is not strong enough to support craters.
5) it keeps one face always pointed toward Jupiter, which screens it from incoming meteorites.

A

3) it has erased craters nearly as fast as they have formed.

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77
Q 
Which of the following have wavelengths that are shorter than visible light?
I. gamma rays
II. ultraviolet (UV) light
III. infrared Radiation
IV. X rays

a. I and II b. I and IV c. II and III d. II, III, and IV e. I, II, and IV

A

e. I, II, and IV

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78
Q

Astronomers build telescopes on tops of mountains because

a. there is less air to dim the light.
b. the seeing is better.
c. charge-coupled devices (CCDs) work better when there is less oxygen in the air.
d. all of the above are true.
e. a and b are true.

A

e. a and b are true.

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79
Q

A new generation of telescopes is currently being built that overcomes the limitations of the older large telescopes. Some of these new telescopes

a. use segmented mirrors.
b. use mirrors that are very thin.
c. use active optics to control the shape of the mirror.
d. all of the above.
e. none of the above.

A

d. all of the above.

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80
Q

The _____________________ of a telescope is a measure of its ability to show fine detail and depends on the diameter of the objective.

a. light-gathering power b. focal length c. magnifying power d. resolving power
e. spherical aberration

A

d. resolving power

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81
Q

Photons of blue light

a. have a greater energy than photons of red light.
b. have a greater energy than photons of ultraviolet light.
c. have a lower frequency than photons of red light.
d. have a longer wavelength than photons of red light.
e. travel at a greater speed than photons of red light.

A

a. have a greater energy than photons of red light.

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82
Q

Which of the following types of electromagnetic radiation has the highest frequency?
a. X rays b. visible light c. radio d. gamma rays e. infrared radiation

A

d. gamma rays

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83
Q

Increasing the diameter of a telescope does which of the following?
I. It increases its light-gathering power.
II. It increases the resolving power.
III. It increases its magnifying power.
IV. It increases its chromatic aberration

a. I, II, III, & IV b. I, II, & III c. I, II, & IV d. III & IV e. I & II

A

e. I & II

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84
Q

A nanometer is a unit of

a. frequency. b. energy. c. mass. d. length. e. resolving power.

A

d. length.

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85
Q

A “particle of light” refers to

a. a proton. b. a neutron. c. an electron. d. a photon. e. a quark

A

d. a photon.

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86
Q

The two types of electromagnetic radiation to which our atmosphere is MOST transparent are the

a. X rays and ultraviolet radiation.
b. infrared radiation and radio waves.
c. visible light and radio waves.
d. gamma rays and visible light.
e. radio waves and ultraviolet radiation.

A

c. visible light and radio waves.

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87
Q

The resolution of radio telescopes has been improved by

a. spectrographs. b. charge-coupled devices. c. photometers. d.interferometers.
e. amplified receivers.

A

d. interferometers.

88
Q

Most infrared radiation CANNOT reach Earth’s surface through its atmosphere because it is absorbed by

a. water vapor at lower altitudes. b. ozone at middle altitudes. c. ions at very high altitudes.
d. nitrogen at any altitude. e. ozone at high altitudes.

A

a. water vapor at lower altitudes.

89
Q

Of the following list of varieties of electromagnetic radiation, which list is presented in the correct order of energy, from highest to lowest?

a. X rays, ultraviolet, radio waves, visible light, infrared
b. ultraviolet, gamma rays, visible light, radio waves, infrared
c. X rays, ultraviolet, visible light, infrared, radio waves
d. radio waves, infrared, visible light, ultraviolet, X rays
e. visible light, infrared, radio, ultraviolet, X rays, gamma rays

A

c. X rays, ultraviolet, visible light, infrared, radio waves

90
Q

The life zone, or habitable zone, is

a. the region on a planet where conditions are acceptable for life to exist.
b. a region around a star where a planet’s temperature would permit the existence of liquid water.
c. very small for a massive star.
d. only found around G and K stars.
e. a region on a young planet where amino acids can begin to form DNA molecules.

A

b. a region around a star where a planet’s temperature would permit the existence of liquid water.

91
Q

The survival of technological societies limits

a. the size of the average planet.
b. the number of communicative civilizations in our galaxy.
c. the intensity and power of the 21-cm radiation.
d. their ability to travel the distance to Earth.
e. the number of high mass stars in the galaxy that can sustain a solar system

A

b. the number of communicative civilizations in our galaxy.

92
Q

How can non-professional astronomers help with the SETI search?

a. They can use radio telescopes to listen to many stars at the same time.
b. They can use radio telescopes to listen to many frequencies at the same time.
c. They can download a screensaver program that uses home computers to analyze SETI data.
d. They can use radio telescopes to transmit many frequencies at the same time.
e. They can look for planets like Earth in other galaxies

A

c. They can download a screensaver program that uses home computers to analyze SETI data.

93
Q

The frequencies of radio emissions between hydrogen and OH is referred to as the water hole. This region of the radio spectrum is

a. near the radio emission of water.
b. near the radio emission of oxygen molecules.
c. also between the radio emission of hydrogen and oxygen.
d. the most likely region for communication with other civilizations.
e. near the radio band where water in Earth’s atmosphere strongly absorbs energy.

