Final Flashcards

1
Q

Which hemodynamic system serves as a reservoir for circulating blood?

A

Veins

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2
Q

A patient has taken a medication that causes the arterioles to dilate. What will likely happen to the cardiac afterload?

A

It will decrease

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3
Q

Which drugs will lead the nurse to monitor a patient closely for reflex tachycardia?

A
  • A drug that dilates veins

* A drug that dilates arterioles

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4
Q

Which patient receiving losartan should be monitored closely while receiving this therapy?

A

The patient with an elevated creatine level

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5
Q

Which statement is true regarding the renin-angiotensin-aldosterone system?

A

Angiotensinogen is catalyzed by renin into angiotensin I

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6
Q

A patient with hypertension and left ventricular hypertrophy takes losartan mg daily. What is a benefit of this therapy for a patient with hypertension?

A

This medication decreases the risk of stroke

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7
Q

The nurse is caring for a patient prescribed aliskiren. How does this medication lower blood pressure?

A

It inhibits the conversion of angiotensinogen to angiotensin I

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8
Q

The nurse is caring for a patient who takes an angiotensin-converting enzyme (ACE) inhibitor. If the patient develops a persistent nonproductive cough, what should the nurse do?

A

Notify the provider of the new development

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9
Q

The nurse administers candesartan to a patient. Which assessment finding should the nurse use as a clinical indicator of the therapeutic effectiveness of the medication?

A

Blood pressure reduction

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10
Q

For which purpose should the nurse administer aliskiren to a patient with hypertension?

A

To reduce blood pressure

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11
Q

Which medication is most likely to cause constipation?

A

Diltiazem

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12
Q

Which patient finding would cause the nurse to hold the 8 a.m. dose of verapamil?

A

The patient has hypotension

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13
Q

What is the most appropriate nursing consideration for a patient who is prescribed verapamil and digoxin?

A

Notify the healthcare provider of nausea, vomiting, and visual changes

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14
Q

A patient develops hypotension after administration of verapamil. Which intervention is appropriate?

A

Place in modified Trendelenburg position

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15
Q

A patient is receiving nifedipine. Which adverse effect should the nurse monitor for this patient?

A

Ankle edema

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16
Q

A staff member asks how calcium channel blockers (CCBs) work. Which response should the nurse provide?

A

CCBs relax vascular smooth muscle

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17
Q

The nurse is caring for patients receiving vasodilators. Which instruction should the nurse give the patients to combat a common adverse effect?

A

Rise slowly from a sitting to standing position

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18
Q

The nurse is preparing to administer minoxidil 5mg orally. What is the only cardiovascular indication for this medication?

A

Severe hypotension

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19
Q

A patient is taking minoxidil and develops hypertrichosis. Which area should the nurse assess first?

A

Face

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20
Q

which assessment finding is most important for the nurse to obtain before administering hydralazine?

A

Blood pressure

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21
Q

The nurse is caring for a patient with a ventricular dysrhythmia resulting from digoxin toxicity. Which medication does the nurse anticipates the health care provider will prescribe?

A

Phenytoin

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22
Q

Which statement by a patient demonstrates correct understanding of the nurse’s teaching about quinidine?

A

I should call my provider immediately if my ears are ringing

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23
Q

Which should the nurse teach a patient who is diagnosed with nonsustained ventricular tachycardia?

A

The risk of drug therapy outweighs the benefits for this disorder in most cases

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24
Q

Before administering amiodarone, what is the most important assessment for the nurse to complete?

A

Heart rate

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25
Q

The cardiac monitor alarm alerts the nurse that the patient is experiencing paroxysmal supraventricular tachycardia (PSVT) with a heart rate of 180 bets/min; the nurse would expect to administer which injectable, fast-acting medication?

A

Adenosine

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26
Q

The nurse should teach a patient with intractable atrial fibrillation about which characteristic of amiodarone?

A

This drug has some server toxicities

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27
Q

The nurse is caring for a patient prescribed quinidine for a supraventricular dysrhythmia. Which is a common side effect of this drug?

A

Diarrhea

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28
Q

The patient has received a dose of esmolol. The nurse should carefully monitor for which adverse effects?

A
  • Hypotension ‘
  • Bronchospasm
  • Decreased cardiac output
  • Capillary blood glucose 145 mg/dL
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29
Q

A patient receiving amiodarone develops chest pain. Which is the nurse’s priority action?

