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A & P 2 Final > Final > Flashcards

Final Flashcards

1
Q

Which statement is true about blood?/

A

Venous blood carries more carbonic acid as waste.

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2
Q

Which granulocyte is the most mobile and phagocytic?

A

Neturophils

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3
Q

What is the glycoproteins hormone that is secreted naturally or can be received synthetically to increase red blood cell production?

A

Erythropoietin

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4
Q

A decrease in the normal amount of white blood cells is called?

A

Leukopenia

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5
Q

Which term describes on overall increase in the number of white blood cells?

A

Leukocytes

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6
Q

What are the contents of the transfusion blood when a patient is receiving group B negative blood?

A
  • B antigens
  • Anti-A bodies
  • Anti-Rh bodies
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7
Q

What is the function of albumin?

A

To maintain osmotic balance of the blood

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8
Q

Which blood types are the universal donor and recipient?

A

Donor - O

Recipient - AB+

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9
Q

During pregnancy oxygenated blood returns from the placenta via the umbilical vein and then flows into which structure?

A

Inferior vena cava

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10
Q

Venous return to the heart depends on which mechanism?

A
  • Valves In the veins
  • a strong beating heart
  • An adequate arterial BP
  • Pumping action of the skeletal muscles as they contract
  • changing pressures in the chest cavity caused by breathing
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11
Q

Which face tissues are supplies by the external carotid artery?

A

Face
Eyes
Larynx

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12
Q

Which term refers to the state when the heart is resting?

A

Diastole

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13
Q

Which substances are part of the formed elements in blood?

A

Platelets
Red Blood cells
White Blood cells

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14
Q

What two kinds of connective tissue make blood cells for the body?

A

Myeloid and Lymphoid

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15
Q

The blood cell that is responsible for the defense against parasite?

A

Eosinophils

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16
Q

The molecule in the red blood cells that is responsible for the red pigment is:

A

Hemoglobin

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17
Q

The inability of the blood to carry sufficient oxygen of white blood cells:

A

Leukopenia

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18
Q

Platelets play an important role in:

A

Clotting blood

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19
Q

A clot that is circulating in the blood stream:

A

Thromboembolism

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20
Q

The term blood type refers to:

A

Antigen on a red blood cell

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21
Q

A disease that develops as a result of a Rh- mothers antibodies reacting with the Rh+ babies red blood cells is:

A

Erythoclastosis Fetalis

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22
Q

When us the RhoGAM injections administered to a pregnant woman during her first pregnancy?

A

Mother Rh-, baby Rh+

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23
Q

Which treatment strategy is appropriate for a patient diagnosed with pernicious anemia?

A

Intramuscular B12 injections

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24
Q

Identify the cells that transport gases in the body?

A

Red blood cells

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25
Q

Which components are critical to coagulation?

A
  • Prothrombin
  • Thrombin
  • Fibrinogen
  • Fibrin
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26
Q

What is the characteristic feature of the universal recipient blood group?

A

Both antigen A and B are present

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27
Q

Which cell secretes heparin?

A

Basophils

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28
Q

The covering of the heart is two layers of fibrous tissue called:

A

Pericardium

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29
Q

The aorta transports blood out of which chamber?

A

Left ventricle

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30
Q

Which blood vessels return venous blood to the right atrium?

A

Superior and inferior vena cava

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31
Q

The four structures that compare the conduction system of the heart are the:

A
  • Sinoatrial node
  • Atrioventricular node
  • Atrioventricular bundle
  • Purkinjie fibers
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32
Q

What is the term used to describe the severe chest pain that occurs when the myocardium is deprived of oxygen?

A

Angina

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33
Q

Blood flow through the blood vessels to all parts of the body and back to the heart is which type of circulation?

A

Systemic

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34
Q

Which event is part of a normal electrocardiogram?

A
  • P wave
  • T wave
  • QRS complex
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35
Q

Cardiac output is determined by:

A

Stroke volume and heart rate

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36
Q

What is another name for the sinoatrial node?

A

Pacemaker

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37
Q

Which condition occurs after an obstruction and causes tissue death?

A

Myocardial infraction

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38
Q

Because the atria receive blood from the vessels called veins, what are they often called?

A

Receiving chambers

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39
Q

Upon returning to the heart from the lungs what structure does the blood enter?

A

Left atrium

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40
Q

To what structures are the free edges of the atrioventricular valves anchored?