A

d. the most likely region for communication with other civilizations.

94
Q

An offspring born with altered DNA because of errors in reproduction

a. is called a mutant.
b. is called a new species.
c. is more likely to survive than if its DNA were not altered.
d. is no different than if its DNA were unchanged.
e. will never be able to reproduce itself.

A

a. is called a mutant.

95
Q

The Jovian planets are unlikely candidates for life to have begun. The main reason is that

a. pressures within the atmospheres of these worlds would have prevented liquid water from forming.
b. temperatures within the atmospheres of these worlds would be too high for life to begin.
c. temperatures within the atmospheres of these worlds would be too low for life to begin.
d. no solid surface exists to allow oceans to form and nurture the beginnings of life.
e. none of the above

A

d. no solid surface exists to allow oceans to form and nurture the beginnings of life.

96
Q

ALH84001

a. is a meteorite that suggested that life evolved on Mars. The validity of the claim is highly questionable.
b. is the compound used by Miller to begin his experiment to produce amino acids.
c. is the amino acid produced in the Miller experiment.
d. is the molecule that controls the reproduction of DNA within a cell.
e. is the molecule that acts as DNA’s messenger that assembles proteins from amino acids.

A

a. is a meteorite that suggested that life evolved on Mars. The validity of the claim is highly questionable.

97
Q

The physical basis for life is the carbon atom. This atom

a. is more abundant than silicon.
b. is capable of forming long, complex, stable chains that extract, store, and use energy.
c. can replicate itself in a variety of environments.
d. releases energy when it bonds with other elements, thus providing the necessary requirements to sustain the organism.
e. does all of the above

A

b. is capable of forming long, complex, stable chains that extract, store, and use energy.

98
Q

At present, the number of civilizations in our galaxy known to be capable of communication is
a. one. b. two. c. approximately 100. d. uncounted. e. none

A

a. one.

99
Q

Silicon is an unlikely element for the basis of life because it

a. is less abundant than carbon.
b. is more abundant than carbon.
c. is more chemically active than carbon.
d. forms weaker bonds than carbon.
e. none of the above.

A

d. forms weaker bonds than carbon.

100
Q

The DNA molecule can be altered

a. by chance mismatching of base pairs.
b. by damage from exposure to radioactivity.
c. if the host cell is intelligent and determines that an alteration would help the cell survive.
d. through all of the above.
e. through a and b above.

A

e. through a and b above.

101
Q

The first complex life began during the Cambrian period as evidenced by fossils of
a. land plants. b. land animals. c. insects. d. simple ocean creatures. e. fish.

A

d. simple ocean creatures.

102
Q

The Miller experiment did not create life, nor did the gases used resemble Earth’s first atmosphere as we presently understand it. The experiment was important because it

a. showed that complex organic molecules can form under a variety of circumstances.
b. synthesized the carbon atom.
c. produced a DNA by-product that eventually leads to RNA and other bases.
d. produced RNA, which later formed proteins out of the amino acids.
e. synthesized the four bases needed for the production of DNA.

A

a. showed that complex organic molecules can form under a variety of circumstances.

103
Q

Single stars are most likely to have planets suitable for life because

a. they are the most abundant type of star.
b. these stars would allow planets to have stable orbits.
c. planets have already been found around several single stars.
d. these stars have the longest life expectancy and most stable energy production.
e. these stars are the smallest and live the longest

A

b. these stars would allow planets to have stable orbits.

104
Q

The stars most likely to have inhabited planets are G and K main-sequence stars because

a. they have reasonably large life zones.
b. their life expectancy is long enough for life to form and evolve.
c. they burn their nuclear fuel at an even and consistent rate.
d. all of the above.
e. none of the above.

A

b. their life expectancy is long enough for life to form and evolve.

105
Q

A key to understanding life is learning how a living organism

a. behaves chemically.
b. behaves in an isolated environment.
c. bonds carbon and silicon.
d. responds to a changing environment.
e. stores, uses, and duplicates information.

A

e. stores, uses, and duplicates information.

106
Q

The type of element an atom is depends solely on the number of ___________________ it has.

a. protons
b. neutrons.
c. electrons.
d. neutrinos
e. photons.

A

a. protons

107
Q

An atom with the same number of protons, but a different number of electrons is called a(n)

a. neutrino.
b. molecule.
c. photon.
d. isotope.
e. ion.

A

e. ion

108
Q

An atom with the same number of protons, but a different number of neutrons is called a(n)

a. neutrino.
b. molecule.
c. photon.
d. isotope.
e. ion.

A

d. isotope

109
Q

The type of subatomic particle that has a low mass, has a negative charge, and whirls around the nucleus in a cloud is a(n)

a. proton.
b. neutron.
c. electron.
d. neutrino.
e. positron.

