Final Flashcards

1
Q

what are the three types of assessment basics?

A
  1. Drug Related Need
  2. Drug Therapy problem
  3. Medication experience
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2
Q

what questions do you ask for drug related needs?

A
  1. Appropriate
  2. Effective
  3. Safe
  4. Able/willing to take as instructed
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3
Q

what questions do you ask for drug therapy problems?

A
  1. unnecessary drug therapy
  2. needs additional
  3. ineffective drug
  4. dose too low
  5. dose too high
  6. adverse drug
  7. non-adherence
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4
Q

what is a plan and how do you make it for a patient?

A

develop an individualized pt centered plan that should be evidenced based and cost effective

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5
Q

what are the three main types of communication?

A
  1. written documentation
  2. other written documentation
  3. verbal communication
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6
Q

what is a patient’s personalized care plan?

A

summary of drug/disease/PHI, place to record questions for next visit, given to patient and actively engages the patient in care

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7
Q

what is a SOAP note?

A

formal note seen in a medical record, documents a patient encounter or an interaction, sections formally labeled S/O and A/P

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8
Q

what is an SBAR note?

A

may include patient medical record or may be used for verbal communication, documents a clinical recommendation of brief patient interaction that requires action, shorter and less detailed than SOAP note

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9
Q

what is a progress note?

A

LEAST formal abbreviated documentation, may or may not have a structured format, documents a patient encounter or a decision, often used for short interactions or phone follow-up

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10
Q

is the care plan ever entered into the EMR?

A

NO

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11
Q

what is a chief complaint?

A

statement of why patient has presented (why they say they’re there)

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12
Q

what is past medical history?

A

past/active diagnoses, hospitalizations, surgeries, accidents or injuries

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13
Q

what is history of present illness ?

A
S - Symptoms
C - Characteristics
H - History
O - Onset
L - Location 
A - Aggravating factors
R - Remitting factors
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14
Q

What is medication experience?

A

patients general attitude towards taking medication, what patient wants/expects from drug therapy, understanding of medication etc

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15
Q

what is social and family history?

A

social - alcohol/caffeine/illicit drug use/tobacco use

family - conditions in 1st degree relatives (cause of death if applicable)

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16
Q

what objective info to collect?

A
  1. vitals
  2. labs/diagnostic tests
  3. physical exam findings
  4. current meds
  5. refill records
  6. immunization records
  7. history documented in med record
  8. drug info
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17
Q

what are the 4 key questions for analyzing medications?

A

Is the medication indicated?
Is the medication effective?
Is the medication safe?
Can the patient adhere?

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18
Q

How do you prioritize problems?

A

(1) most urgent - what’s gonna kill them first
(2) address immediately
(3) Address later

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19
Q

what are the dtps associated with indication?

A

unnecessary drug therapy and needs additional drug therapy

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20
Q

what the dtps associated with effectiveness?

A

ineffective drug and dose too low

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21
Q

what are the dtps associated with safety?

A

dose too high and adverse drug reactions

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22
Q

what is the dtp associated with adherence?

A

non-adherence

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23
Q

what are some common causes of unnecessary drug therapy?

A
  • duplicate therapy
  • no medical indication
  • non-drug therapy more appropriate
  • addiction/recreational drug use
  • treating avoidable adverse reactions
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24
Q

what are some common causes of needs additional drug therapy?

A
  • preventative therapy
  • untreated condition
  • synergistic therapy
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25
Q

what are some common causes of ineffective drug?

A
  • more effective drug available
  • condition refractory to drug
  • dosage form inappropriate
  • contraindication present
  • drug not indicated for condition
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26
Q

what are some common causes of dosage too low?

A
  • ineffective dose
  • needs additional monitoring
  • frequency inappropriate
  • incorrect administration
  • drug interaction
  • incorrect storage
  • duration inappropriate
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27
Q

what are some causes of adverse drug reaction?

A
  • undesirable effect
  • unsafe drug for patient
  • drug interaction
  • incorrect administration
  • allergic reaction
  • dose increase/decrease too fast
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28
Q

what are some common causes of adherence?

A
  • does not understand instructions
  • cannot afford drug product
  • patient prefers not to take
  • drug product not available
  • cannot swallow/administer drug
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29
Q

what is the difference between MTM and patient counseling?

A

mtm - requires documentation, compensation for mtm not related to drug product provision

counseling - patient-centered vs product centered

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30
Q

mtm eligibility for part D

A
  • drug spend in part d medis > $4,044
  • multiple part d meds greater than or equal to 2 to 8
  • targeted disease states or any chronic disease greater than or equal to 2 to 8
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31
Q

what are the part d mtm targeted disease states (must have at lease 5 to 9)

A
  • alzheimers
  • ESRD
  • HTN
  • CHF
  • DM
  • HLD
  • Respiratory disease
  • bone disease
  • mental health disorders
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32
Q

essential assessment skills

A
inquiry
listening 
observational skills
pharmacotherapy knowledge
organization
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33
Q

what are the 3 activities during assessment

A

meet the patient
get info from patient/records
make drug therapy decisions

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34
Q

what questions do you ask yourself for assessment of drug related needs?

