Final Flashcards

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1
Q

Which of the following contain prokaryotic cells?

a) the archaea
b) the protistans
c) the fungi
d) all of the above
A

a) the archaea

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2
Q

The molecule associated with energy transfer in living organisms is:

a) deoxyribonucleic acid
b) lipids
c) ATP
d) carbon
A

c) ATP

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3
Q

A community and its physical and chemical environment constitute:

a) a population
b) the biosphere
c) an ecosystem
d) an organ system
A

c) an ecosystem

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4
Q

The molecule of inheritance is:

a) deoxyribonucleic acid
b) lipids
c) ATP
d) carbon
A

a) deoxyribonucleic acid

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5
Q

Which of the following is not a requirement of all living things:

   a) reproduction
   b) metabolism
   c) adaptation
   d) aerobic respiration
   e) none of the above
A

d) aerobic respiration

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6
Q

The one-way flow of energy through the biosphere starts with energy input from:

a) deoxyribonucleic acid
b) the sun
c) ATP
d) aerobic respiration
A

b) the sun

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7
Q

The scientific name for human is HOMO SAPIENS. HOMO is the genus and SAPIENS is the specie. The scientific way to refer to human is:

a) Homo sapiens 
b) Sapiens Homo 
c) homo Sapiens
d) Homo sapiens 
e) Sapiens homo
A

d) Homo sapiens

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8
Q

Decomposers include certain bacteria and fungi.

A

True

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9
Q

Sexual reproduction results in offspring that are genetically identical to the parent.

A

False

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10
Q

The atom of element Phosphorus has 16 neutrons and 15 electrons. What is the atomic number for Phosphorus atom?________

A

15

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11
Q

Element Helium(He) has atomic number of 2. Do you consider this element reactive or inert?

A

Inert

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12
Q

Atoms gain or lose electrons to form

a) ionic bonds
b) covalent bonds
c) hydrogen bonds
A

a) ionic bonds

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13
Q

The normal range of blood pH indicates:

a) 7.3-7.5
b) 5.5-6.3 
c) 7.8-8.3
d) above 8.5
A

a) 7.3-7.5

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14
Q

Two atoms of oxygen are bond together by double covalent bond. How many electrons do they share?

a) 2
b) 4
c) 6
d) 5
A

b) 4

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15
Q

Neutrons are negatively charged

A

False

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16
Q

Water is a great solvent of polar molecules.

A

True

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17
Q

In a polar covalent bond, electrons are equally shared.

A

False

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18
Q

Loss of a protein’s normal 3-D shape because of high temperatures or changes in pH is called:

 a) metabolism
 b) denaturation
 c) hydrolysis
 d) condensation
A

b) denaturation

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19
Q

In a condensation reaction, small molecules come together to make a large molecule.

A

True

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20
Q

Ribose is a 6-carbon monosaccharide.

A

False

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21
Q

building blocks of nucleic acids are

A

nucleotides

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22
Q

building blocks of proteins are

A

amino acids

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23
Q

building blocks of most lipids are glycerol and

A

fatty acids

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24
Q

building blocks of carbohydrates are

A

monosaccharides

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25
Q

If a solution outside of a cell contains a greater concentration of dissolved solutes than the contents of the cell, the solution is said to be hypotonic

A

false

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26
Q

In active transport solutes are transported down their concentration gradient.

A

false

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27
Q

Phospholipids contain a hydrophobic head and two hydrophillic tails.

A

false

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28
Q

Plant cells but not animal cells have:

a) Golgi bodies
b) ER
c) plastids
d) central vacuole
e) c & d
A

e) c & d (plastids & central vacuole)

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29
Q

synthesis of proteins takes place in

A

rough ER

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30
Q

photosynthesis takes place in

A

chloroplasts

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31
Q

synthesis of lipids takes place in

A

smooth ER

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32
Q

modifies,sorst, packages & ships proteins & lipids

A

Golgi bodies

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33
Q

provide movement for the cells

A

flagella

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34
Q

digestion in the cell is done by

A

lysosomes

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35
Q

ATP is produced in

A

mitochondrion

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36
Q

The final product(s) of glycolysis include:

   a) glucose molecules
   b) pyruvate molecules
   c) ATP
   d) b & c
   e) a & c
A

d) b & c (pyruvate molecules & ATP)

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37
Q

Oxygen is formed during:

  a) the non-cyclic pathway of ATP             formation
   b) the cyclic pathway of ATP formation
   c) the light-independent stage of photosynthesis 
   d) all of the above
A

a) the non-cyclic pathway of ATP formation

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38
Q
Cell’s ability to acquire energy and use it to, store, build, or break apart substances is 
called:
       a) biochemistry
       b) photosynthesis 
       c) respiration
       d) metabolism
A

d) metabolism

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39
Q

Enzymes

   a) speed up metabolic reactions
   b) lower the activation energy
   c) get used up during a reaction 
   d) a &  b
   e) a & b & c
A

d) a & b (speed up metabolic reactions & lower the activation energy)

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40
Q

In the non-cyclic pathway of the light-dependent stage of photosynthesis, two photosystems are involved.