A

Papillary muscles

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41
Q

What four structures compose the conduction system of the heart?

A

SA node
AV node
AV bundle
Purjunkie fibers

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42
Q

Which artery carries deoxygenated blood?

A

Pulmonary artery

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43
Q

What order does a normal cardia impulse follow within the conduction pathway of the heart?

A

Sinoatrial node
Atrioventricular node
Bundle of HIS
Prukinje fibers

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44
Q

What structures are supplied with the blood from the subclavian arteries?

A

Left upper extremities

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45
Q

What is the significance of the presence of valves in the veins?

A

They prevent the backward flow of blood

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46
Q

Which vein returns deoxygenated blood to the heart from the upper extremities?

A

Superior vena cava

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47
Q

Which are the major pulse points?

A

Carotid artery

Femoral artery

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48
Q

Which structure contains macrophages?

A

Lymph node

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49
Q

Which statements are applicable to the thymus?

A
  • It is virtually disappears by the age of 80
  • It is largest at puberty and weighs 35-40 grams
  • It is located in the mediastinum extending up to the neck
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50
Q

Which organ consists largely of cartilages that are attached to one another and it surrounding structures by muscles or fibrous tissue?

A

Larynx

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51
Q

The volume of air exhaled normally after a typical inspiration is termed>

A

Tidal volume

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52
Q

Which conditions may cause pneumothorax?

A
  • There is a disruption of the visceral pleura

* There is a disruption of the chest wall and parietal pleura

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53
Q

The largest organ of the lymphatic system is the:

A

Spleen

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54
Q

Masses of lymphoid tissue located in a protective ring under mucous membranes in the mouth and the back of the throat are called?

A

Tonsils

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55
Q

The bodies defense mechanisms are organized into which two major categories?

A

Nonspecific and specific immunity

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56
Q

Which term means immunity developed in response to threatening organisms or toxins?

A

Adaptive

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57
Q

Redness pain heat and swelling describes which immune response?

A

Inflammatory

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58
Q

T-cell immune mechanisms are classified as which type of immunity?

A

Cell mediated

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59
Q

Which factor is a substance that interferes with the ability of viruses with the ability of viruses to spread?

A

Interferon

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60
Q

What type of T cells suppress or shut down an immune reaction after the antigen has been destroyed?

A

Regulator T Cells

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61
Q

Which statement is true about antigens?

A

They can induce immune responses

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62
Q

In which stage of development does a cell produce antibodies?

A

Plasma cell

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63
Q

Which statement regarding activated B Cells is correct?

A

Activated B Cells divide to produce clones of identical B Cells

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64
Q

Which term best describes a life-threatening allergic reaction characterized by the constriction of airways, relaxation of blood vessels, and irregular heart rhythms?

A

Anaphylactic shock

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65
Q

Which statement regarding the movement of lymph in body is true?

A

Lymph flows in lymph vessels that have valves with one-way flow

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66
Q

What is the primary organ of the lymphatic system?

A

Thymus

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67
Q

As people age, their thymus function diminishes greatly what is the significance of this?

A

The immune system function is reduced as the thymus function decreases

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68
Q

Which organ regulates the development of T cells by producing thymosin?

A

Thymus

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69
Q

The trachea, bronchial tree, and the lungs make up the

A

Lower respiratory tract

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70
Q

The portion of the throat that is behind the mouth is called:

A

Oropharynx

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71
Q

The air containing spaces that open or drain into the nasal cavity are called:

A

Paranasal sinuses

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72
Q

The trachea divides at its lower end into 2

A

Primary bronchi

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73
Q

The surface of the respiratory membrane inside each alveolus is coated with a substance called:

A

Surfactant

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74
Q

Which muscles are inspiratory muscles?

A

Diaphragm and external intercostal muscles

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75
Q

During respiration the thorax:

A

Becomes larger when the chest rises

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76
Q

When the thoracic cavity decreases in size the air pressure within it:

A

Increases

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77
Q

Oxygen enters the blood from the alveolar air because of:

A

Diffusion

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78
Q

An increase in carbon dioxide in the blood causes

A

A drop in pH

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79
Q

The compound formed when carbon dioxide combines with hemoglobin is:

A

Carbaminohemoglobin

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80
Q

Which functions as an emergency mechanism when hypoxia or hypercapnia endangers the stability of the internal environment of the human body:

A

Chemoreflex

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81
Q

Which structure serves the initial filters that stop particulate matter in the air from entering the rest of the body?