A

Assess the patient’s lungs

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30
Q

The nurse is caring for a patient receiving dronedarone for treatment of atrial fibrillation. Which electrocardiogram (ECG) change indicates an adverse effect of this medication?

A

The QT-interval measurement changes from 400msec to 520 msec.

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31
Q

Which statement indicates the nurse understands the action of calcium channel blockers?

A

These medications slow cardiac conduction

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32
Q

Which drug is a class III antidysrhythmic?

A

Amiodarone

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33
Q

The nurse can safely administer verapamil to a patient with which vital signs?

A

Systolic blood pressure 110 mm Hg

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34
Q

A patient with cardiovascular disease is taking rosuvastatin. Which finding would indicate a potential adverse effect of this drug?

A

Muscle pain and tenderness

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35
Q

The nurse is caring for a patient who has hyperlipidemia and who has been prescribed gemfibrozil. On reviewing the medical history of the patient, the nurse learns that the patient is taking warfarin. What does the nurse anticipate after reviewing the patient’s medical history?

A

The patient has an increased risk of bleeding

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36
Q

Which statement indicates the patient understands discharge instructions regarding cholestyramine?

A

I will take cholestyramine with water, fruit juice, or soup

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37
Q

Which patient’s statement indicates a need for further medication instruction about colestipol?

A

I should stir the powder in as small an amount of fluid as possible to maintain potency of the medication

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38
Q

The nurse reviews the history for a patient taking atorvastatin. What will the nurse act on immediately?

A

The patient is on oral contraceptives

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39
Q

Which antilipemic medication reduces serum cholesterol by inhibiting its absorption in the small intestine?

A

Ezetimibe

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40
Q

A patient is admitted in a hypertensive emergency, and examination revels papilledema. The nurse would anticipate administering which medication?

A

Sodium nitroprusside

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41
Q

Which goal does the nurse document in the plan of care for a 63-year-old patient with hypertension?

A

Maintain blood pressure below 150/90 mm Hg

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42
Q

The nurse is reviewing a medication history on a patient taking an angiotensin-converting enzyme (ACE) inhibitor. The nurse will contact the health care provider if the patient is also taking which medication?

A

Spironolactone

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43
Q

A patient taking clonidine for hypertension is being discharge teaching about the therapy. Which information would be included in this teaching plan?

A

Do not drink alcohol when on this therapy

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44
Q

Which patient assessment would assist the nurse is evaluating the therapeutic effects of a calcium channel blocker?

A

Absence of chest pain

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45
Q

Which medication combination is useful in the treatment of variant angina?

A

Diltiazem and isosorbide mononitrate

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46
Q

Which patient with angina would be at increased risk for adverse effects after the administration of beta blockers?

A

A patient with diabetes mellitus

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47
Q

Which nitrate preparation or dosage form has the longest duration of action?

A

Nitroglycerin transdermal patch

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48
Q

Which assessment finding could indicate a myocardial infarction (MI) in a patient who is taking nitroglycerin for angina?

A

Chest pain is not relieved by administering nitroglycerin

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49
Q

The nurse is monitoring a patient during intravenous (IV) nitroglycerin infusion. Which assessment finding will cause the nurse to take action?

A

Chest pain

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50
Q

Which medication is the treatment of choice for ST-segment elevation myocardial infarction (STEMI)-associated pain?

A

Morphine

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51
Q

Which adverse effect is the greatest concern with thrombolytic therapy?

A

Intracranial hemorrhage

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52
Q

The patient has been placed on aspirin as an antiplatelet drug. Which side effect is the patient most likely to experience?

A

Nausea

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53
Q

Which best describes the mechanism of action of an anticoagulant?

A

Reduces the formation of fibrin

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54
Q

The patient is scheduled to receive argatroban. Which is the correct route by which to administer the drug?

A

Intravenous

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55
Q

A nurse is teaching students about macrophages. What does the nurse identify as the macrophages’ primary function?

A

Phagocytosis

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56
Q

A nurse is describing mediator molecules released by any immune system cell. Which specific term does the nurse use to identify a mediator molecule released by a phagocyte?

A

Monokine

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57
Q

Which substance serves as the stimulus for macrophage activation in delayed-type hypersensitivity reactions?

