FINAL Flashcards

1
Q

________ wrote that “Liberty is to faction what air is to fire.”

Select one:

a. James Madison
b. Alexis de Tocqueville
c. Thomas Jefferson
d. Theodore Lowi
e. Theodore Roosevelt

A

a. James Madison

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Political scientist Theodore Lowi has questioned pluralist theory by suggesting
that

Select one:

a. special interests should never receive bene􀂦ts from
government.

b. there is no concept of the public interest in a system that gives special
interests the ability to determine the policies affecting them.

c. policies that favor a series of minorities are inherently fairer than policies that ignore small groups in favor of a majority.

d. the sum of people’s special interests is a rough approximation of society’s
collective interest.

e. Madisonian theory has created a perfect balance of special interest and
common good.

A

b. there is no concept of the public interest in a system that gives special
interests the ability to determine the policies affecting them.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

In acknowledging the dilemma inherent in group activity, James Madison

Select one:

a. argued that the free-rider problem would hurt some groups more than
others.

b. claimed that government could listen to all groups, but should only enact
policies that promote the interests of majority groups.

c. worried that government would be overly dominated by groups, but
recognized that a free society is obliged to permit the advocacy of self-interest.

d. argued that government must restrict the activities of groups, so that
political parties could act as the major instrument of democracy.

e. All of these answers are correct.

A

c. worried that government would be overly dominated by groups, but
recognized that a free society is obliged to permit the advocacy of self-interest.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

Theodore Lowi’s theory of interest-group liberalism
Select one:

a. constitutes a partial and wrongful abdication by government of its authority
over policy.

b. argues that lawmakers are rightly prevented from using government to
promote group interests.

c. posits that interest groups result in an e􀂨cient use of society’s resources.

d. describes the effect of groups on policy, resulting in a system of rule by
majorities.

e. deals with the tendency of o􀂨cials to support the policy demands of the
interest group or groups that have a special stake in a policy.

A

e. deals with the tendency of o􀂨cials to support the policy demands of the
interest group or groups that have a special stake in a policy.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

The term iron triangle refers to
Select one:
a. a tightly-knit set of lobbying groups.

b. the relationship among the Congress, the military, and defense contractors.
c. a small and informal but relatively stable set of bureaucrats, legislators, and lobbyists who are concerned with promoting a particular interest.
d. the strategy of lobbying all three branches of government simultaneously.

e. a corrupt relationship among the president, Congress, and the Supreme
Court.

A

c. a small and informal but relatively stable set of bureaucrats, legislators, and lobbyists who are concerned with promoting a particular interest.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

Why have issue networks become more prevalent?
Select one:

a. the increasing power of corporate lobbying
b. the increasing diversity of interest groups
c. the increasing influence of PACs
d. the instability of candidates’ positions
e. the increasing complexity of policy problems

A

e. the increasing complexity of policy problems

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

In the dynamics of an iron triangle, what bene􀂦t do interest groups provide to friendly government agencies?

Select one:

a. services for constituents
b. travel funds
c. campaign spending
d. administration of mutually bene􀂦cial policies
e. lobbying support for agency programs

A

e. lobbying support for agency programs

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

An informal grouping of o􀂨cials, lobbyists, and policy specialists who come together temporarily around a policy problem is

Select one:

a. an iron triangle.
b. an issue network.
c. a caucus.
d. a policy system.
e. an ideological network.

A

b. an issue network.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Members of the ________ generate more mail to Congress than any other group.

Select one:

a. NRA
b. ACLU
c. NAACP
d. AARP
e. NEA

A

d. AARP

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

The limits of interest groups’ in􀂧uence might be gauged by the Democratic
backlash against the ________, which tried to block the North American Free Trade
Agreement in 1993.

Select one:

a. ACLU
b. Sierra Club
c. Izaak Walton League
d. AARP
e. AFL-CIO

A

e. AFL-CIO

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

Citizens’ interest groups are distinguished from economic interest groups by the fact that
Select one:

a. their leaders are elected by secret ballot among the group’s members.
b. their members receive no direct economic bene􀂦t from attainment of the group’s goals.
c. they do not lobby government o􀂨cials directly, but rely instead on public service announcements to get their views across to society.
d. they always pursue goals in which there is a high level of agreement among society members.
e. All of these answers are correct.

A

b. their members receive no direct economic bene􀂦t from attainment of the group’s goals.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

The Supreme Court decision in Citizens United v. Federal Election Commission
(2010)

Select one:

a. allows corporations and labor unions to spend unlimited funds on
campaigns.

b. limits PACs by reducing the amount of money they can raise through
contributions by small donors.

c. has forced candidates for o􀂨ce and elected o􀂨cials to make public the amounts of campaign contributions they have received from PACs and which PACs make those donations.

d. has strengthened the argument that PACs constitute a better system of
campaign 􀂦nance than one based on wealthy donors.
e. has forced corporations

A

a. allows corporations and labor unions to spend unlimited funds on
campaigns.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

Which of the following is NOT a typical interest group function?
Select one:

a. supporting candidates for public office
b. addressing a broad and diverse range of public issues
c. working to in􀂧uence policymakers
d. promoting public policies
e. working to in􀂧uence legislators

A

b. addressing a broad and diverse range of public issues

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

incumbents have an advantage over their challengers because

Select one:

a. the cost of their race is much lower.
b. they have open seat elections.
c. they get 80 percent of PAC contributions.
d. their race is uncontested.
e. their districts don’t get reapportioned.

A

c. they get 80 percent of PAC contributions.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

The lawmaking function in the Constitution was granted to the:
Select one:

a. Judiciary
b. President
c. Congress
d. State governments
e. National government

A

c. Congress

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

Since the founding of the United States, the debate over the representation
function of Congress has centered on whether
Select one:

a. key decisions should be made by a small number of representatives in
committee or by the whole membership in floor debate.

b. the primary concern of a representative should be the interests of the nation or of his or her constituency.
c. congressional or presidential authority should dominate on broad issues.
d. the House or the Senate is more responsive to the public.
e. the House or the Senate should take the lead on foreign policy issues.