A

c. electron

110
Q

Light from a hot, low-density gas will produce what type of spectrum?

a. absorption
b. Lyman
c. continuous
d. emission

A

d. emission

111
Q

Light from a hot, dense object will produce what type of spectrum?

a. absorption
b. Lyman
c. continuous
d. emission

A

c. continuous

112
Q

Light passing through a cool, low-density gas will produce what type of spectrum?

a. absorption
b. Lyman
c. continuous
d. emission

A

a. absorption

113
Q

Which of the following spectral classes has stars with the hottest temperature?

a. A
b. B
c. F
d. G
e. K

A

b. B

114
Q

Of the transitions in the hydrogen atom, the series of spectral lines that are produced mainly in the visible portion of the spectrum is the

a. Paschen series.
b. Fraunhofer series.
c. Lyman series.
d. Doppler series.
e. Balmer series.

A

e. Balmer series

115
Q

As a star moves away from us, the light from it would have its wavelengths

a. shortened.
b. lengthened.
c. unchanged
d. amplified.
e. diminished

A

b. lengthened

116
Q

Absolute zero is

a. zero degrees Celsius.
b. the temperature at which atoms have no remaining energy from which we can extract heat.
c. the temperature at which water freezes.
d. both a and c.
e. none of the above.

A

b. the temperature at which atoms have no remaining energy from which we can extract heat.

117
Q

An atom can be excited *There was an error when this one was imputed it should be both B and C. So you got it correct if you answered either B or C.

a. if it emits a photon.
b. if it collides with another atom or electron.
c. if it absorbs a photon.
d. if b and c occur.
e. if a and c occur.

A

d. if b and c occur

118
Q

The ______________________ of a gas is a measure of the average speed of the particles in the gas.

a. heat
b. composition
c. temperature
d. blueshift
e. binding energy

A

c. temperature

119
Q

The lowest energy level in an atom is

a. the absolute zero temperature.
b. the ground state.
c. the ionization level
d. responsible for Doppler shifts.
e. the energy level from which the Paschen series of hydrogen originates.

A

b. the ground state

120
Q

The two most abundant elements in the sun are

a. nitrogen and oxygen.
b. hydrogen and helium.
c. sulfur and iron.
d. carbon and hydrogen.
e. carbon and nitrogen.

A

b. hydrogen and helium.

121
Q 
A plot of the continuous spectra of five different stars is shown in the figure below. Based on these spectra, which of the stars has the lowest temperature?
pg113
a. Star A
b. Star B
c. Star C
d. Star D
e. Star E
A

e. Star E

122
Q

Two stars of the same spectral class must have

a. the same radius.
b. the same temperature.
c. the same mass.
d. the same distance.
e. all of the above.

A

b. the same temperature.

123
Q

The diameter of the sun’s visible surface is about ____________________ that of Earth.

a. the same as
b. ten times greater than
c. 100 times greater than
d. 1,000 times greater than
e. 10,000 times greater than

A

c. 100 times greater than

124
Q

How many hydrogen nuclei does it take in the proton–proton chain reaction to make one helium nucleus?

a. 0
b. 1
c. 2
d. 3
e. 4

A

e. 4

125
Q

Sunspots are darker because they are

a. hotter than the surrounding material.
b. cooler than the surrounding material.
c. moving toward us.
d. moving away from us.
e. none of the above.

A

b. cooler than the surrounding material.

126
Q

Using the proton–proton chain, hydrogen is converted to

a. lithium.
b. calcium.
c. iron.
d. helium.
e. oxygen.

A

d. helium.

127
Q

What percentage of the total mass of the sun will be converted into energy over its ten-billion-year lifetime?
a. 0.07% b. 7% c. 17% d. 70% e. 97

A

a. 0.07%

128
Q

When the energy in the solar wind is guided by Earth’s magnetic field, it excites gases in Earth’s upper atmosphere, producing

a. lightning.
b. granules.
c. auroras.
d. flares.
e. all of the above

A

c. auroras.

129
Q

Which is not one of the four fundamental forces in nature?

a. electromagnetic
b. weak nuclear
c. strong nuclear
d. friction
e. gravity

A

d. friction

130
Q

How are neutrinos observed?

a. by using a large tank of cleaning fluid buried deep in beneath Earth’s surface
b. by using spectral observations
c. by using a radio receiver
d. by using a Schmidt-Cassegrain focus
e. by using a magneto-hydrodynamic detector

A

a. by using a large tank of cleaning fluid buried deep in beneath Earth’s surface

131
Q

Differential rotation of the sun

a. causes the heating in the chromosphere and corona that makes them hotter than the photosphere.
b. is caused by the magnetic dynamo inside the sun.
c. implies that the equatorial regions of the sun rotate more rapidly than the polar regions.
d. causes the sunspots to migrate slowly from the equator toward the poles as the sun rotates.
e. implies that the sun’s southern hemisphere and northern hemisphere rotate in opposite directions.

A

c. implies that the equatorial regions of the sun rotate more rapidly than the polar regions.

132
Q

Nuclear power plants on Earth generate energy through

a. nuclear fission.
b. nuclear fusion.
c. convection.
d. conduction.
e. radiation.