A

Interferon gamma

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58
Q

A patient has tuberculosis. Which type of process acts to rid the body of mycobacterium tuberculosis?

A

Type IV hypersensitivity

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59
Q

Which statement by a student nurse indicates an understanding of the characteristics and route of administration for the rotavirus vaccine?

A

This is a live virus that will be administered orally

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60
Q

A nurse is preparing to administer the rotavirus vaccine. Which route will the nurse use?

A

oral

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61
Q

Which population group will the nurse target for meningococcal conjugate vaccine?

A

College freshmen living in dormitories

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62
Q

A 3-year-old child is scheduled to receive pneumococcal vaccine (PCV). Which condition, if reported by the patient’s father, would prompt the nurse to hold the vaccine and contact the prescribing provider?

A

Temperature of 103oF

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63
Q

A nurse is preparing to administer the last dose of the haemophilus influenzae type b(Hib) vaccine. Which dose is the nurse giving?

A

Fourth

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64
Q

A patient takes tacrolimus. Which drug prescription will prompt the nurse to notify the provider?

A

Nonsteroid anti-inflammatory drug (NSAID)

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65
Q

A nurse teaches a class about the action of calcineurin inhibitors. Which information should the nurse include in the teaching session?

A

They suppress t-lymphocyte proliferation

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66
Q

Which medication is a monoclonal antibody used to inhibit allograft rejection in transplant recipients?

A

Basiliximab

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67
Q

A patient who has had a kidney transplant develops diabetes after taking an immunosuppressant drug. The nurse recognize which agent is the culprit?

A

Everolimus

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68
Q

The patient has an allergic reaction. The nurse identifies that histamine1 (h1) activation will cause which symptom?

A

Localized edema

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69
Q

A patient asks the nurse, “why should I switch to fexofenadine for my allergies when I’ve taken diphenhydramine for so long?” which response should the nurse make?

A

There is not nearly as much drowsiness and sedation

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70
Q

A patient is taking a first-generation H1 blocker for the treatment of allergic rhinitis. It is most important for the nurse to assess for which side effect?

A

Dry mouth

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71
Q

Which antipyretic drug will the nurse recommend to the parent of a child with influenza?

A

Acetaminophen

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72
Q

After administering acetylcysteine to a patient who overdose on acetaminophen, a nurse should recognize which outcome as an indicator of the therapeutic effects of acetylcysteine?

A

Absence of jaundice

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73
Q

The nurse should question an order for glucocorticoids in the treatment of a patient with which condition?

A

Systemic fungal infection

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74
Q

A patient takes glucocorticoids and digoxin. It is most important for the nurse to monitor which electrolyte?

A

Potassium

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75
Q

The nurse is developing a plan to minimize the risk of adrenal insufficiency for a patient who is receiving long-term glucocorticoid therapy. Which outcome should be included?

A

Patient increases or supplements dosage of glucocorticoid at times of stress

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76
Q

Which medication is associated with risk for superinfection?

A

Ciprofloxacin

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77
Q

What is the difference bactericidal drugs and bacteriostatic drugs?

A

Bactericidal drugs are directly lethal to bacteria, and bacteriostatic drugs work to slow bacterial growth but do not cause cell death

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78
Q

Which class of drugs is most effective on human immunodeficiency virus (HIV)?

A

Drugs that suppress viral replication

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79
Q

How does penicillin work to destroy bacteria?

A

It interferes with cell wall synthesis

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80
Q

A patient has urticaria 10 minutes after having a penicillin intramuscular injection. Which type allergic reaction is the patient most likely experiencing?

A

Immediate

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81
Q

Which class of penicillin antibiotic is known as antistaphylococcal penicillin?

A

Penicillinase-resistant penicillins

82
Q

An immunocompromised patient who is receiving piperacillian/tazobactam develops oozing and bleeding from the gums. Which additional data should the nurse determine?

A

The most recent platelet count

83
Q

Which instructions should the nurse provide to a patient who is to start taking amoxicillin/clavulanate?

A

Amoxicillin/clavulanate may be taken with food or meals

84
Q

Before administering a cephalosporin to a patient, it is most important for the nurse to assess the patient for an allergy history to which substance?

A

Penicillins

85
Q

A patient has been prescribed cephalexin. Which instruction should the nurse give to the patient to improve drug efficacy?