A

b. the primary concern of a representative should be the interests of the nation or of his or her constituency.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q
The minimum amount of money that a Senator must raise to compete in a small
state is \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_.
Select one:
a. 12 million
b. 4 million
c. 8 million
d. 5 million
e. 34 million
A

d. 5 million

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

Which of the following groups is overrepresented in Congress?

Select one:

a. blue-collar workers
b. homemakers
c. clerical workers
d. women
e. lawyers

A

e. lawyers

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

In the 1970s, roll-call votes

Select one:

a. generally demonstrated the power of incumbents.
b. generally demonstrated an increase in party loyalty.
c. generally did not pit most Republicans against most Democrats.
d. were less common than voice votes.
e. were generally not used to record each member’s vote.

A

c. generally did not pit most Republicans against most Democrats.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

Most of the work on legislation in Congress is done
Select one:

a. by committees and their respective subcommittees.
b. on the 􀂧oor of the House and Senate.
c. by conference committees.
d. by the president.
e. by bureaucratic agencies.

A

a. by committees and their respective subcommittees.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

Committee staffs within Congress
Select one:

a. concentrate on constituency relations.
b. perform an almost entirely legislative function.
c. concentrate on public relations.
d. split their time between legislative functions and public relations.
e. are devoted to logistical functions and committee public relations.

A

b. perform an almost entirely legislative function.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

The dominant policymaking political institution during most of the nineteenth
century was

Select one:

a. the president and the executive branch.
b. Congress.
c. the Supreme Court.
d. the bureaucracy.
e. the mass media.

A

b. Congress.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

What is the procedural tactic employed in the Senate to prevent a bill from coming
to a vote?

Select one:

a. mark up
b. filibuster
c. cloture
d. pocket veto
e. conference committee

A

b. filibuster

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

Most of the legislative work of Congress is performed by
Select one:

a. the standing committees and their subcommittees with jurisdiction over
particular policy areas.

b. the joint committees chosen to coordinate actions between the two
chambers of Congress.

c. the select committees chosen to study special problems on a temporary
basis.

d. the steering committees that decide how the party stands on particular bills.
e. party leaders in both chambers.

A

a. the standing committees and their subcommittees with jurisdiction over
particular policy areas.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

Senators are generally less likely to take directions from their leaders than House
members because

Select one:

a. senators are prohibited by their state legislatures from taking orders from
others.

b. senators think of themselves as being equals and are only willing to be led
by persuasion.

c. senators are more highly paid than House members and are thus immune
from financial threats.

d. House rules mandate that all party members on major bills vote according to
the directions of their leaders.

e. All of these answers are correct.

A

b. senators think of themselves as being equals and are only willing to be led
by persuasion.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

Individual rights, such as the right to a fair trial, that are constitutionally protected
against infringement by the government are known as:

Select one:

a. civil rights
b. limited rights
c. civil liberties
d. expansive rights
e. Constitutional freedoms

A

c. civil liberties

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

Which of the following, relative to the others, is typically more protective of individual rights?

Select one:

a. the U.S. Congress
b. the general public
c. public opinion
d. the presidency
e. the judiciary

A

e. the judiciary

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

What Illinois policy did the Supreme Court invalidate with its decision in
Witherspoon v. Illinois (1968)?

Select one:

a. allowing the prosecution an unlimited number of challenges in capital cases
b. preventing convicted persons in capital cases from 􀂦ling an appeal
c. preventing the prosecution from challenging jury selections in felony cases
d. the failure to provide low income defendants with court-appointed lawyers
e. encouragement of low income defendants to act as their own attorney

A

a. allowing the prosecution an unlimited number of challenges in capital cases

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

The individual freedoms in the Bill of Rights were extended by the Fourteenth
Amendment to include protection from deprivation of due process rights by:

Select one:

a. actions of the president.
b. the actions of individuals.
c. actions of the federal government.
d. actions of state and local governments.
e. actions of the U.S. military.

A

d. actions of state and local governments.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

The clear-and-present-danger test is a standard used by the court to determine:

Select one:

a. when people had the right to burn the US 􀂧ag as a symbol of expression.
b. the likelihood of imminent lawless action.
c. when government could legally limit freedom of expression.
d. when police o􀂨cers had to read a suspect their Miranda rights.
e. is used by states to keep groups from protesting.

A

c. when government could legally limit freedom of expression.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

Which country has the highest proportion of women serving in its national
legislatures?

Select one:

a. Sweden
b. United States
c. Japan
d. Germany
e. Canada

A

a. Sweden

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

In 2010, the greatest percentage of immigrants to America came from

Select one:

a. Europe.
b. Asia.
c. Latin America.
d. Africa.
e. Australia.

A

c. Latin America.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

Politically, the 􀂦ght for civil rights in Congress in the 1960s was led primarily by

Select one:

a. southern Democrats.
b. southern Republicans.
c. Republicans.
d. Democrats.
e. an about equal coalition of Democrats and Republicans.

A

e. an about equal coalition of Democrats and Republicans.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

The policy of a􀂨rmative action arose when
Select one:

a. it became apparent that disadvantaged Americans would not attain equal
employment opportunities through lawsuits that bene􀂦ted single individuals
only.

b. the Supreme Court declared in Bakke that the Fourteenth Amendment
requires government and large 􀂦rms to hire more women and minorities.

c. the Supreme Court ruled that de facto discrimination is unlawful.

d. private 􀂦rms decided on their own that a more diverse workforce was
actually a more productive and effective workforce.

e. the Supreme Court rendered its Adarand v. Pena decision in 1995.

A

a. it became apparent that disadvantaged Americans would not attain equal
employment opportunities through lawsuits that bene􀂦ted single individuals
only.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

Which of the following groups is LEAST likely to identify with the Democratic
Party?

Select one:

a. Hispanics
b. African Americans
c. white women
d. white southerners
e. white liberals

A

d. white southerners

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

_______ called discrimination “America’s curse” because of deep-rooted racism in a
country that idealized equality.

Select one:

a. Thomas Jefferson
b. Abraham Lincoln
c. Gunnar Myrdal
d. Justice Roberts
e. Martin Luther King Jr.

A

c. Gunnar Myrdal

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

Which of the following states is solidly Democratic?