A

true

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41
Q

Glucose is formed in the light-dependent stage of photosynthesis.

A

false

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42
Q

The starting molecule in glycolysis is pyruvate.

A

false

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43
Q

Krebs cycle of aerobic respiration takes place in the cytoplasm.

A

false

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44
Q

CO2 is released during Krebs(citric acid) cycle.

A

true

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45
Q

Light-independent stage of photosynthesis takes place in the grana.

A

false

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46
Q

In exergonic reactions, energy is released.

A

true

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47
Q

What would be the complimentary strand of DNA to the DNA strand below?
DNA 3’A-T-C-G-T-T-G-A-C-A-T-T 5’

A

5’ T-A-G-C-A-A-C-T-G-T-A-A 3’

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48
Q

One species’ DNA differs from others in its

 a) sugars
 b) phosphate groups
 c) nucleotide sequence
 d) all of the above
A

c) nucleotide sequence

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49
Q

DNA replication results in

 a) four molecules, half-old, and half-new strands
 b) two molecules, each with one old strand and one newly assembled strand of  nucleotides
 c) three double-stranded molecules, one with new strands and two that are discarded
 d) none of the above
A

b) two molecules, each with one old strand and one newly assembled strand of nucleotides

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50
Q

DNA binding proteins

A

stabilize the single-stranded DNA & keep the strands apart

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51
Q

DNA polymerase

A

adds DNA nucleotides to the primer to build the new strand

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52
Q

ligase

A

joins Okazaki fragments; seals small gaps

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53
Q

helicase

A

unwinds parental DNA double helix

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54
Q

Primase

A

produces & adds primers to template strand

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55
Q

Watson & Crick

A

discovered the double helix structure of DNA

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56
Q

What would be the mRNA transcribed from this DNA sequence?
DNA
3’T-A-C-A-T-A-A-G-G-A-A-T-T-C-T-A-C-T5’

For how many amino acids does this mRNA sequence code?

A

mRNA
5’A-U-G-U-A-U-U-C-C-U-U-A-A-G-A-U-G-A3’

5 amino acids

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57
Q

The RNA molecule is

 a) a double helix
 b) single-stranded
 c) double-stranded
 d) none of the above
A

b) single-stranded

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58
Q

mRNA is produced by

 a) replication
 b) transcription
 c) translation
A

b) transcription

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59
Q

The five-carbon sugar found in RNA is:

 a) galactose
 b) ribose
 c) deoxyribose
 d) glucose
A

b) ribose

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60
Q

The loading of mRNA onto an intact ribosome occurs during

 a) translation
 b) transcription
 c) transcript processing
 d) none of the above
A

a) translation

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61
Q

The enzyme used during transcription is DNA polymerase

A

false

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62
Q

A codon is a double nucleotide on mRNA

A

false

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63
Q

initiation

A

the first tRNA carrying methionine binds ribosome and mRNA

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64
Q

elongation

A

tRNA molecules carrying amino acids add to the growing polypeptide chain

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65
Q

termination

A

a stop codon is reached

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66
Q

In animals cells, cytoplasmic division is done by furrowing.

A

true

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67
Q

Nuclear membrane begins to break down in prophase.

A

true

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68
Q

Chromosomes are at their maximum condensation in telophase.

A

false

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69
Q

Random alignment of the homologous chromosomes happens at metaphase I.

A

true

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70
Q

There are two nuclear divisions in mitosis and one nuclear division in meiosis

A

false

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71
Q

Mitosis and cytokinesis give rise to two clones (genetically identical cells).

A

true

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72
Q

A human primary oocyte can give rise to only one viable egg.