A

a. nuclear fission.

133
Q

The centers of granules

a. are hot material rising to the photosphere from below.
b. are cool material falling from the photosphere to the regions below.
c. are fainter and hotter than their surroundings.
d. are brighter and cooler than their surroundings.
e. show strong Zeeman effects.

A

a. are hot material rising to the photosphere from below.

134
Q

A recent sunspot maximum occurred in 2001. What is the year of the sunspot maximum that immediately follows the 2001 maximum if the solar cycle continues?

a. 2006 or 2007
b. 2012
c. 2018
d. 2023
e. The last cycle started a Maunder minimum, and the next maximum cannot be predicted.

A

b. 2012

135
Q

Which of the following is suggested as the best explanation of the missing solar neutrinos?

a. The sun is fusing helium but not hydrogen.
b. Nuclear reactions do not produce neutrinos as fast as theory predicts.
c. The sun may contain matter we haven’t yet identified.
d. Neutrinos may oscillate between three different flavors.
e. None of the above are accurate.

A

d. Neutrinos may oscillate between three different flavors.

136
Q

Which stars are the rarest?

a. red dwarfs
b. white dwarfs
c. G type
d. F type
e. O type

A

e. O type

137
Q

Which of the following conditions would make it easier to measure parallax?

a. if Earth’s orbit were larger
b. if the stars were farther away
c. if Earth moved faster along its orbit
d. all of the above
e. none of the above

A

a. if Earth’s orbit were larger

138
Q

We know that giant stars are larger in diameter than the sun because

a. they are more luminous but have about the same temperature.
b. they are less luminous but have about the same temperature.
c. they are hotter but have about the same luminosity.
d. they are cooler but have about the same luminosity.
e. they have a larger absolute magnitude than the sun.

A

a. they are more luminous but have about the same temperature.

139
Q

In a binary system, the more massive star

a. is at the center of mass .
b. is farthest from the center of mass.
c. is nearest the center of mass.
d. follows the largest orbit.
e. shows a larger Doppler shift in its spectral lines.

A

c. is nearest the center of mass.

140
Q 
Which star in the H–R diagram below is most like the sun?
pg148
a. Alnilam 
b. Antares 
c. Arcturus 
d. HR 5337 
e. Sirius B
A

d. HR 5337

141
Q 
Which star in the table below has the greatest surface temperature?
Star Nm   |  d    | Parallax | Spectral Type
\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_
65 Tau     |         |    0.025 |   A7 IV
\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_
HR 4621  |         |       	  |   B2 IV
\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_
α Pic        | 20   | 		  |   A7 V
\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_
58 Ori	|	  |  0.005	  |   M2 I
\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_
HR 2491  | 2.5	  |	           |   A1 V

a. 65 Tau
b. HR 4621
c. α Pic
d. 58 Ori
e. HR 2491

A

b. HR 4621

142
Q

Opacity is

a. the balance between the pressure and force of gravity inside a star.
b. the force that binds protons and neutrons together to form a nucleus.
c. the force that binds an electron to the nucleus in an atom.
d. a measure of the ease with which photons can pass through a gas.
e. the temperature and density at which a gas will undergo thermonuclear fusion.

A

d. a measure of the ease with which photons can pass through a gas.

143
Q 
Which star in the table below is the closest to Earth?
Star Nm   |  d    | Parallax | Spectral Type
\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_
δ Cen	 |       |  0.026	  |  B2 IV
\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_
HR 4607	 |       |  0.039	  |  G8 III
\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_
HR 4758	 | 20	 |	          |  G0 V
\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_
HR 39801 |	 |  0.005    |  M2 I
\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_
9 CMa	  | 2.5 |		   | A1 V
\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_
a. δ Cen 
b. HR 4607 
c. HR 4758 
d. HD 39801 
e. 9 CMa
A

e. 9 CMa

144
Q

__________________________ are starlike objects that contain less than 0.08 solar masses an will never raise their core temperatures to the point that the proton–proton chain can begin. They fall in a gap between the low-mass M dwarf stars and the massive planets.

a. Brown dwarfs
b. Herbig–Haro objects
c. Bok globules
d. T-Tauri star
e. Main-sequence stars

A

a. Brown dwarfs

145
Q

What causes the outward pressure that balances the inward pull of gravity in a star?

a. the outward flow of energy
b. the opacity of the gas
c. the temperature of the gas
d. the density of the gas
e. c and d

A

a. the outward flow of energy

146
Q

The main sequence has a limit at the lower end because

a. low-mass stars form from the interstellar medium very rarely.
b. low-mass objects are composed primarily of solids, not gases.
c. pressure does not depend on temperature in degenerate matter.
d. the lower limit represents when the radius of the star would be zero.
e. there is a minimum temperature for hydrogen fusion.

A

e. there is a minimum temperature for hydrogen fusion.

147
Q

Heat can be transferred by

a. conduction.
b. convection.
c. radiation.
d. all of these.
e. none of these

A

d. all of these.