Select one:

a. Idaho
b. Georgia
c. Utah
d. Washington
e. Texas

A

d. Washington

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

What are the two distinguishing characteristics of political socialization?

Select one:

a. Schools are the most in􀂧uential agent of political socialization, and political
socialization is strongest during childhood.

b. Family is the strongest agent of political socialization, and political
socialization is strongest during high school and college.

c. Political socialization is cumulative, and it is most heavily developed during
childhood.

d. Political socialization is transitory, and it is most heavily developed during
young adulthood.

e. Political socialization occurs primarily among educated populations, and it is
most heavily developed during adulthood.

A

c. Political socialization is cumulative, and it is most heavily developed during
childhood.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

Americans who attend religious services at least once a week are most likely to vote for which political party?

Select one:

a. Libertarian
b. Democratic
c. Republican
d. Populist
e. Green

A

c. Republican

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

social liberals, EXCEPT that
Select one:

a. they favor government activism in the area of distribution of economic
bene􀂦ts.

b. they prefer a smaller role for government in upholding social and cultural traditions.
c. they favor more government spending for the poor.
d. they believe lifestyle choices should be left to the individual.
e. they believe that government should be used to promote traditional values.

A

e. they believe that government should be used to promote traditional values.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

Voter turnout is highest in which country

Select one:

a. Canada
b. Great Britain
c. Belgium
d. Italy
e. United States

A

c. Belgium

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

Compared with U.S. citizens of higher incomes, those of lower incomes are

Select one:

a. much less likely to vote in elections.
b. about equally likely to vote in elections.
c. much more likely to vote in elections.

d. much less likely to vote in elections—a pattern that is also true in European
democracies.

e. None of these answers is correct.

A

a. much less likely to vote in elections.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

As distinct from alienation, apathy is
Select one:

a. associated with a high rate of voter turnout.
b. a feeling of powerlessness.
c. a general lack of interest in politics.
d. a sign that the political system is working properly.
e. widespread among a􀂩uent Americans.

A

c. a general lack of interest in politics.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

Women gained the right to vote

Select one:

a. with passage of the Bill of Rights.
b. shortly after the Civil War.
c. early in the twentieth century.
d. with passage of the Voting Rights Act of 1965.
e. during the era of Jacksonian democracy.

A

c. early in the twentieth century.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

Congressional campaigns are primarily focused on

Select one:

a. national issues
b. the party platform
c. local issues
d. special interests
e. personal interests

A

c. local issues

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
46
Q

Which of the following is an indication of strong party loyalty?
Select one:

a. split-ticket voting
b. an increase in independent voters
c. straight-ticket voting
d. the in􀂧uence of short-term issues and candidates
e. a focus on candidate charisma and personal style

A

c. straight-ticket voting

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
47
Q

The main reason for the high cost of American political campaigns is the cost of

Select one:

a. complying with Federal Election Commission rules.
b. actually raising campaign funds.
c. paying campaign managers.
d. paying pollsters.
e. paying for media ads.

A

e. paying for media ads

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
48
Q

Presidential candidates in the 1960s, compared with today,

Select one:

a. received more negative coverage.
b. were largely ignored by the media.
c. were hounded by the media incessantly.
d. had longer sound bites, on average, in broadcast television newscasts.
e. None of these answers is correct.

A

d. had longer sound bites, on average, in broadcast television newscasts.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
49
Q

What technology led editors to substitute news reports for opinion commentary?

Select one:

a. radio
b. telegraph
c. broadcast TV
d. cable TV
e. power-driven printing presses

A

b. telegraph

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
50
Q

Political parties are organized at the national, state, and local levels to assist
candidates with:

Select one:

a. fundraising
b. polling
c. research
d. media
e. all of these

A

e. all of these

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
51
Q

Which of the following characterizes journalist Walter Lippmann’s views on democracy?

Select one:

a. He felt that well-funded private interest groups and lobbyists had taken the
true majoritarian power of democracy away from the voting public.

b. He felt that modern democratic government had become an unhealthy,
pluralistic enterprise.

c. He believed that among forms of government, only democracy could provide
a citizen with the ability to be a “progressive being.”

d. He worried that most citizens are too uninformed to play the role democracy
assigns them.

e. None of these answers is correct.

A

d. He worried that most citizens are too uninformed to play the role democracy
assigns them.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
52
Q

What is a major limit on majoritarianism suggested by the text?
Select one:

a. The public as a whole takes an interest in only a few of the hundreds of
policy decisions that U.S. o􀂨cials make each year.

b. The public lacks access to the information required to take informed
political action on most issues dealt with by the government each year.

c. The actions of special interest groups are ultimately more in􀂧uential than the voting power of the public.

d. The rapid turnover of government o􀂨cials and members of the legislature
prevents the majority public from making a sustained effort for any single issue.

e. The most power tends to reside with a wealthy minority of the voting public,
preventing the majority public from setting the issue agenda.

A

a. The public as a whole takes an interest in only a few of the hundreds of
policy decisions that U.S. o􀂨cials make each year.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
53
Q

Individualism is a perspective that

Select one:

a. individuals should be free to act and think as they choose.
b. all individuals are equal in their moral worth.
c. people are the ultimate source of governing authority.
d. supports personal commitment and self-su􀂨ciency.
e. there should be formal limits on the power of citizens.

A

d. supports personal commitment and self-su􀂨ciency.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
54
Q

French philosopher Michel Foucault referred to politics as:”________.”

Select one:

a. like making sausage
b. the burden of citizens
c. a means to an end
d. war by other means
e. a necessary evil

A

d. war by other means

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
55
Q

The Bill of Rights
Select one:

a. reduced the restrictiveness of constitutionalism.
b. enhanced the powers of the executive.
c. further checked the power of the majority.
d. enhanced the majoritarian nature of government.
e. restricted the power of corporate in􀂧uence in the government.

A

power of the majority.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
56
Q

How many lawyers does the United States have in comparison to Britain, Germany,
and Italy?

Select one:

a. The U.S. has twice as many lawyers on a per capita basis.
b. The U.S. has roughly the same amount of lawyers on a per capita basis.
c. The U.S. has roughly twice as many lawyers, in terms of total numbers.
d. The U.S. has roughly 􀂦ve times as many lawyers on a per capita basis.
e. The U.S. has roughly half as many lawyers on a per capita basis.