A
  1. Are drug-related needs being met?
  2. Are all meds appropriately indicated?
  3. Are all meds most effective available?
  4. Are all meds the safest possible?
  5. Able and willing to take meds as intended?
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35
Q

what are the components for goals of therapy?

A
  1. goals for each indication
  2. described with clinical/lab parameters to evaluate efficacy and safety
  3. include the patient and other practitioners
  4. realistic to patients present and potential capabilities
  5. include time frame for achievement
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36
Q

what are the three categories of interventions?

A
  1. resolve drug therapy problems
  2. achieve goals of therapy
  3. prevent problems
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37
Q

what is a “good” intervention?

A
  • individualized based on conditions, drug-related needs, and drug therapy problems
  • all therapeutic alternatives to resolve DTPs are considered and the best selected
  • developed in collaboration with patient, family and/or caregivers, and practitioner
  • documented
  • provides for continuity of care
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38
Q

establishing a follow-up schedule

A
  1. determined by goals of therapy
  2. evaluate efficacy
  3. evaluate safety
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39
Q

what are the reasons for early follow-up

A
  • past treatment failures
  • past adverse effects
  • worsening clinical status
  • lack of full capability to engage in plan
  • high risk medications (and not at goal)
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40
Q

what are the “high risk” medications?

A
  1. digoxin
  2. warfarin/anticoagulants
  3. antiplatelets
  4. hypoglycemic
  5. insulin
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41
Q

what are key factors in determining implementation?

A
  1. practice site
  2. scope of privileges
  3. type of plan used
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42
Q

what are the only two outcomes in which a change to drug therapy is needed?

A

worsened or failure

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43
Q

the RESPECT model

A

R - respect: connect on social level
E - empathy: verbally acknowledge and legitimize patient’s feelings
S - support: ask about, try to understand, and help patient over barriers to care
P - partnership: be flexible
E - expectations: often check understanding
C - cultural competence: respect the patient and his/her beliefs
T - trust: work to establish trust

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44
Q

what are non-supportive responses

A

judging, advising, reassuring, generalizing, distracting

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45
Q

what are the signs of limited literacy?

A
  • excuses
  • length of time to complete forms
  • inappropriate answers or blanks on forms
  • does not turn paper “right-side” up
  • frequent errors
  • missed appointments
  • nonverbal behaviors
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46
Q

what is motivational interviewing?

A
  • person centered
  • guided
  • goal directed
  • seeks patient’s arguments to change
  • enhances intrinsic motivation to change by exploring and resolving ambivalence and resistance
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47
Q

READS model

A
R - rolling with resistance
E - expressing empathy
A - Avoiding argumentation
D - developing discrepancies
S - supporting self-efficacy
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48
Q

Change talk DARN model

A

D - Desire
A - Ability
R - Reason
N - Need

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49
Q

What are the MI tools?

A
  1. Ask permission
  2. The envelope
  3. The insurance card
  4. A look over the fence
  5. importance/confidence rulers
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50
Q

FIG and creating the conversation

A

F - Follow (reflect)
I - Inform (ask permission) and identify
G - Guide

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51
Q

Tertiary resources

A

information that has been summarized to provide an overview of a topic
ex) textbooks, internet webistes

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52
Q

Secondary resources

A

Pubmed

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53
Q

Primary literature

A

journals

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54
Q

P1 perceived orietation

A

Acceptance

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55
Q

P1 developmental orientation

A

minimization

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56
Q

BMI

A

body mass index

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57
Q

BP

A

blood pressure

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58
Q

BPM

A

beats per min

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59
Q

CV

A

cardiovascular

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60
Q

DBP

A

diastolic blood pressure

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61
Q

HTN

A

hypertension

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62
Q

mmHg

A

millimeters of mercury

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63
Q

RPM

A

respirations per minute

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64
Q

SBP

A

systolic blood pressure

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65
Q

Physical appearance (assessment)

A
age
skin color
facial features
level of consciousness
signs of distress
nutrition
body structure
dress/grooming
behavior
mobility
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66
Q

what meds can cause weigh gain?

A

steroids, antipsychotics, antidepressants, diabetes meds

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67
Q

what meds can cause weight loss?

A

ADHD meds, antidepressants, diabetes meds

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68
Q

what is edema?

A

fluid leaking into tissues or swelling

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69
Q

what are some causes of edema?