148
Q

Giant and supergiant stars are rare because

a. they do not form as often as main-sequence stars.
b. the giant and supergiant stage is unstable.
c. the giant and supergiant stage is very short.
d. helium is very rare.
e. helium flash destroys many of the stars before they can become giants and supergiants.

A

c. the giant and supergiant stage is very short.

149
Q

Planetary nebulae are

a. the expanding shells of a dying star.
b. the site of planet formation.
c. the leftovers after a star explodes as a supernova.
d. the birthplace of stars.
e. none of these.

A

a. the expanding shells of a dying star. d. the birthplace of stars.

150
Q

The lowest-mass stars cannot become giants because

a. they do not contain helium.
b. they rotate too slowly.
c. they cannot heat their centers hot enough.
d. they contain strong magnetic fields.
e. they never use up their hydrogen.

A

c. they cannot heat their centers hot enough.

151
Q

What is the approximate age of the star cluster in the diagram below?
L10Q14StarCluster
a. 2 million years
b. 2 billion years
c. 10 billion years
d. 100 billion years
e. The age of the cluster can not be estimated from an H–R diagram of the cluster.

A

c. 10 billion years

152
Q

A nova is almost always associated with

a. a very massive star.
b. a very young star.
c. a star undergoing a helium flash.
d. a white dwarf in a close binary system.
e. a solarlike star that has exhausted its hydrogen and helium.

A

d. a white dwarf in a close binary system.

153
Q

Stars with masses between 0.4 M and 4 M

a. undergo thermonuclear fusion of hydrogen and helium, but never get hot enough to ignite carbon.
b. undergo thermonuclear fusion of hydrogen, but never get hot enough to ignite helium.
c. produce type I supernovae after they exhaust their nuclear fuels.
d. produce type II supernovae after they exhaust their nuclear fuels.
e. undergo carbon detonation.

A

a. undergo thermonuclear fusion of hydrogen and helium, but never get hot enough to ignite carbon.

154
Q

If a cluster of stars is rich in T-Tauri stars, it is

a. a very old cluster.
b. a very big cluster.
c. a very young cluster.
d. a very small cluster.
e. a very cold cluster.

A

c. a very young cluster.

155
Q

How do the highest-mass stars end their lives?

a. gently puffing off their outer layers
b. slowly collapsing
c. as a recurring nova
d. by destroying themselves in a spectacular, violent explosion
e. none of these

A

d. by destroying themselves in a spectacular, violent explosion

156
Q

You can determine the age of a cluster of stars by the life expectancy of the stars where on the H–R diagram?

a. the birth line
b. the zero-age main sequence
c. the horizontal branch
d. the turnoff point
e. the white dwarf region

A

d. the turnoff point

157
Q

The density of a neutron star is

a. about the same as that of a white dwarf.
b. about the same as that of the sun.
c. about the same as an atomic nucleus.
d. about the same as a water molecule.
e. smaller than expected because the magnetic field is so strong.

A

c. about the same as an atomic nucleus.

158
Q

The first pulsar was discovered by _______________ in November of 1967.

a. Jocelyn Bell
b. Isaac Newton
c. Albert Einstein
d. Walter Baade
e. Edwin Hubble

A

a. Jocelyn Bell

159
Q
  1. The ________________ of a black hole is the radius from a black hole at which the escape velocity is equal to the speed of light.
    a. Roche limit
    b. Lagrangian point
    c. Chandrasekhar limit
    d. Hubble radius
    e. event horizon
A

e. event horizon

160
Q

In a.d. 1054, Chinese astronomers observed the appearance of a new star, whose location is now occupied by

a. a pulsar.
b. a neutron star.
c. a supernova remnant.
d. all of the above.
e. a and b.

A

d. all of the above

161
Q

As material flows into a black hole,

a. the material will experience time dilation.
b. the material will become hotter.
c. the material will produce an absorption spectrum.
d. the material will appear to us to fall into the black hole very rapidly.
e. a and b occur.

A

e. a and b occur.

162
Q

Millisecond pulsars that are very old are

a. believed to be the result of mass transfer from a companion that increases the mass of the pulsar.
b. all single objects.
c. not spinning as rapidly they seem because they have four hot spots that produce the flashes.
d. X ray binaries.
e. gamma-ray bursters.

A

a. believed to be the result of mass transfer from a companion that increases the mass of the pulsar.

163
Q

If you replaced our sun with a one-solar-mass black hole, Earth would

a. be sucked into the black hole.
b. be flung into space.
c. turn into a black hole itself.
d. maintain its orbit.
e. explode from the tidal forces

A

d. maintain its orbit.

164
Q

If a stellar remnant is less than 0.08 solar masses, the resulting object will be a

a. brown dwarf.
b. red dwarf.
c. white dwarf.
d. neutron star.
e. black hole.

A

a. brown dwarf.