A

Keflex can be taken with meals to avoid gastric upset

86
Q

A patient has methicillin-resistant staphylococcus aureus (MRSA). Which is the only cephalosporin active against MRSA?

A

Ceftaroline

87
Q

The nurse is monitoring a patient on vancomycin for indication of major toxicity. Which test should be monitored closely?

A

Creatinine level

88
Q

What is the principal cause of cephalosporin resistance?

A

The production of beta-lactamases

89
Q

Which best describes the action of vancomycin?

A

Inhibits cell wall synthesis promoting bacterial lysis

90
Q

When ceftriaxone is administered intravenously, it is most important for the nurse to avoid mixing it with which substance?

A

Lactated ringer’s solution

91
Q

Which laboratory reports should the nurse evaluate if the patient is administered vancomycin and tobramycin?

A

Serum creatinine

92
Q

A patient with a clostridium difficile infeaction is placed on vancomycin. Which laboratory test results should the nurse expect to be drawn for this patient?

A
  • Creatinine levels
  • Serum electrolytes
  • Trough serum levels
93
Q

Which laboratory results should the nurse monitor more frequently when a patient is receiving clarithromycin and warfarin?

A

International normalized ratio (INR)

94
Q

A patient who has a vancomycin-resistant enterococci (VRE) infection is receiving linezolid. Which laboratory result indicates that the patient is having an adverse effect?

A

White blood cell (WBC) count of 1200 units/L

95
Q

A patient has been ordered telithromycin as well as simvastatin. What is the nurse’s best action?

A

Hold the medication and call the health care provider

96
Q

Which instruction should the nurse include in the discharge teaching for a patient receiving tetracycline?

A

Use sunscreen and protective clothing when outdoors

97
Q

A chronic alcoholic patient has developed cirrhosis of the liver. The primary health care provider has prescribed erythromycin. Which possible drug interaction should the nurse be aware of when administering additional drugs?

A

Development of drug toxicity

98
Q

Which cardiovascular finding does the nurse identify as possible adverse effect of erythromycin therapy?

A

Prolonged QT interval

99
Q

What does the nurse identify as an adverse effect of clindamycin therapy?

A

Frequent, loose, watery stools with mucus and blood

100
Q

The nurse identifies which drug as a short-acting tetracycline?

A

Tetracycline

101
Q

A primary healthcare provider has prescribed neomycin to a patient with hepatic encephalopathy. What should the nurse check before administering the drug to the patient?

A

Glomerular filtration rate (GFR)

102
Q

Which drug is considered more ototoxic and nephrotoxic than any other aminoglycoside?

A

Neomycin

103
Q

Which enteral aminoglycoside would the nurse expect to be ordered preoperatively for a patient having intestinal surgery?

A

Neomycin

104
Q

A nurse is administering a daily dose of tobramycin at 10:00 AM. At which time should the nurse obtain the patient’s blood sample to determine the trough level?

A

9:00 am

105
Q

The nurse knows that there is an increased risk of ototoxicity in a patient receiving aminoglycoside if which level is high?

A

Trough

106
Q

Which patient is a potential candidate for antibiotic therapy involving an aminoglycoside?

A

A patient with pseudomonas aeruginosa pneumonia

107
Q

Which of the following sulfonamides, applied topically, has the greatest therapeutic benefit for burns?

A

Silver sulfadiazine

108
Q

Oral trimethoprim/ sulfamethoxazole (TMP/SMZ) is prescribed for a patient and is being administered four times a day. Which intervention is appropriate?

A

Call the health care provider

109
Q

The nurse teaches the patient taking sulfamethoxale the importance of which action reduce crystalluria?

A

Increased fluid intake

110
Q

Which sulfonamide has bacterial activity?

A

Trimethoprim/sulfamethoxazole (TMP/SMZ)

111
Q

Why are sulfonamides avoided, if possible, for infants younger than 2 months of age?

A

They can cause kernicterus

112
Q

When planning care for a patient receiving a sulfonamide antibiotic, which is the appropriate intervention?

A

Force fluids to at least 2000 mL/day

113
Q

The nurse is teaching a patient who is begin taking nitrofurantoin. Which manifestation should be the priority to report to the health care provider?