A

true

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73
Q

Sister-chromatids are lined up at the equator of the spindle at:

a) metaphase stage of mitosis     
b) anaphase stage of mitosis 
c) telophase stage of mitosis
d) prophase stage of mitosis
A

a) metaphase stage of mitosis

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74
Q

Chromosomes are duplicated in:

a) prophase
b) the G1 stage of interphase 
c) the S stage of interphase
d) the G2 stage of interphase
A

c) the S stage of interphase

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75
Q

Crossing over

a) takes place during prophase I stage of meiosis 
b) happens between the nonsister chromatids
c) produces variety in the genetic make up of the gametes    d) all of the above
A

d) all of the above

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76
Q

A homozygote has a pair of identical alleles whereas a heterozygote has a pair of nonidentical alleles.

A

true

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77
Q

Pink color of flowers produced by snapdragon plants is an outcome of incomplete dominance.

A

true

78
Q

If a woman’s genotype at the ABO locus is IA i, her blood type is O.

A

false

79
Q

Pleiotropy refers to traits which are resulted from multiple genes.

A

false

80
Q

AB blood type is an outcome of co-dominance.

A

true

81
Q

Breast cancer is a sex-limited trait.

A

true

82
Q

Mendel performed dihybrid crosses to test his theory of independent assortment.

A

true

83
Q

Most of human traits are multifactorial traits.

A

true

84
Q

In a paternity suit, a woman with type AB blood accuses a man with type O blood of
fathering her child. The child has type AB blood. Could the man be the child’s father?
a) yes
b) no

A

b) no

85
Q

The F2 phenotypic ratio of Mendel’s monohybrid cross is

a) 1:1
b) 2:1  
c) 9:3:3:1
d) 1:2:1
e) 3:1
A

e) 3:1

86
Q

Gregor Mendel discovered:

a) chromosomes
b) tertiary structure of proteins
c) the theory of independent assortment
d) the theory of natural selection
A

c) the theory of independent assortment

87
Q

The phenotype of an organism:

  a) are the traits of that organism
  b) is affected by the environment
  c) is affected by its genotype
  d) all of the above
A

d) all of the above

88
Q

Offspring of the cross AA* aa are:

a) all AA
b) all aa
c) all Aa
d) 1/2 aa and 1/2 AA
A

c) all Aa

89
Q

The F2 phenotypic ratio of Mendel’s dihybrid cross is

a) 1:1
b) 2:1  
c) 9:3:3:1
d) 1:2:1
e) 3:1
A

c) 9:3:3:1

90
Q

15) The F2 genotype ratio of Mendel’s monohybrid cross is
a) 1:1
b) 2:1
c) 9:3:3:1
d) 1:2:1
e) 3:1

A

d) 1:2:1

91
Q

An XO woman is fertile.

A

false

92
Q

Human males determine the gender of the offspring.

A

true

93
Q

Charcot-Marie-Tooth disease is an X-linked dominant trait.

A

true

94
Q

XYY males are fertile.

A

true

95
Q

Nondisjunction at anaphase I or anaphase II frequently results in aneuploidy.

A

true

96
Q

A hemophiliac woman has offspring with a normal man. What are the chances of
hemophilia occurring in their children?
a) 75%
b) 50%
c) 25%
d) 0%

A

b) 50%

97
Q

hemophilia

A

X-linked recessive disorder

98
Q

Klinefelter syndrome

A

individual has XXY genotype

99
Q

cystic fibrosis

A

autosomal recessive disorder

100
Q

deletion

A

Cri-du-chat

101
Q

Turner Syndrome

A

individual has X0 genotype

102
Q

Down’s Syndrome

A

individual has three of number 21

103
Q

SRY gene is located on

A

the Y chromosome

104
Q

presence of three or more of each type of chromosome in gametes or somatic cells.

A

polyploidy

105
Q

In which replication pathway do bacteriophage infect and quickly lyse their host?

  a. lysogenic pathway
  b. lytic pathway
  c. a & b
  d. none of the above
A

b. lytic pathway

106
Q

Bacterial cell walls are mainly composed of:

 a. glycocalyx
 b. cellulose
 c. cellulose and plasma membrane
 d. peptidoglycan
A

d. peptidoglycan

107
Q

Bacteria reproduce by:

  a) mitosis
  b) conjugation
  c) binary fission
  d) meiosis
A

c) binary fission

108
Q

When conditions are unfavorable, some bacteria, such as the one that causes botulism, are able to assume a protected form, resistant to extreme environments. What are these resistant forms called?

  a) eubacteria
  b) archaea
  c) chemoautotrophs
  d) endospore
A

d) endospore

109
Q

Bacterium, which has spherical shape, is called bacillus.

A

false

110
Q

Prokaryotes’single chromosome is circular.