165
Q

Who first calibrated the Cepheid variable stars for use in determining distance?

a. Henrietta Leavitt
b. Edwin Hubble
c. John Glenn
d. Carl Sagan
e. Harlow Shapley

A

e. Harlow Shapley

166
Q

Our galaxy is suspected to be surrounded by a galactic corona because the disk of the galaxy

a. rotates faster than expected in its outer region.
b. rotates more slowly than expected in its outer region.
c. rotates faster than expected in its inner region.
d. rotates more slowly than expected in its inner region.
e. is much flatter than expected.

A

a. rotates faster than expected in its outer region.

167
Q

Younger stars have more heavy elements because

a. old stars destroy heavy elements as they age.
b. young stars burn their nuclear fuels faster.
c. the heavy elements were made in previous generations of stars.
d. heavy elements haven’t had time to settle to the core of these younger stars.
e. all of these statements are true.

A

c. the heavy elements were made in previous generations of stars.

168
Q

The first stars to form in our galaxy

a. had circular orbits.
b. had highly elliptical orbits.
c. were population I stars.
d. all had orbits in the same plane.
e. formed the galactic clusters we see today.

A

b. had highly elliptical orbits.

169
Q

The ________________ in other galaxies should contain luminous O and B stars if they are like the Milky Way.

a. halos
b. bulges
c. spiral arms
d. globular clusters
e. coronas

A

c. spiral arms

170
Q

__________________ first noticed that for Cepheid variable stars, there was a direct relation between the luminosity and the period of the variation in their brightness.

a. Henrietta Leavitt
b. Edwin Hubble
c. John Glenn
d. Carl Sagan
e. Annie Cannon

A

a. Henrietta Leavitt

171
Q 
Population II stars 
I. are primarily found in the disk of the galaxy.
II. contain more heavy metals than population I stars.
III. are primarily old, low-mass stars.
IV. are located in globular clusters.
a. III & IV 
b. I & II 
c. II 
d. IV 
e. I, II, & III
A

a. III & IV

172
Q

The age of the Milky Way Galaxy has been estimated to be at least 13 billion years based on

a. observations of globular clusters.
b. observations of open clusters.
c. 21-cm radiation from HI regions.
d. the rotation curve of the galaxy.
e. the energy produced by Sagittarius A*.

A

a. observations of globular clusters

173
Q

The traditional theory states that our galaxy formed

a. as a large spherical cloud of gas that was rotating very slowly.
b. from a large cloud of material that broke off from a larger galaxy.
c. from material that had been ejected in the violent explosion of a dying galaxy.
d. as a result of mergers between several smaller groups of gas, dust, and stars.
e. as two massive galaxies collided.

A

a. as a large spherical cloud of gas that was rotating very slowly.

174
Q

In which portion of the spectrum is the core of the galaxy invisible?

a. infrared
b. visible
c. gamma ray
d. X ray
e. radio

A

b. visible

175
Q

Sgr A* is believed to be the center of the Milky Way Galaxy because

I. It lies in the general direction of the center of the galaxy based on observations of globular clusters.
II. It is located near the galactic corona.
III. It is easily visible with optical telescopes and has the appearance of a massive black hole.
IV. It does not move with respect to the rest of the galaxy.

a. I & II
b. II & III
c. I & IV
d. II & IV
e. I, III, & IV

A

c. I & IV

176
Q

The lower limit of the mass of the galaxy is

a. 100 solar masses.
b. 100,000 solar masses.
c. 100 million solar masses.
d. 100 billion solar masses
e. 100 trillion solar masses.

A

d. 100 billion solar masses

177
Q

Halo population stars have
I. circular orbits in the plane of the galaxy.
II. randomly tipped, elliptical orbits.
III. old stars with low metal content.
IV. young stars with heavy metal content.

a. I and II
b. I and III
c. II and III
d. II and IV
e. I and IV

A

c. II and III

178
Q 
Disk population stars have 
I. circular orbits in the plane of the galaxy
II. randomly tipped, elliptical orbits
III. old stars with low metal content
IV. young stars with heavy metal content

a. I and II
b. I and III
c. II and III
d. II and IV
e. I and IV

A

e. I and IV

179
Q

_______________________ have elongated nuclei with spiral structure extending from the ends of the elongations. The Milky Way is a member of this class of galaxy.

a. Spiral galaxies
b. Barred spiral galaxies
c. Elliptical galaxies
d. Irregular galaxies
e. S0 galaxies

A

b. Barred spiral galaxies

180
Q

Gravitational lensing

a. occurs when light passes near a massive object and is deflected by the object’s gravitational field.
b. can be used to determine the luminosity of a galaxy.
c. occurs when the mass of a galaxy is greater than expected from the luminosity of the galaxy.
d. occurs when the mass of a galaxy is less than expected from the luminosity of the galaxy.
e. can be used to determine the recessional velocity of a galaxy

A

a. occurs when light passes near a massive object and is deflected by the object’s gravitational field.

181
Q 
The Milky Way is part of 
I. a poor cluster.
II. a rich cluster.
III. the Virgo Cluster.
IV. the Local Group.

a. I and III
b. I and IV
c. II and III
d. II and IV
e. just III

A

b. I and IV

182
Q

The types of galaxies that cover the widest range of diameters and luminosities are

a. spiral galaxies.
b. elliptical galaxies.
c. irregular galaxies.
d. starburst galaxies.
e. ring galaxies.