A

Muscle weakness and tingling

114
Q

With the exception of pyelonephritis, the nurse should be aware that most urinary tract infections (UTIs) are treated by which method?

A

Oral antibiotics in the home setting

115
Q

A patient asks about a urinary tract infection (UTI) antibiotic that requires only one dose. Which first-line UTI antibiotic requires only one dose?

A

Fosfomycin

116
Q

A patient who has acute cystitis is receiving treatment with trimethoprim/sulfamethoxazole. Which manifestation should indicate to a nurse that the patient’s condition is worsening?

A

Flank pain

117
Q

Which medication would be most beneficial for a patient with acute pyelonephritis?

A

Trimethoprim/sulfamethoxazole (TMP/SMZ)

118
Q

What is the mechanism of action for nitrofurantoin?

A

It injuries bacteria by damaging DNA

119
Q

A patient is taking nitrofurantoin. Which finding should a nurse recognize as an indication that the treatment is having an undesired effect?

A

Dyspnea with chills

120
Q

After the induction phase of treatment for drug-sensitive tuberculosis using isoniazid, rifampin, pyrazinamide, and ethambutol, a patient’s sputum still test positive for M. tuberculosis. Currently, there is no evidence of drug resistance. Which instruction would the nurse provide to this patient?

A

Continue with current regimen using directly observed therapy

121
Q

What should the nurse teach a patient who is taking isoniazid?

A

Pyridoxine (vitamin B6 ) will prevent numbness and tingling that can occur when taking isoniazid

122
Q

Which statement should the nurse include when teaching a patient about rifampin?

A

A harmless side effect will be a red-orange discoloration of body fluids

123
Q

A patient is treated with rifabutin for tuberculosis. Which side effect would the nurse expect in the patient?

A

Reddish-brown feces

124
Q

Which is a first-line antitubercular drug?

A

Isoniazid

125
Q

Which is the most common site for infection caused by mycobacterium tuberculosis?

A

Lung

126
Q

For which condition can rifampin be prescribed to a patient?

A

Leprosy

127
Q

Which statement by a patient indicates that the patient has understood the teaching regarding ethambutol?

A

I will need to have my eyes checked periodically while I am taking this drug

128
Q

From which bacterial strain is bacillus Calmette-guerin derived?

A

Mycobacterium bovis

129
Q

Which antitubercular drug works by disrupting cell wall synthesis and essential cellular functions?

A

Isoniazid

130
Q

Which approach should the nurse take when administering an oral dose of levofloxacin?

A

Give the medication with or without food

131
Q

A patient with diabetes mellitus is taking metformin. The nurse has administered fluconazole to this patient. Which possible drug interaction could occur?

A

Reduced metabolism of metformin

132
Q

Which is the appropriate drug to treat a patient diagnosed with onychomycosis of the toenail?

A

Terbinafine oral

133
Q

It is most important that the nurse assess a patient taking itraconazole for the development of which adverse effect?

A

Pedal edema

134
Q

The nurse planning care for the patient receiving nystatin should establish which outcome on the care plan?

A

Decrease in mouth pain

135
Q

When teaching patients about influenza vaccine, how often does the nurse advise patients to be vaccinate?

A

Once a year

136
Q

Which drug is used to manage viral pneumonia in patient with respiratory syncytial virus?

A

Ribavirin

137
Q

Which approach should a nurse take to administer intravenous acyclovir to an immunocompromised patient?

A

Infuse intravenous fluids during administration of the dose and for 2 hours afterward

138
Q

A patient with cytomegalovirus infection is prescribed antiviral therapy with ganciclovir. Which diagnostic test results should the nurse monitor to prevent complications of the antiviral therapy prescribed for this patient?

A

Neutrophils

139
Q

Which drug’s mechanism of action is to block the fusion process in the replication cycle of human immunodeficiency virus(HIV)?

A

Enfuvirtide

140
Q

Which condition is the leading cause of vision loss in people with acquired immunodeficiency syndrome (AIDS)?

A

Cytomegalovirus retinitis

141
Q

Which class of medication block human immunodeficiency virus (HIV) entry into cells?

A

Fusion inhibitors

142
Q

During the assessment of a pregnant patient in labor, the nurse finds that the patient has active genital herpes lesions. What is the best strategy to prevent the spread of infection to the newborn?