A

a. The U.S. has twice as many lawyers on a per capita basis.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
57
Q

The average incomes of minimum-wage workers in the United States and Europe re􀂧ect a greater in􀂧uence of which of the following in the United States, when
compared to Europe?

Select one:

a. majoritarianism
b. elitism
c. corporate power
d. judicial action
e. constitutionalism

A

c. corporate power

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
58
Q

The process by which a society settles its con􀂧icts and allocates the resulting
bene􀂦ts and costs is called:

Select one:

a. politics.
b. government.
c. elitism.
d. socialism.
e. communism.

A

a. politics.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
59
Q

Compared to two decades ago, contemporary Americans are, on average,
Select one:

a. far better informed about political affairs.
b. at about the same level of being informed about political affairs.

c. getting most of their news from traditional media sources such as
newspapers.

d. much more knowledgeable about the functioning of America’s political
institutions.

e. paying more attention to news sources that have an obvious ideological
bias.

A

e. paying more attention to news sources that have an obvious ideological
bias.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
60
Q

Which of the following is an accurate description of the prevalence of college education in the United States?

Select one:

a. Among adults twenty-􀂦ve years of age and older, roughly half are college
graduates.

b. Among adults twenty-􀂦ve years of age and older, roughly one in four is a college graduate.

c. Every U.S. state has at least twenty colleges or universities within its
borders.

d. Despite having a much higher rate of colleges and universities per capita than European countries; the U.S. has a lower rate of college graduation per
capita.

e. Although the U.S. has a lower number of colleges and universities per capita
than Europe, it has a much higher rate of college graduation per capita.

A

b. Among adults twenty-􀂦ve years of age and older, roughly one in four is a college graduate.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
61
Q

The words of the Declaration of Independence re􀂧ected

Select one:

a. Aristotle’s conception of democracy.
b. Montesquieu’s view of constitutionalism.
c. Hobbes’s idea of the state of nature.
d. Locke’s philosophy of inalienable rights.
e. Madison’s view of factions.

A

d. Locke’s philosophy of inalienable rights.

62
Q

The name of the plan that provided for a bicameral legislature: House of
Representatives based on population, and Senate: two from each state.

Select one:

a. the Virginia Plan
b. the New Jersey Plan
c. the Great Compromise
d. the Washington Plan
e. the Madison Plan

A

c. the Great Compromise

63
Q

Progressive reforms included

Select one:

a. primary elections.
b. direct election of U.S. senators.
c. the initiative and referendum.
d. recall elections.
e. All these answers are correct.

A

e. All these answers are correct.

64
Q

The term “separated institutions sharing power” was coined by political scientist
Richard Neustadt to describe

Select one:

a. the shared system of power between the states and federal government.
b. a system where the executive branch works with the legislative branch to ensure the passage of laws.

c. the elaborate systems of checks and balances between the branches of
government.

d. a system where the judicial branch works with the legislative branch to
ensure laws are Constitutional.

e. a system where the judicial branch guides the executive on the
constitutionality of legislation.

A

c. the elaborate systems of checks and balances between the branches of
government.

65
Q

Shay’s rebellion was signi􀂦cant because _______________.

Select one:

a. it led to a resolution calling for a constitutional convention.
b. it led to a higher tariff on goods.
c. it forced wealthy merchants to fund the nation’s militia.
d. it led to trade wars between Spain and the United States.
e. it showed the power of the merchant class.

A

a. it led to a resolution calling for a constitutional convention.

66
Q

The Constitution forbids Congress from
Select one:

a. proposing constitutional amendments.
b. passing ex post facto laws.
c. declaring war.
d. proposing the repeal of constitutional amendments.
e. creating a national university.

A

b. passing ex post facto laws.

67
Q

Marbury v. Madison was an ingenious decision because it

Select one:

a. turned a case that involved the issue of states’ rights into one that asserted
national power.

b. rede􀂦ned the constitutional relationship between the president and
Congress.

c. asserted the power of the judiciary without creating the possibility of its rejection by either the executive or the legislative branch.
d. turned a case that involved the issue of states’ rights into one that asserted
judicial power over the institutions of society.

e. gave more power to the presidency, at the expense of Congress.

A

c. asserted the power of the judiciary without creating the possibility of its rejection by either the executive or the legislative branch.
d. turned a case that involved the issue of states’ rights into one that asserted
judicial power over the institutions of society.

68
Q

The writers of the Constitution established a federal system of government in part
because:

Select one:

a. the states already existed as established entities and had to be preserved.
b. few states in history had successfully established unitary governments.
c. Locke and Montesquieu had concluded it was superior to other systems of government.
d. the British political system was based on the federal principle.
e. the states would be valuable sources of revenue for a federal government.

A

a. the states already existed as established entities and had to be preserved.

69
Q

Which of the following individuals would agree that each state should be allowed
to determine for itself the extent to which national authority restricts its actions?

Select one:

a. John Marshall
b. John C. Calhoun
c. Lyndon Johnson
d. Franklin D. Roosevelt
e. None of these answers is correct.

A

b. John C. Calhoun

70
Q

The federal government’s power to tax, regulate commerce among the states, and
declare war are all examples of ________ powers.

Select one:

a. reserved
b. enumerated
c. implied
d. concurrent
e. None of these answers is correct.

A

b. enumerated

71
Q

The Patient Protection and Affordable Care Act

Select one:

a. increased state control over health insurance.
b. decreased state control over health insurance.
c. had no signi􀂦cant impact on state control over health insurance.
d. ended government regulation of health insurance.

e. None of these
answers is correct.

A

b. decreased state control over health insurance.

72
Q

In key decisions early in the New Deal era, the Supreme Court
Select one:

a. invalidated key pieces of FDR’s New Deal legislation.
b. upheld FDR’s “court-packing” proposal.
c. ruled that segregation violated the Fourteenth Amendment.
d. ruled that public accommodations were part of interstate commerce.
e. invalidated the commerce clause.

A

a. invalidated key pieces of FDR’s New Deal legislation.