A

Mucus blanket

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82
Q

Which statement about the functions of the respiratory system indicates a need for further teaching?

A

It dries the air we breathe

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83
Q

Which statement about the epiglottis is correct?

A

It’s function is to prevent food or liquids from entering the trachea

84
Q

Why are alveoli effective in exchanging the gases carbon dioxide and oxygen?

A

*Each lung has numerous alveoli
*The alveolus has a extremely thin wall
Each alveolus lies in close contact with the blood capillaries

85
Q

What are the masses of lymphatic tissues embedded in the mucous membranes of the pharynx?

A

Tonsils

86
Q

What happens when the diaphragm is pulled down during respiration?

A

Lungs expand

87
Q

Which statement is correct about surfactant?

A

Surfactant prevents the collapse of alveoli

88
Q

Which term refers to the temporary cessation of breathing?

A

Apnea

89
Q

When a person is hyperventilating what is the breathing pattern?

A

Rapid, deep respiration’s

90
Q

Which is a characteristic of the spleen?

A

It is the largest lymphoid organ

91
Q

Which statement describes the tonsil?

A
  • They are present in the mouth and at the back of the throat
  • They are composed of masses of lymphoid tissue in a protective ring
  • They protect against bacteria
92
Q

Which is an example of active artificial immunity?

A
  • A child receives a polio vaccination and acquires immunity to polio
  • A patient receives a tetanus antibody injection and develops immunity against tetanus
93
Q

What are the functions of the spleen?

A
  • Filtration of blood
  • Acts as a reservoir of blood
  • Destruction of old red blood cells
94
Q

What are lymphatics called in the villi of the small intestine?

A

Lacteals

95
Q

Which statement accurately describes the trachea?

A

It is also called the windpipe

96
Q

The first section of the small intestine is the:

A

Duodenum

97
Q

Which process is a type of mechanical digestion?

A
  • Peristalsis
  • Degulation
  • Mastication
98
Q

Which organ plays an essential part in blood clotting?

A

Liver

99
Q

What three processes does food undergo in the body?

A

Digestion
Absorption
Metabolism

100
Q

The innermost layer of the gastrointestinal wall is called the:

A

Mucosa

101
Q

When empty the lining of the stomach lies in folds called:

A

Rugged

102
Q

The large gland that secretes bile is the:

A

Liver

103
Q

The end products of fat digestion are:

A

Fatty acids and glycerol

104
Q

Salvia contains the enzyme:

A

Salivary amylase

105
Q

Where does protein digestion begin?

A

Stomach

106
Q

Which organs function is compromised in a patient diagnosed with jaundice?

A

Liver

107
Q

What is the name for a chemical that reduces the amount of the activation energy needed to start a chemical reaction?

A

A catalyst

108
Q

Which statement accurately describes the mesentery?

A

It is the fold of serious membrane that connects the parietal and visceral portions

109
Q

Which statement described the muscular is of the gastrointestinal wall?

A

It has a inner layer of circular smooth muscle

110
Q

What is the largest salivary glands?

A

Parotid glands

111
Q

Which condition causes difficulty speaking?

A

A lingual frenulum that is too short

112
Q

Because of glycolysis occurs without oxygen it is considered?

A

Anaerobic

113
Q

The use the body makes of food after they have been digested, absorbed, and circulates to salted its called:

A

Metabolism

114
Q

Which nutrient is a micronutrient?

A

Vitamin

115
Q

Which organ plays a major role in the metabolism of all three types of nutrients?

A

Liver

116
Q

Which hormone helps regulate carbohydrate metabolism of all three types of nutrients?

A

Liver

117
Q

When hormone helps regulate carbohydrate metabolism by decreasing blood glucose to a normal level?

A

Insulin

118
Q

Unneeded fats or anabolized to form triglycerides in are stored in:

A

Adipose tissue

119
Q

The entire amount of energy used by the body per day is which rate?

A

Total metabolic

120
Q

Which term best describes the rate at which food is catabolized under Basel conditions?

A

Basal metabolic rate

121
Q

Which method is a way heat can be lost from blood and the skin?

A

Convection

122
Q

Which heat transfer technique is involved in boarding a person’s temperature using a thermometer?