A

Performing a cesarean section

143
Q

Which outcome should a nurse establish for a patient with trichomoniasis who is receiving metronidazole?

A

Decreased in yellow-green, odorous vaginal discharge

144
Q

What is true regarding treatment of a hospital patient with pelvic inflammatory disease (PID)?

A

Intravenous antibiotic treatment combined with oral or intramuscular treatment is required

145
Q

What information have studies shown regarding antiseptic and disinfectants?

A

Antiseptics applied directly to the average patient contribute relatively little to prophylaxis against infection

146
Q

Which statement about the use of glutaraldehyde does the nurse identify as true?

A

Glutaraldehyde should be used in a well-ventilated area

147
Q

The nurse plans tracheostomy care by selecting hydrogen peroxide as one of the supplies to use for which purpose?

A

Disinfection of the inner cannula

148
Q

The nurse is caring for a patient who has mild thrombocytopenia after chemotherapy. Which action should the nurse take?

A

Use minimal cuff inflation when taking the blood pressure

149
Q

A patient with liver cancer requires assistance and frequent medical care. The nurse would give this patient which Karnofsky performance scale score?

A

50

150
Q

The nurse planning care for a patient taking filgrastim would list which outcome as a goal for treatment?

A

An increase in white blood cells

151
Q

The nurse understands that which type of anticancer drugs can act during any phase of the cell cycle?

A

Phase nonspecific

152
Q

The nurse is preparing to administer methotrexate to a patient diagnosed with choricinoma. Which intervention would the nurse perform prior to administration of methotrexate in a patient with choriocarcinoma?

A

Alkalinizing the urine

153
Q

The nurse will anticipate which medication to patients receiving high-dose methotrexate?

A

Leucovorin

154
Q

The nurse should identify which cytotoxic anticancer agent as most likely to cause pulmonary toxicity in the patient?

A

Nonanthracyclines

155
Q

Before an infusion of paclitaxel, the nurse administers which medication to prevent a complication?

A

Diphenhydramine

156
Q

The nurse is preparing to administer the first dose of intravenous cetuximab. To prevent a complication, the nurse should have which medication readily available?

A

Epinephrine

157
Q

The nurse will administer docetaxel to the patient with which type of cancer?

A

Hormone-refractory prostate cancer

158
Q

Which symptoms does the nurse investigate first when monitoring a patient taking tamoxifen?

A

Vaginal bleeding

159
Q

Which type of cancer will the nurse expect to find documented in the chart for a patient receiving tamoxifen?

A

Breast cancer

160
Q

A patient who takes cromolyn for exercise-induced bronchospasms should follow which approach for maximum therapeutic effectiveness?

A

It should be administered by inhalation 15 minutes before anticipated exertion

161
Q

To achieve therapeutic effectiveness, a nurse teaches a patient with chronic asthma to use an inhaled glucocorticoid medication according to which schedule?

A

On a consistent, daily basis

162
Q

The nurse is caring for a patient with a theophylline level of 14 mcg/mL. what is the priority nursing intervention?

A

Continue to assess the patient’s oxygenation

163
Q

Which are adverse effects of albuterol?

A
  • Tremors
  • Tachycardia
  • Palpitations
164
Q

Which medication disrupt the inflammatory response and is indicated in the treatment of asthma?

A

Montelukast

165
Q

Which statement should the nurse include in the teaching for a patient who is to be started on zileuton?

A

Get liver tests performed once a month for the next three months

166
Q

Which instruction should the nurse include when teaching a patient about the proper use of metered-dose inhalers?

A

Hold your breath for 10 seconds if you can after you inhale the medication

167
Q

Which is the most effective antitussive?

A

Codeine

168
Q

Which finding in a patient taking oxymetazoline nasal spray every 2 hours would indicate that the patient has developed an adverse effect?

A

Congestion and stuffiness

169
Q

A nurse is planning care for a patient who takes fexofenadine for allergic rhinitis. Which outcome should the nurse anticipate?

A

Relief of sneezing and itching

170
Q

Which statement by a patient indicates understanding of a nurse’s teaching about fluticasone nasal spray?

A

This drug will help prevent the inflammation and irritation caused by my allergies

171
Q

Which antihistamine causes sedation in the patient as an adverse drug effect?

A

Diphenhydramine

172
Q

Which symptoms of allergic rhinitis is treated with fluticasone?