A

true

111
Q

Lateral roots are the product of the:

 a) apical meristem
 b) epidermis
 c) pericycle
 d) endodermis
 e) vascular cylinders
A

c) pericycle

112
Q

Stomata are responsible for:

 a) water escape from the leaves
 b) carbon dioxide entry
 c) mineral absorption
 d) a & b
A

d) a & b

113
Q

Mesophyll consists of______

a) waxes and cutin
b) cork 
c) thick cell wall
d) photosynthetic cells
A

d) photosynthetic cells

114
Q

apical meristem

A

source of primary growth (lengthwise)

115
Q

xylem

A

conducts water

116
Q

phloem

A

conducts sugars

117
Q

lateral meristem

A

source of secondary growth (girthwise)

118
Q

Procambium gives rise to vascular tissue.

A

true

119
Q

Monocots have netlike leaf veins.

A

false

120
Q

Parenchyma is dermal tissue.

A

false

121
Q

Dicots have tap root system.

A

true

122
Q

ethylene

A

promotes fruit ripening

123
Q

abscisic acid(ABA)

A

inhibits plant growth

124
Q

Auxin

A

promotes plant growth

125
Q

Adipose tissue cells are filled with lipids.

A

true

126
Q

Glial cells conduct nerve impulses while neurons support the glial cells.

A

false

127
Q

Endocrine glands produce and release hormones.

A

true

128
Q

In negative feedback, the stimuli are intensified several folds before homeostasis is resumed.

A

false

129
Q

The walls of the stomach are lined with skeletal muscle tissue

A

false

130
Q

Collagen and elastin are typically found in connective tissue

A

true

131
Q

The function of simple squamous is diffusion.

A

true

132
Q

Simple columnar epithelium is found in the lining of gut and respiratory tract.

A

true

133
Q

The outer layer of skin is consisted of simple epithelium.

A

false

134
Q

Striated and involuntary muscle

A

cardiac muscle

135
Q

Glands are derived from:

  a) muscle tissue
  b) connective tissue
  c) epithelial tissue
  d) cartilaginous tissue
A

c) epithelial tissue

136
Q

___ is a specialized connective tissue that contains chondrocytes.

 a) cartilage
 b) muscle
 c) bone
 d) blood
A

a) cartilage

137
Q

Tendons and ligaments consist of:

 a) loose connective tissue
 b) dense connective tissue
 c) cartilage
A

b) dense connective tissue

138
Q

A heat-sensitive neuron in your skin is an example of a:

   a) sensory receptor
   b) effector
   c) promotor
   d) integrator
A

a) sensory receptor

139
Q
Which of the blood components below contains the oxygen-transporting protein
      hemoglobin?
    a) platelets
    b) white blood cells
    c) red blood cells
    d) plasma
    e) all of the above
A

c) red blood cells

140
Q

Respiration is controlled by sensors and effectors in the brain and carotid arteries that
respond to a rise in _______ by _______ the rate of breathing.
a) O2; decreasing
b) O2; increasing
c) CO2; decreasing
d) CO2; increasing
e) NO; decreasing

A

d) CO2; increasing

141
Q

Which ABO blood type is known as the universal donor?

  a) A
  b) B
  c) AB
  d) O
A

d) O

142
Q

Which of the following is not a component of plasma

  a) albumin
  b) water
  c) dissolved ions, sugars, hormones
  d) red blood cells
A

d) red blood cells

143
Q

Which of the following is NOT involved in the formation of a blood clot?

 a) albumin
 b) fibrinogen
 c) thrombin
 d) fibrin
A

a) albumin

144
Q

Four of the five answers listed below are components of the human respiratory system. Select the exception.

  a) diaphragm
  b) alveoli
  c) bronchiole
  d) trachea
  e) esophagus
A

e) esophagus

145
Q

What is the hormone that stimulates the bone marrow to produce more red blood cells?

a) platelets
b) erythropoietin
c) insulin
d) TSH(Thyroid Stimulating Hormone)
A

b) erythropoietin

146
Q

Excitation for a heartbeat is initiated in the:

   a) sinoatrial (SA) node
   b) atrioventicular(AV) node
   c) atrioventicular(AV) valve
   d) semilunar valve
A

a) sinoatrial (SA) node

147
Q

Plasma is the cellular portion of blood

A

false

148
Q

Humans have open circulatory system

A

false

149
Q

Gas exchange takes place in alveoli.