A

Conduction

123
Q

What is the function of magnesium in the human body?

A

It is a component of many energy transferring enzymes

124
Q

What is the primary location for the process of glycogenesis?

A

Liver

125
Q

What is the net amount of ATP molecules formed in a single glycosides reaction?

A

2

126
Q

Which B complex vitamins help enzymes in the citric acid cycle?

A
  • Niacin
  • Thiamine
  • Riboflavin
127
Q

Which vitamin deficiency causes rickets and skeletal deformity?

A

Calciferol

128
Q

While treating a patient with a minor cut, the nurse observes excessive bleeding. Which deficiency causes this?

A

Vitamin K

129
Q

A patient is diagnosed with mineral deficiency of calcium. Which dietary sources does the health care provider recommend to rectify the deficiency?

A

Legumes

Dairy products

130
Q

Which instruction is suitable for a patient complaining of night blindness?

A

Eat vitamin A rich foods

131
Q

What characterizes insulin deficiency?

A

Hyperglycemia

Low rate of glucose metabolism

132
Q

What are fat soluble vitamins?

A

A
E
D

133
Q

Which are sources of ascorbic acid?

A

Strawberries

Green peppers

134
Q

To prevent a goiter patient should have which mineral in the adequate amounts?

A

Iodine

135
Q

The principle organ of the urinary system is the?

A

Kidney

136
Q

The capillary network that is tucked inside the Bowman capsules the:

A

Glomerulus

137
Q

The order of each kidney conducts urine from the kidney to the:

A

Bladder

138
Q

Attacks of the renal colic are caused by:

A

Kidney stones

139
Q

The passage of the urine from the body or the emptying of bladder is referred to as

A

Micturition

140
Q

Which organ releases erythropoietin hormone into the blood?

A

Kidneys

141
Q

What is the function fo the urethra?

A

Expulsion of urine

142
Q

Why are women more prone to cystitis than men?

A

The female urethra opening is closer to the anal opening
Female intentional bacteria have easier access to the urethra
The infection easily enters the bladder through a woman’s urethra

143
Q

What are the primary functions of the Henle loop?

A
  • Production of dilute tubule fluid
  • Reabsorption of water from the tubule fluid
  • Reabsorption of sodium in chloride from the tubule fluid
  • Click all the answers that say tubule fluid*
144
Q

What effect does the decrease in production of anti-diuretic hormone have on regulation of urine volume?

A

Increases water loss by the body

145
Q

What is the most abundant nitrogenous waste in human urine?

A

Urea

146
Q

Which hormone increases to lower blood glucose?

A

Insulin

147
Q

When respiration is decreased:

A

CO2 content increases
H2CO3 increases
PH increases

148
Q

Substances such as salt that dissolve or break apart in water are called:

A

Electrolytes

149
Q

Which factor controls plasma, interstitial fluid, and intracellular fluid volumes?

A

Capillary blood pressure
Concentration of proteins in blood
Concentration of electrolytes in extracellular fluid

150
Q

The most important factor in determining urine volume is the rate of water and salt?

A

Reabsorption by the renal tubules

151
Q

The dissociated parts of an electrolyte are called:

A

Ions

152
Q

As capillary blood pressure increases:

A

More fluid is filtered out of the blood into the interstitial fluid

153
Q

The term for a a substance that promotes or stimulates the production of urine is:

A

Diuretic

154
Q

Abnormally large amounts of fluid in the intercellular tissue spaces of the body is a condition called?

A

Edema

155
Q

Which of the following ions is a cation?

A

Potassium

156
Q

Which hormonal changes are expected because of low sodium levels in the plasma?

A

Increase in the aldosterone hormone levels

157
Q

What is the largest fluid compartment in an adult body?

A

Intracellular fluid

158
Q

Which bodily secretion has the highest volume collected over a period of 24 hrs in a healthy individual?

A

Intestinal secretions

159
Q

What are some causes of hyperclcemia?

A

excess calcium

160
Q

What causes a decrease in the concentration of plasma proteins in inflammatory conditions?

A

Increase in capillary permeability

161
Q

Which organ is most responsible for the elimination of water from the body?

A

Kidneys

162
Q

Which physiological changes decrease the total body water content in elderly individuals?

A

Decrease in muscle mass

Increase in adipose tissue

163
Q

Concentration of which ion in intracellular fluid is the lowest?