73
Q

In key decisions early in the New Deal era, the Supreme Court

Select one:

a. invalidated key pieces of FDR’s New Deal legislation.
b. upheld FDR’s “court-packing” proposal.
c. ruled that segregation violated the Fourteenth Amendment.
d. ruled that public accommodations were part of interstate commerce.
e. invalidated the commerce clause.

A

a. invalidated key pieces of FDR’s New Deal legislation.

74
Q

In Roe v. Wade (1973), the Supreme Court ruled that a woman has a constitutional
right to choose abortion. This ruling was based on which implied Constitutional
right?

Select one:

a. freedom of expression
b. freedom from persecution
c. the right to privacy

d. the right to
unreasonable searches and seizures

e. the right to life, liberty, & the pursuit of happiness

A

c. the right to privacy

75
Q

Which of the following is true about the Sedition Act of 1798?

Select one:

a. The Act prohibited malicious newspaper stories about the president.
b. The Supreme Court ruled the Act unconstitutional.
c. The Senate voted it down, while the House passed it.
d. Thomas Jefferson strongly supported it.
e. The state governments refused to enforce it.

A

a. The Act prohibited malicious newspaper stories about the president.

76
Q

Like all other rights, the right of free expression is

Select one:

a. spelled out in precise terms in the Bill of Rights.
b. not absolute.
c. fully respected by public o􀂨cials.
d. protected from action by federal o􀂨cials but not state o􀂨cials.
e. None of these answers is correct.

A

b. not absolute.

77
Q

Which of the following amendments contains a due process clause?

Select one:

a. First
b. Tenth
c. Third
d. Fourteenth
e. Twenty-􀂦rst

A

d. Fourteenth

78
Q

The court has several rules they use when determining the admissibility of
evidence in a court case. These rules are:

Select one:

a. plain view exception, good faith exception, a􀂨davit, & subpoena discovery.
b. Subpoena discovery, inevitable discovery, & plain view discovery.

c. exclusionary rule, good faith exception, inevitable discovery exception, &
plain view exception.

d. exclusionary rule, inclusionary rule, plain view rule, & good faith rule.
e. inevitable discovery, plain view discovery, & subpoena discovery.

A

c. exclusionary rule, good faith exception, inevitable discovery exception, &
plain view exception.

79
Q

The Edward Snowden leaks about the NSA surveillance program:
Select one:

a. indicated that the NSA was listening to all American cell phone
conversations.

b. showed that the NSA was diligent about getting court orders to monitor
electronic communications.

c. led President Obama to quickly terminate the program.

d. brought changes in how Americans’ phone data was stored for NSA
retrieval.

e. in reality shared little or no new information.

A

d. brought changes in how Americans’ phone data was stored for NSA
retrieval.

80
Q

According to Freedom House, which of the following countries has the highest
degree of freedom?

Select one:

a. Japan
b. Mexico
c. Guatemala
d. Russia
e. United States

A

e. United States

81
Q

Which country has the highest proportion of women serving in its national
legislatures?

Select one:

a. Sweden
b. United States
c. Japan
d. Germany
e. Canada

A

a. Sweden

82
Q

Of the following states, which one has the LOWEST percentage of Hispanics in its
population?

Select one:

a. Washington
b. New Mexico
c. California
d. Arizona
e. Texas

A

a. Washington

83
Q

The focus of civil liberties is the ________ and the focus of civil rights is the
________.
Select one:

a. individual; individual
b. group; group

c. individual; group and individual
d. group; individual

e. Tenth Amendment;
Fourteenth Amendment

A

c. individual; group and individual

84
Q

The 􀂦rst woman to serve on the Supreme Court was:

Select one:

a. Ruth Bader Ginsburg
b. Geraldine Ferraro
c. Sandra Day O’Conner
d. Elena Kagan
e. Sonia Sotomajor

A

c. Sandra Day O’Conner

85
Q

Which ethnic group tends to be underrepresented the most politically, in
comparison with other minority groups?

Select one:

a. African Americans
b. Native Americans
c. Asian Americans
d. Hispanic Americans
e. European Americans

A

c. Asian Americans

86
Q

The country with the largest percentage of legislative seats held by women is:

Select one:

a. Germany
b. United States
c. Sweden
d. Japan
e. Great Britain

A

c. Sweden

87
Q

_______ called discrimination “America’s curse” because of deep-rooted racism in a
country that idealized equality.

Select one:

a. Thomas Jefferson
b. Abraham Lincoln
c. Gunnar Myrdal
d. Justice Roberts
e. Martin Luther King Jr.

A

c. Gunnar Myrdal

88
Q

In terms of party identi􀂦cation, about two-thirds of adults call themselves

Select one:

a. liberals.
b. Republicans or Democrats.
c. Republicans.
d. Independents.
e. Democrats.

A

b. Republicans or Democrats.

89
Q

Which of the following states is a competitive state, meaning that it could
potentially vote either Democratic or Republican?

Select one:

a. Florida
b. California
c. Massachusetts
d. Maine
e. Vermont

A

a. Florida

90
Q

The country with the highest degree of national pride is
Select one:

a. Canada
b. Germany
c. United States
d. Spain
e. France

A

c. United States

91
Q

The process by which individuals acquire their political opinions is called
Select one:

a. popular culture.
b. social communication.
c. socio-economic change.
d. political socialization.
e. political assimilation.

A

d. political socialization.

92
Q

Society in Northern Ireland is presented by the text as a demonstration of what
difference with U.S. society?
Select one:

a. the lack of importance in measured public opinion for the political process

b. the status of the family as a secondary agent of socialization instead of a
primary agent

c. the relatively small in􀂧uence that government propaganda has on the
individual

d. the lack of religion as a de􀂦ning frame of reference
e. the lack of crosscutting between groups

A

e. the lack of crosscutting between groups

93
Q

All of the following ideological types are prevalent in the United States EXCEPT

Select one:

a. liberals.
b. conservatives.
c. populists.
d. libertarians.
e. communists.

A

e. communists.

94
Q

Which of the following countries has had the LOWEST estimated voter turnout in major national elections in recent decades?

Select one:

a. Denmark
b. Germany
c. United States
d. Belgium
e. Canada

A

c. United States

95
Q

Citizens with a strong or moderate interest in politics:
Select one:

a. identify with a political party.
b. are more likely to vote.
c. have turned out at a rate in excess of 75 percent.

d. are more familiar with policy differences
between the two parties.

e. all of these.