A

true

150
Q

bradycardia

A

a slower than normal heart rate

151
Q

right atrium

A

receives blood from body

152
Q

left atrium

A

receives blood from lungs

153
Q

right ventricle

A

pumps blood to lungs

154
Q

left ventricle

A

pumps blood to body

155
Q

tachycardia

A

a faster than normal heart rate

156
Q

____Are barriers to pathogens at body surfaces.

 a) intact skin and mucous membranes
 b) tears and saliva
 c) resident bacteria
 d) all of the above
A

d) all of the above

157
Q
\_\_\_\_ are molecules that macrophages recognize as self and will not elicit an
immune response.
      a) antigens
      b) MHC
      c) interleukins
      d) antibodies
A

b) MHC

158
Q

Macrophages are derived from___

  a) basophils
  b) neutrophils
  c) monocytes
  d) eosinophils
A

c) monocytes

159
Q

Immunoglobulins designated_IgE__is involved in histamine release.

 a) IgA
 b) IgM
 c) IgE
 d) IgG
A

c) IgE

160
Q

Memory cells are__________ that function in___________.

 a) macrophages; removing the debris of an infection.
 b) T cells; determining which B cells will get activated
 c) T cells; remembering self-antigen, thus protecting the body’s cells
 d) B cells; retaining the ability to make an antibody used to fight a previous infection
A

d) B cells; retaining the ability to make an antibody used to fight a previous infection

161
Q

Eosinophils are the most abundant leukocytes(WBC ) in blood.

A

false

162
Q

Inflammation is a non-specific immune response.

A

true

163
Q

T-cell lymphocytes originate and mature in the bone marrow.

A

false

164
Q

Activated complement system is a part of the first line of defense.

A

false

165
Q

Effector helper T-cells are needed for antibody mediated immune response.

A

true

166
Q

Candida albican

A

thrush

167
Q

Reverse transcriptase inhibitors

A

inhibit transcription of HIV RNA into DNA

168
Q

Grave’s disease

A

hyperthyroidism

169
Q

allergy

A

pollen, bee venom provoke

170
Q

Hashimoto’s thyroiditis

A

hypothyroidism

171
Q

Integrase inhibitors

A

inhibit the incorporation of HIV DNA into

T-cell DNA

172
Q

cytomegalovirus

A

retinitis(blindness)

173
Q

T-20

A

inhibit binding of gp-120 to CD-4 receptors

174
Q

HIV

a) contains two strands of RNA
b) contains two strands of DNA
c) has reverse transcriptase
d) a & c
e) b & c
A

d) a & c (contains two strands of RNA & has reverse transcriptase)

175
Q

HIV is transmitted by:

a) exchange of  blood
b) exchange of vaginal secretions
c) hugging
d) all of the above
e) a& b
A

e) a & b (exchange of blood & vaginal secretions)

176
Q
Digestive organ that is responsible for re-absorption of water and the concentration of
food residues:
    a. liver
    b. pancreas
    c. small intestine
    d. large intestine 
    e. rectum
A

d. large intestine

177
Q

Which of the following molecules digests proteins?

a. pepsin
b. lipase
c. nuclease
d. none of the above
A

a. pepsin

178
Q

Four of the five answers listed below are functions of the digestive organs. Select the exception.

a. motility
b. absorption
c. digestion
d. elimination 
e. gas exchange
A

e. gas exchange

179
Q

Which of the following is involved in lipid digestion?

a. bile
b. HCL
c. insulin
d. glucose insulinotropic peptide 
e. gastrin
A

a. bile

180
Q

Flatworms have complete digestive systems.

A

false

181
Q

Salivary amylase is a protein digesting enzyme.

A

false

182
Q

Vitamin K is synthesized by resident bacteria in the human duodenum.

A

false

183
Q

Digestion of carbohydrates starts in the mouth.

A

true

184
Q

Two species in the same habitat can coexist when they:

a) differ in their use of resources
b) share the same resource in different ways
c) use the same resource at different times
d) all of the above

A

d) all of the above

185
Q

which of the following is not a type of symbiosis?

  a) predation
  b) parasitism
  c) commensalism 
  d) mutualism
A

a) predation

186
Q

The brown headed cowbird is an example of a:

  a) microparasite
  b) hemiparasite
  c) social parasite
  d) all of the above
A

c) social parasite

187
Q

The revegetation of the area that was burnt by the recent fires is an example of:

  a) primary succession
  b) secondary succession
  c) resource partitioning
  d) all of the above
A

b) secondary succession

188
Q

Lice are ectoparasites.

A

true

189
Q

Mistletoe is an example of a hemiparasite.

A

true

190
Q

In commensalism both species benefit.

A

false

191
Q

Biodiversity tends to be higher in the polar regions and lower in the tropics.

A

false