A

Calcium

164
Q

Which ion is the most abundant in the interstitial fluid?

A

Sodium

165
Q

Which organ secretes renin?

A

Kidney

166
Q

Which finding indicates a risk for edema?

A

Increased aldosterone levels

167
Q

What are signs and symptoms of hypercalcemia?

A

Fatigue

Muscle weakness

168
Q

Which fluid compartment is part of the fluid in the eyeball?

A

Trans cellular fluid

169
Q

Where is the thirst center of the body?

A

Hypothalamus

170
Q

What are some common causes of dehydration?

A

Edema

171
Q

What are associated with water intoxication?

A

Drinking large quantities of water rapidly
Giving hypotonic solutions to a person with kidney failure
When water content is elevated in plasma sodium levels are dilutes

172
Q

Which factors maintain the constancy of pH in the body?

A

Buffers, respiratory mechanism, and urinary mechanism

173
Q

A decrease in blood pH below normal tends to:

A

Stimulate increase respiration’s

174
Q

Anything that causes an excessive increase in respiration’s will in time lead to:

A

Alkalosis

175
Q

Blood levels of NaHco3 are regulated by the kidneys, whereas H2CO3 levels are regulated by:

A

The lungs

176
Q

Who explained the concept of homeostasis in the 1930’s?

A

Walter Bradford Cannon

177
Q

What is another name for emesis?

A

Vomiting

178
Q

Which part of the kidney rids the body of excess acid and converse the base?

A

Distal tumbles

179
Q

Where is the vomit center?

A

Brain stem

180
Q

What occurs with the accumulation of ketone bodies?

A

Diabetic ketoacidosis

181
Q

The term pH indicates what?

A

A solutions relative hydrogen ion concentration compared with hydroxide concentration

182
Q

What does maintaining acid base balance mean?

A

Keeping the concentration of hydrogen in the body fluids constant

183
Q

What is the most acidic substance in the body?

A

Gastric juice

184
Q

What is the pH of pure water?

A

7.0

185
Q

What is true about blood?

A

Arterial blood has a pH of 7.45
Venous blood has a pH of 7.35
Both are slightly alakaline

186
Q

Which is one of the main buffers that buffers the normally occurring “fixed” acids in blood are called lactic acid?

A

Sodium bicarbonate

187
Q

What occurs metabolically when people hold their breath for a minute or longer?

A

the respiratory center senses the rising carbon dioxide in forces the persons inhale

188
Q

What can the kidneys do that the lungs cannot do in the regulating of pH?

A

Eliminate excess base

189
Q

What are the kidneys considered the last and best defense against water variations of blood pH?

A

The kidneys are slower to respond but are able to eliminate much larger amounts of acid than the lungs

190
Q

Which option best describes kidney excretions?

A

Acid pH urine

191
Q

When is the body considered to be in a acidotic state?

A

The blood has a pH of less than 7.35

192
Q

When is the body considered to be in a alkalosis state?

A

When the body has a pH of greater than 7.45

193
Q

Why can vomiting become life threatening?

A
  • because of fluid imbalance
  • metabolic alkalosis
  • Electrolyte imbalance
194
Q

What acid base imbalance is associated with prolonged diarrhea?

A

Metabolic acidosis

195
Q

The process by which the body builds amino acids into complex proteins is called:

A

Anabolism

196
Q

Organic molecules needed in small amounts for normal metabolism are called:

A

Vitamins

197
Q

Which sphincter controls the opening of the esophagus into the stomach?

A

Cardiac

198
Q

Which duct is formed by a duct from the liver merging with the duct from the gallbladder?

A

Common bile

199
Q

The end products of fat digestion are:

A

Fatty acids and glycerol

200
Q

Which process is a yep of mechanical digestion?

A

Peristalsis
Deglutition
Mastication

201
Q

While teaching a patient about organs in the digestive system, which statement indicates a need for further teaching?

A

The spleen is an organ in the digestive system

202
Q

Which statement accurately describe the mesentery?

A

It is the fold of serous membrane that connects the parietal and visceral portions

203
Q

Which tooth would likely erupt at the posterior end of the lower jaw in a 22-year-old patient?

A

Third molars

204
Q

Which condition causes difficulty speaking?

A

A lingual that is too short

205
Q

What is the net amount of ATP molecules formed during a single glycolysis reaction?

A

two

A & P 2 Final (1 decks)

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