A

e. all of these.

96
Q

Citizens in which of the following countries are MOST likely to talk to people about
politics?

Select one:

a. Germany
b. France
c. Great Britain
d. United States
e. There is no difference among the four nations.

A

d. United States

97
Q

African American men technically gained suffrage with the passage of the ________
Amendment.

Select one:

a. Fifteenth
b. Nineteenth
c. Twenty-First
d. Twenty-Third
e. Twenty-Sixth

A

a. Fifteenth

98
Q

________ representation systems are those in which seats in the legislature are
allocated according to each political party’s share of the popular vote.

Select one:

a. Plurality
b. Populist
c. Minority
d. Democratic
e. Proportional

A

e. Proportional

99
Q

Television 􀂦rst became a major medium for campaign ads during the
Select one:

a. 1940s.
b. 1950s.
c. 1960s.
d. 1970s.
e. 1980s.

A

c. 1960s.

100
Q

Which institution receives the most news coverage from the national press?
Select one:

a. the presidency
b. U.S. House of Representatives
c. U.S. Senate
d. U.S. Supreme Court
e. the federal bureaucracy

A

a. the presidency

101
Q

Staunch conservatives are MOST likely to pay regular attention to

Select one:

a. MSNBC.
b. NPR.
c. the Daily Show.
d. Hilary Clinton
e. Fox News.

A

e. Fox News.

102
Q

Which of the following characterizes journalist Walter Lippmann’s views on
democracy?

Select one:

a. He felt that well-funded private interest groups and lobbyists had taken the
true majoritarian power of democracy away from the voting public.

b. He felt that modern democratic government had become an unhealthy,
pluralistic enterprise.

c. He believed that among forms of government, only democracy could provide
a citizen with the ability to be a “progressive being.”

d. He worried that most citizens are too uninformed to play the role democracy
assigns them.

e. None of these answers is correct.

A

d. He worried that most citizens are too uninformed to play the role democracy
assigns them.

103
Q

What is a major limit on majoritarianism suggested by the text?
Select one:

a. The public as a whole takes an interest in only a few of the hundreds of
policy decisions that U.S. o􀂨cials make each year.

b. The public lacks access to the information required to take informed
political action on most issues dealt with by the government each year.

c. The actions of special interest groups are ultimately more in􀂧uential than the
voting power of the public.

d. The rapid turnover of government o􀂨cials and members of the legislature
prevents the majority public from making a sustained effort for any single
issue.

e. The most power tends to reside with a wealthy minority of the voting public,
preventing the majority public from setting the issue agenda.

A

a. The public as a whole takes an interest in only a few of the hundreds of
policy decisions that U.S. o􀂨cials make each year.

104
Q

According to political scientist Louis Hartz, the United States

Select one:

a. constitutes a “corporate dictatorship.”
b. was “born free.”
c. formed a perfect union.
d. is basically a monarchical state.
e. “perfected” socialist democracy.

A

b. was “born free.”

105
Q

From 1945 until the late 1960s, there was the highest degree of bipartisanship in
the area of:

Select one:

a. economic regulation.
b. taxation levels.
c. civil rights.
d. foreign affairs.
e. environmental policy.

A

d. foreign affairs.

106
Q

The Bill of Rights
Select one:

a. reduced the restrictiveness of constitutionalism.
b. enhanced the powers of the executive.
c. further checked the power of the majority.
d. enhanced the majoritarian nature of government.
e. restricted the power of corporate in􀂧uence in the government.

A

c. further checked the power of the majority.

107
Q

Pluralism contends that, on most issues:
Select one:
a. corporate elites have more control over economic policy than do “the Politicians in the visible government.”

b. the will of the majority of the voting public determines government policy.

c. it is the preferences of special-interest groups that largely determine what
government does.

d. true authority lies with the elected politicians, and not with the public that put
them in o􀂨ce.

e. the diverse nature of the citizenry enhances the democratic process in
policymaking.

A

c. it is the preferences of special-interest groups that largely determine what
government does.

108
Q

One example of an authoritarian regime is:
Select one:

a. Great Britain.
b. France.
c. the United States.
d. China.
e. Canada.

A

d. China.

109
Q

Political knowledge has been shown to be important

Select one:
a. in order to determine your political party a􀂨liation.

b. so that you understand what is being reported in the media.
c. because it fosters civic participation.
d. so that people’s political views can be distorted by politicians.
e. so political leaders are better able to “spin” their message.

A

c. because it fosters civic participation.

110
Q

the best predictor of a student’s later participation in the nation’s civic and political
life is

Select one:

a. a college degree.
b. a solid understanding of public affairs.
c. participation in student government.
d. participation in Greek life.
e. attending a school with a residential campus versus a “commuter” campus.

A

b. a solid understanding of public affairs.

111
Q

To the framers, the great danger of democratic government was the risk of

Select one:

a. tyranny of the majority.
b. elite rule.
c. special-interest politics.
d. a weak presidency.
e. judicial imperialism.

A

a. tyranny of the majority.

112
Q

Shays’ Rebellion
Select one:

a. was a successful revolt.
b. convinced many political leaders that the national government was too powerful.
c. convinced many political leaders that the national government was too weak.
d. reinforced public support for the Articles of Confederation.
e. occurred after the Philadelphia convention of 1787.

A

c. convinced many political leaders that the national government was too weak.

113
Q

The Federalist Papers were written by _______, _______ , and ______ to persuade New
York to vote for the new Constitution.

Select one:

a. Washington, Hamilton, Adams
b. Hamilton, Madison, Adams
c. Jay, Hamilton, Madison
d. Washington, Madison, Jay
e. Jay, Adams, Hamilton

A

c. Jay, Hamilton, Madison

114
Q

The term of o􀂨ce for a U.S. senator is ________ years, while that of a member of
the U.S. House is ________ years.