A

b. elliptical galaxies.

183
Q

Astronomers now speculate that a galaxy’s shape depends on all of the following except

a. the rate of star formation.
b. the history of past collisions.
c. the mass.
d. the chemical composition.
e. the number of mergers.

A

d. the chemical composition.

184
Q

Why do scientists expect galaxies to collide fairly often?

a. Galaxies are large with respect to their separation distances.
b. Galaxies contain large amounts of neutral hydrogen.
c. Galaxies occur in clusters.
d. a and c
e. none of the above

A

d. a and c

185
Q

___________ galaxies contain large clouds of gas and dust, both young and old stars, but have no obvious spiral arms or nucleus.

a. Irregular
b. S0
c. E7
d. Sa
e. E0

A

a. Irregular

186
Q

It is believed that ring galaxies form

a. when two galaxies collide nearly head-on at high speed.
b. when two spiral galaxies collide, but not directly head-on.
c. from a large cloud of gas and dust with very little angular momentum.
d. from a large cloud of gas and dust with a very high angular momentum.
e. when more than two galaxies collide at the same time.

A

a. when two galaxies collide nearly head-on at high speed.

187
Q

An elliptical galaxy could

a. evolve into an irregular galaxy when it has used up all of its gas and dust.
b. be formed from the collision and merger of spiral galaxies.
c. evolve from a single spiral galaxy when the spiral has used up all of its gas and dust.
d. become a starburst galaxy if it were to move through the hot intergalactic medium of a cluster.
e. evolve from an S0 galaxy if the S0 galaxy were to increase its rotation rate.

A

b. be formed from the collision and merger of spiral galaxies.

188
Q

Supermassive black holes are believed to be located at the center of many galaxies because
a. the rotation curve of the galaxy indicates that 90 percent of the galaxy is dark matter.
b. the orbital motion of material near the center is very fast and indicates a very massive core.
c. the shape of the bulge in all spiral galaxies can only be supported by a supermassive black hole.
d. the spiral structure requires a black hole to maintain the spiral arms.
e. the orbital speeds of a globular clusters in the galaxy are greater than the speed of light.
Andromeda Galaxy. e. the Horsehead nebula.

A

b. the orbital motion of material near the center is very fast and indicates a very massive core.

189
Q

The Milky Way Galaxy is a cannibal galaxy. It is currently snacking on

a. the Virgo cluster of galaxies.
b. the Magellanic Clouds.
c. the Andromeda Galaxy.
d. the Orion cluster of galaxies
e. the Horsehead nebula.

A

b. the Magellanic Clouds.

190
Q

What is the chance that stars from two interacting galaxies will collide?

a. fairly certain
b. likely
c. about 50/50
d. almost nil
e. It is impossible to determine.

A

d. almost nil

191
Q

The Hubble Deep Field and the GOODS images reveal tremendous numbers of galaxies. How many galaxies are estimated to be visible with today’s telescopes?

a. more than one million
b. more than 100 million
c. more than one billion
d. more than 100 billion
e. more than a trillion

A

d. more than 100 billion

192
Q

Observations of galaxies and clusters of galaxies reveal that our universe is _____________ percent dark matter.

a. 1 to 2
b. 5 to 10
c. 20 to 25
d. 50 to 55
e. 80 to 90

A

e. 80 to 90

193
Q

A galaxy that interacts with another galaxy causing many hot, bright, blue stars to be formed is called

a. a starburst galaxy.
b. a pinwheel galaxy.
c. an elliptical galaxy.
d. a spiral galaxy.
e. a barred spiral galaxy.

A

a. a starburst galaxy

194
Q

That the radio lobes radiate synchrotron radiation indicates that

a. high-speed electrons are spiraling through a magnetic field.
b. the source of the radio jets must be a black hole.
c. the source of the radio energy is rotating rapidly.
d. the central galaxy must be a giant elliptical galaxy.
e. the central galaxy must rotate about two nearly perpendicular axes.

A

a. high-speed electrons are spiraling through a magnetic field.

195
Q

Quasars must be small because they

a. have high radial velocities.
b. are very luminous.
c. are surrounded by quasar fuzz.
d. radiate huge amounts of energy.
e. fluctuate rapidly.

A

e. fluctuate rapidly.

196
Q

Which of the following offers evidence that supports the theory that quasars are the nuclei of very distant galaxies?

a. the existence of quasar fuzz
b. having high apparent redshifts
c. gravitational lensing of some quasars by nearby galaxies
d. all of the above
e. none of the above

A

d. all of the above

197
Q

Which of the following is observed when light from a distant quasar travels past a massive galaxy between us and the quasar, and this light is focused to form two or more images of the same quasar?

a. a double-lobed radio galaxy
b. superluminal expansion
c. the gravitational lens effect
d. a blazar
e. gravitational waves

A

c. the gravitational lens effect

198
Q

Seyfert galaxies

a. are more common in close pairs of galaxies than in isolated systems.
b. emit more energy at X-ray, ultraviolet, infrared, or radio wavelengths than normal spiral galaxies.
c. generally show apparent redshifts greater than 6.
d. a and b
e. a, b, and c

A

d. a and b

199
Q

The unified model describes active galactic nuclei using

a. a supermassive black hole at the center of a normal spiral galaxy.
b. a supermassive black hole surrounded by an accretion disk and dense disk of gas.
c. an accretion disk around a neutron star.
d. gravitational lenses to intensify the radiation coming from them.
e. different lines of sight toward and dwarf irregular galaxy.