A

Nasal congestion

173
Q

Which is the mechanism of action of a proton pump inhibitor?

A

Suppresses acid secretion by inhibiting the enzyme that makes gastric acid

174
Q

Why are proton pump inhibitors (PPIs) used in the treatment of patients with bleeding due to erosive esophagitis?

A

They act directly on the proton pump

175
Q

What advise should a nurse give to a patient who was prescribed omeprazole for peptic ulcers?

A

Eat foods that are rich in magnesium

176
Q

A nurse is planning care for a patient who has peptic ulcer disease and is taking amoxicillin. The nurse is aware that amoxicillin has which mechanism of action?

A

Disruption of the bacterial cell wall, causing lysis and death

177
Q

A patient with hepatic encephalopathy receives lactulose. The nurse expects which therapeutic outcome if the medication is having the desired effect?

A

Reduced ammonia level

178
Q

The patient has an order for magnesium oxide/anhydrous citric acid/sodium picosulfate to be given in two doses. The nurse knows that this medication is used for which indication?

A

Preparation before a colonoscopy

179
Q

A patient is prescribed lorazepam and a glucocorticoid during chemotherapy treatments. What is the nurse’s best action?

A

Administer the medication and assess the patient for relief

180
Q

A patient who has had a pancreatectomy is taking pancrelipase. Which finding would the nurse use to evaluate the effectiveness of this drug?

A

Reduction of fatty stools

181
Q

A patient is scheduled to start taking insulin glargine. Which information should the nurse give the patient regarding this medication?

A

This medication provides blood glucose control for 24 hours

182
Q

The nurse administers neutral protamine Hagedorn insulin at 8:00 AM. Which intervention is essential for the nurse to preform?

A

Make sure patient eats by 5:00 PM

183
Q

What should the nurse assess in a patient who is prescribed metformin for treatment of type 2 diabetes?

A

Renal function

184
Q

Which manifestation should a nurse investigate first when monitoring a patient who is taking levothyroxine?

A

Tachycardia

185
Q

A patient goes into cardiac arrest. Which endocrine drug has a potential role in cardiopulmonary resuscitation (CPR)?

A

Vasopressin

186
Q

Which drug is used to diagnose adrenocortical insufficiency?

A

Cosyntropin

187
Q

A patient who has Cushing’s syndrome is taking ketoconazole as an adjunct treatment to brain radiation. A nurse should expect the patient to have which therapeutic response

A

Enhanced radiation effect to the brain

188
Q

Which clinical condition can be managed with estrogen therapy?

A

Symptomatic vaginal atrophy

189
Q

Which condition may develop in patient who is taking leuprolide for a premenstrual disorder?

A

Bone loss

190
Q

Which hormone is responsible for initiating activity in the ovary?

A

Follicle-stimulating hormone (FSH)

191
Q

Which contraceptive device is most likely to prevent the transmission of sexually transmitted disease?

A

Male condom

192
Q

The nurse is about to administer Dinoprostone to a patient. For what condition is this medication used?

A

Termination of pregnancy

193
Q

Which statement regarding the intrauterine device (IUD), copper T 2804, indicates understanding of the product?

A

The device is spermicidal by causing an inflammatory response

194
Q

Which mechanism of action is accurate for clomiphene?

A

Promotion of follicle-stimulating hormone (FSH) and luteinizing hormone (LH) release

195
Q

Which fertility drug is appropriate for a patient with a diagnosis of ovarian failure?

A

Human chorionic gonadotropin (hCG)

196
Q

A nurse is administering human chorionic gonadotropin (hCG). Which action is appropriate?

A

When used in conjunction with menotropins, administer 1 day after the last menotropins dose

197
Q

For how long can terbutaline be safely used in the suppression of preterm labor before it is discontinued?

A

48 hours

198
Q

Which adverse effect is associated with daily testosterone therapy?

A

Edema

199
Q

Which condition may be treated with daily application of testosterone gel?

A

Hypogonadism

200
Q

The nurse is educating a patient about sildenafil. Which adverse effect would be a priority for the patient to report to the prescriber?

A

Hearing loss

201
Q

The nurse notes that a patient is to receive dutasteride. Which condition will the nurse most likely observe written in the chart?

A

Benign prostatic hyperplasia