Select one:

a. six; two
b. four; two
c. six; four
d. four; four
e. eight; four

A

a. six; two

115
Q

Where is the Bill of Rights found in the Constitution?
Select one:

a. Article I, Section 8
b. Article II
c. the FIrst ten amendments
d. amendments 17 through 26
e. Article III

A

c. the FIrst ten amendments

116
Q

Judicial review is the power of the American courts to

Select one:

a. declare a law unconstitutional.
b. suspend the writ of habeas corpus.
c. impeach the president.
d. give advisory opinions to Congress.
e. give advice and counsel to the president.

A

a. declare a law unconstitutional.

117
Q

Which of the following aspects of U.S. government might be used as part of an
argument that the U.S. is less democratic than some other democracies?

Select one:

a. the extension of popular direct election to o􀂨ce
b. the frequency of election of its larger legislative body
c. its extensive reliance on primary elections
d. the frequency of election of its chief executive
e. its staggered terms of o􀂨ce of members of the legislature

A

e. its staggered terms of o􀂨ce of members of the legislature

118
Q

The type of government created in the United States in 1787 can be called:

Select one:

a. a pure democracy
b. an oligarchy
c. a constitutional democratic republic
d. a theocracy
e. a representative constitution

A

c. a constitutional democratic republic

119
Q

The Tenth Amendment addressed the concerns of Anti-Federalists about
Select one:

a. individual freedoms.
b. the meaning of the commerce clause.

c. popular representation in
Congress.

d. the powers of state governments.
e. the Electoral College.

A

d. the powers of state governments.

120
Q

The doctrine of nulli􀂦cation is most closely associated with
Select one:

a. Thomas Jefferson.
b. Andrew Jackson.
c. Roger B. Taney.
d. John C. Calhoun.
e. John Marshall.

A

d. John C. Calhoun.

121
Q

The federal government’s power to tax, regulate commerce among the states, and
declare war are all examples of ________ powers.

Select one:

a. reserved
b. enumerated
c. implied
d. concurrent
e. None of these answers is correct.

A

b. enumerated

122
Q

Concurrent powers are powers exercised over the same policy areas. Some of the
shared powers of the state and federal government are:

Select one:

a. national defense, currency, post o􀂨ce, foreign affairs, & interstate
commerce.

b. charter local governments, education, public safety, registration & voting,
intrastate commerce.

c. lend and borrow money, taxation, law enforcement, charter banks, &
transportation.

d. public safety, national defense, education, transportation, & intrastate
commerce.

e. charter banks, charter local governments, national defense, registration &
voting.

A

c. lend and borrow money, taxation, law enforcement, charter banks, &
transportation.

123
Q

The TANF aspect of the Welfare Reform Act
Select one:

a. was a categorical grant that restricted federal assistance to three years but
limited state discretion in how to use the funds.

b. was a block grant that, among other aspects, restricted federal assistance to
FIve years.

c. was a categorical grant that placed no time restrictions on federal
assistance but dramatically limited state discretion in how to use the funds.

d. was a block grant with no time or activity restrictions on how to use federal
funds.

e. ended direct federal welfare assistance to the states in grants of any form.

A

b. was a block grant that, among other aspects, restricted federal assistance to
five years.

124
Q

While the Fourteenth Amendment was intended to protect the newly freed slaves
from discriminatory action by state governments, it was also used to

Select one:

a. increase taxes on African American businesses.
b. regulate interstate commerce.
c. protect businesses from state regulation.
d. pass the Sherman Antitrust Act (1890).
e. limit the Federal government’s regulatory power over commerce.

A

c. protect businesses from state regulation.

125
Q

The “separate but equal” standard was created by

Select one:

a. Congress.
b. the Supreme Court.
c. the state supreme court of Virginia.
d. President Ulysses S. Grant.
e. Justice John Marshall Harlan.

A

b. the Supreme Court.

126
Q

In key decisions early in the New Deal era, the Supreme Court

Select one:

a. invalidated key pieces of FDR’s New Deal legislation.
b. upheld FDR’s “court-packing” proposal.
c. ruled that segregation violated the Fourteenth Amendment.
d. ruled that public accommodations were part of interstate commerce.
e. invalidated the commerce clause.

A

a. invalidated key pieces of FDR’s New Deal legislation.

127
Q

Which of the following did the framers want from a president?

Select one:

a. national leadership
b. administration of the laws
c. statesmanship in foreign affairs
d. command of the military
e. All of these answers are correct.

A

e. All of these answers are correct.

128
Q

Congress has formally declared war ________ times in U.S. history.
Select one:

a. 2
b. 5
c. 55
d. almost 200
e. close to 350

A

b. 5

129
Q

The Executive Office of the President (EOP) was created in ________.

Select one:

a. 1789
b. 1804
c. 1865
d. 1888
e. 1939

A

e. 1939

130
Q

The President serves which roles:
Select one:

a. Chief Executive
b. Commander and chief
c. Chief diplomat
d. Legislative leader
e. all of these

A

e. all of these

131
Q

Which of the following states is MOST likely to vote Republican in the next
presidential election?
Select one:

a. Pennsylvania
b. New York
c. Vermont
d. Colorado
e. Texas

A

e. Texas

132
Q

How has the Government Accountability O􀂨ce’s role changed?
Select one:

a. It has acquired wide judicial and adjudication powers to deal with interagency
disputes.

b. It has changed from a presidential-executive support agency to largely a congressional support agency.

c. It has been given broader powers over time to actually grant additional funds
or take away funds directly from agencies.

d. It has had its broad powers limited from general oversight down to keeping
track of agency spending.

e. It has moved from a limited role of keeping track of agency spending to also monitoring whether the agency is implementing policies in the way Congress
intended.

A

e. It has moved from a limited role of keeping track of agency spending to also monitoring whether the agency is implementing policies in the way Congress
intended.

133
Q

The Department of ________ was founded in 1889.

Select one:

a. Health and Human Services
b. State
c. Labor
d. Homeland Security
e. Agriculture

A

e. Agriculture

134
Q

The Federal Bureau of Investigation (FBI), the National Aeronautics and Space Administration (NASA), and the Environmental Protection Agency (EPA) are

Select one:

a. all agencies within cabinet departments.
b. all independent agencies.

c. respectively, an independent agency, an agency within a cabinet department,
and a regulatory agency.

d. two cabinet departments and a regulatory agency.

e. respectively, an agency within a cabinet department, an independent agency,
and a regulatory agency.