A

b. a supermassive black hole surrounded by an accretion disk and dense disk of gas

200
Q

Eruptions of supermassive black holes in quasars may have been caused by

a. novae.
b. collisions or mergers with other galaxies.
c. depleting all the material from the accretion disk.
d. supernovae.
e. all of the above.

A

b. collisions or mergers with other galaxies.

201
Q

Modern astronomers understand that the redshifts of the galaxies are caused by

a. the expansion of the universe.
b. the radial velocities of the galaxies.
c. the transverse velocities of the galaxies.
d. the radial expansion of gases in the galaxies themselves.
e. none of the above.

A

a. the expansion of the universe.

202
Q

Why doesn’t the core of our Milky Way shine as brightly as quasars?

a. It does shine as bright as a quasar.
b. Its supermassive black hole is mostly dormant.
c. It does not have a supermassive black hole at the core.
d. Its supermassive black hole is much, much smaller.
e. none of the above

A

b. Its supermassive black hole is mostly dormant.

203
Q

What triggers the nucleus of a galaxy into activity?

a. a nova explosion
b. a type I supernova explosion
c. a hypernova explosion
d. a type II supernova explosion
e. none of the above

A

e. none of the above

204
Q

Modern observations show that the universe is

a. open.
b. closed.
c. flat.
d. all of these.
e. none of these.

A

c. flat.

205
Q

In 1998, it was announced that the expansion of the universe is accelerating. What does this imply from the perspective of the big bang?

a. A force exists that we knew nothing about causes the expansion.
b. The universe must be closed.
c. The universe is finite.
d. The amount of dark matter must be far less than the amount of normal matter.
e. The universe must be infinitely old.

A

a. A force exists that we knew nothing about causes the expansion.

206
Q

The cosmic background radiation comes from a time in the evolution of the universe

a. when protons and neutrons were first formed.
b. when the big bang first began to expand.
c. that is known as the inflationary period.
d. when gamma rays had enough energy to destroy nuclei.
e. when electrons began to recombine with nuclei to form atoms.

A

e. when electrons began to recombine with nuclei to form atoms.

207
Q

The dark age ended

a. when the first supernovae occurred.
b. when the first stars were born.
c. when neutral hydrogen was formed through recombination.
d. when matter density overtook radiation density.
e. when dark matter fluctuated.

A

b. when the first stars were born.

208
Q

What did Einstein call his greatest blunder?

a. introducing a cosmological constant to his equations to balance gravity.
b. not believing the evidence that supported quantum mechanics.
c. developing the special theory of relativity.
d. not studying math and science earlier in school.
e. none of the above

A

a. introducing a cosmological constant to his equations to balance gravity.

209
Q

The observable universe
I. is the entire universe.
II. is the part of the universe we can see.
III. has a radius of 7 billion light-years.
IV. has a radius of 14 billion light-years.

a. I and III
b. I and IV
c. II and I
d. II and IV
e. I, II, and IV

A

d. II and IV

210
Q

The universe

a. has no edge and no center.
b. has a center but no edge.
c. has an edge but no center.
d. has an edge and a center.
e. has no dimensions that can ever be determined.

A

a. has no edge and no center.

211
Q

Which of these forces is not unified with the others in a Grand Unified Theory?
Question options:

a. gravitational force
b. strong force
c. electromagnetic force
d. weak force
e. They have all been shown to be unified.

A

a. gravitational force

212
Q

The largest structures in the universe are
Question options:

a. star clusters.
b. galaxy clusters.
c. galaxy superclusters.
d. filaments and voids.
e. galaxies.

A

d. filaments and voids.

213
Q

Olbers’s paradox deals with which of these questions?

a. Is the universe accelerating?
b. Why is the sky dark at night?
c. Is the universe expanding?
d. Why does the sun shine so brightly?
e. none of the above

A

b. Why is the sky dark at night?

214
Q

The big bang happened

a. in the Hyades cluster.
b. in the Virgo cluster.
c. in the Sagittarius spiral arm.
d. in the Andromeda Galaxy.
e. in all of these locations.

A

e. in all of these locations.

215
Q

What strong evidence found in the mid-1960s led to wide acceptance of the big bang theory of the universe?

a. the discovery of antimatter
b. the discovery of neutrinos
c. the discovery of Cepheids as standard candles
d. the discovery of the cosmic background radiation
e. the discovery of the 21 cm radiation for neutral hydrogen

A

d. the discovery of the cosmic background radiation

PCC Astronomy Odman (1 decks)

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