A

e. respectively, an agency within a cabinet department, an independent agency,
and a regulatory agency.

135
Q

About three in every 􀂦ve managerial and professional positions in the federal
bureaucracy are held by

Select one:

a. women.
b. white males.
c. African Americans.
d. Latino Americans.
e. Asian Americans.

A

b. white males.

136
Q

n the context of the antidiscrimination provisions of the Civil Rights Act of 1964,
demonstrative of the ambiguities of the law?

Select one:

a. The case arrived at the Supreme Court without the Court requesting a writ of certiorari.
b. The case involved administrative law, but the Court used statutory law as a basis for its decision.

c. It involved the votes of justices that had opposed the Civil Rights Act but
who used the Civil Rights Act in the justi􀂦cation for their ruling.

d. The minority dissenting opinion refused to use the Civil Rights Act as a
justi􀂦cation.

e. The case dealt with sexual harassment in the workplace, which is not
mentioned in the Civil Rights Act.

A

e. The case dealt with sexual harassment in the workplace, which is not
mentioned in the Civil Rights Act.

137
Q

The merit plan applies to ________ in the ________ court system.
Select one:

a. selection of judges; federal
b. selection of judges; state
c. jurisdiction; federal
d. jurisdiction; state
e. None of these answers is correct.

A

b. selection of judges; state

138
Q

A concurring opinion
Select one:

a. explains the chief justice’s position on a case.
b. is a separate view written by a justice who votes with the majority but disagrees with its reasoning.
c. is delivered when the Court interprets a constitutional issue.

d. is delivered when at least two justices, but less than a majority, hold the
same opinion in a case.

e. explains why the Court accepted the case in the 􀂦rst place.

A

b. is a separate view written by a justice who votes with the majority but disagrees with its reasoning.

139
Q

The long-serving chief justice that established the principle of judicial review was
Select one:

a. Charles Evans Hughes.
b. Hugo Black.
c. Clarence Thomas.
d. John Marshall.
e. Benjamin Card

A

d. John Marshall.

140
Q

On the whole, American politicians have been LEAST willing to ________ in order to
combat global warming.

Select one:

a. reduce carbon emissions
b. encourage clean energy
c. encourage energy conservation

d. consider alternative energy sources
e. raise fuel standards for vehicles

A

a. reduce carbon emissions

141
Q

The term externalities refers to
Select one:

a. regulations imposed on a 􀂦rm by government.
b. a nation that is a trading partner of another nation.
c. the costs of production that are incurred by society.
d. tariffs imposed on American goods exported to other countries.
e. None of these answers is correct.

A

c. the costs of production that are incurred by society.

142
Q

Government support for agriculture in the form of price supports and income subsidies is designed PRIMARILY to

Select one:

a. increase farm production in order to meet the nation’s food needs.

b. stabilize farm income, which would otherwise 􀂧uctuate greatly due to
market and weather conditions.

c. promote farm
conservation so as to preserve the productive capacity of U.S.
agriculture.

d. encourage rural development.
e. encourage urban development.

A

b. stabilize farm income, which would otherwise fluctuate greatly due to
market and weather conditions.

143
Q

Which of the following government agencies regulates business competition?

Select one:

a. Federal Trade Commission
b. Interstate Commerce Commission
c. Securities and Exchange Commission

d. all of these: the Federal Trade Commission; the Interstate Commerce
Commission; and the Securities and Exchange Commission

e. None of these answers is correct.

A

d. all of these: the Federal Trade Commission; the Interstate Commerce
Commission; and the Securities and Exchange Commission

144
Q

A progressive income tax, which is a tax where the marginal tax rate increases as
income rises, was passed under which president.

Select one:

a. Ronald Reagan
b. Herbert Hoover
c. Franklin D. Roosevelt
d. Teddy Roosevelt
e. Abraham Lincoln

A

e. Abraham Lincoln

145
Q

Medicare
Select one:

a. is funded through general tax revenues.
b. is one of the least popular government programs.
c. is paid for through a payroll tax.
d. provides health care to all adults over age 50.
e. None of these answers is correct.

A

c. is paid for through a payroll tax.

146
Q

The Welfare Reform Act of 1996, passed by President Clinton,

Select one:

a. resulted in more children living in poverty in Kentucky & Louisiana.
b. expanded welfare to young mothers and children to prevent them from falling into poverty.

c. placed a five-year limit on welfare eligibility and requires able-bodied
recipients to take job training and apply for work.

d. impacted African Americans and hispanics the most by taking away their bene􀂦ts.

e. created an entitlement program that can not be cancelled by the
government.

A

c. placed a five-year limit on welfare eligibility and requires able-bodied
recipients to take job training and apply for work.

147
Q

Since the 1970s US importation of goods from overseas has lead to the loss of high-paying American factory jobs and a decline in union membership. This has
resulted in

Select one:

a. wage stagnation for the last 30 years

b. a rise in unemployment and filing for
unemployment benefits

c. a rise in employment in the service sector and lower wage jobs
d. the realization that Congress must raise the minimum to $15
e. higher tax rates passed onto businesses to offset the loss of tax revenue.

A

c. a rise in employment in the service sector and lower wage jobs

148
Q

Which country possesses the most powerful military?
Select one:

a. Great Britain
b. Russia
c. China
d. United States
e. France

A

d. United States

149
Q

America’s trade de􀂦cit with China surpasses more than ________ annually.

Select one:

a. $250 billion
b. $2 billion
c. $22 billion
d. $48 billion
e. $712 billion

A

a. $250 billion

150
Q

The Dayton Accords
Select one:

a. brought the deployment of peacekeeping troops to Bosnia.
b. ended the Soviet invasion of Afghanistan.
c. ended the placement of Soviet missiles on Cuban soil.
d. established the coalition that attacked Iraq in the Persian Gulf War in 1990.
e. brought a peaceful dissolution of the Soviet Union.

A

a. brought the deployment of peacekeeping troops to Bosnia.

151
Q

Which president called for a “new world order”?

Select one:

a. Bill Clinton
b. Ronald Reagan
c. George H. W. Bush
d. Dwight Eisenhower
e. George W. Bush

A

c. George H. W. Bush