A

Chronic - heart function, kidney function, liver function, meds
Acute - inflammation, injury, diet, blood clot/obstruction, pregnancy, meds

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70
Q

for edema contact MD if

A
  • stretched and shiny skin
  • pitting edema(3+ and 4+)
  • edema that will not go away after prolonged sitting
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71
Q

when to refer a fever

A

adults and children: greater or equal too 104 degrees F(either symptomatic or nonresponsive and lasts longer than 3 days)

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72
Q

cluster headache

A
Cluster Headaches 
Characteristics: 
Male Female 
Onset around 30 years old 
Duration of 15 minutes up to 3 months 
Causes 
Hypoxia 
Sudden release of histamine or 
serotonin
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73
Q

cluster headache symptoms

A
Cluster Headaches 
Symptoms 
Constant and severe pain 
Usually unilateral; centered around the eye 
Episodic or chronic 
Tearing of affected eye 
Drooping eyelid 
Nasal stuffiness 
Nausea and vomiting 
Photophobia 
Phonophobia
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74
Q

migraine characteristics/causes

A
Migraine Headaches 
Characteristics: 
Female Male 
Causes 
Hormonal, vascular changes, or neuronal changes 
Change in sleeping patterns 
Missing meals 
Increased intake of fatty foods 
Weather changes 
Onset between 15 - 35 years old 
Duration per episode: 4 hours - 3 days
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75
Q

migraine symptoms

A
Migraine Headaches 
Symptoms 
Pulsating or throbbing pain 
Usually unilateral near the temples 
Nausea/Vomiting 
Sensitivity to light, sound, movement 
Warning signs may occur hours to days before episode 
Psychologic, neurologic, or autonomic 
Roughly 10% of patients experience an aura
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76
Q

tension headache

A
Tension Headaches 
Most common type of headache 
Causes 
Stress or anxiety 
Symptoms 
Often described as "band-like" pain 
Dull, non-pulsating tightness/pressure 
Usually bilateral 
Episodic or chronic 
Sensitivity to light and sound (photophobia and phonophobia)
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77
Q

when to refer a headache

A
Referral 
Refer if any factor is present 
• Patient has symptoms suggestive of migraine or 
cluster headache 
• Headache associated with significant 
hypertension 
• Headache lasting >10 days 
• >3 headaches per week 
• Last trimester of pregnancy (preeclampsia) 
• Stiff neck (possible infection) 
• Head trauma 
• Symptoms resistant to self-care
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78
Q

conjunctivitis

A
Conjunctivitis 
Conjunctiva 
Clear membrane lining the inner 
surface of the eye and eyelid 
Conjunctivitis (AKA pink eye) 
0 Inflammation of the conjunctiva 
Meds that cause conjunctivitis: 
Amiodarone 
Isotretinoin 
Bisphosphonates 
COX-2 inhibitors
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79
Q

viral conjunctivitis

A
Viral Conjunctivitis 
Cause 
Typically preceded by sore throat or cold (Adenovirus) 
c 
Contagious 
Symptoms 
Pink/red eye 
Watery discharge 
Blurred vision 
Low-grade fever 
Duration: 1-3 weeks 
Only symptomatic treatment 
Lubricants (e.g. artificial tears) 
Ocular decongestants (e.g. Naphazoline - 
Naphcon-A @ )
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80
Q

bacterial conjunctivitis

A
Bacterial Conjunctivitis 
Common bacterial causes: S. aureus, S. epidermidis, S. pneumoniae, H. influenzae 
Symptoms 
Pink/red eyes 
Purulent discharge (green(yellow) 
Eye discomfort/pressure 
Crusted eyelids 
Eyelid edema 
Blurred vision 
Duration: roughly 2 weeks 
Treatment: requires antibiotics 
Contagious
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81
Q

allergic conjunctivitis

A
Not Contagious 
Allergic Conjunctivitis 
Cause: exposure to allergens 
Signs/symptoms 
Pink/red eyes 
Clear watery discharge 
May be stringy and white 
Burning or itching 
Eye discomfort 
Eyelid edema 
Usually affects BOTH eyes 
Treatment 
0 Topical antihistamine 
Pheniramine eyedrops - Naphcon-A 
Mast cell stabilizers 
Cromolyn eyedrops 
Anti-inflammatory agents 
Naphazoline eyedrops - Naphcon-A
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82
Q

glaucoma

A
Glaucoma 
Group of eye disorders involving optic 
neuropathy 
Changes in optic disc 
o 
Loss of visual sensitivity & field 
Caused by: 
Reduced blood flow, retinal ischemia, 
increased intraocular pressure 
Primary (hereditary) vs. Secondary 
(disease, trauma, or drugs) 
Not Contagious 
Development of Glaucoma 
Healthy eye 
Vitreous body 
Flow Of 
aqueous 
humour 
Drainage canal 
Glaucoma 
1. Drainage 
canal blocked; 
build-up of fluid 
2. Increased pressure 
damages blood vessels 
and optic nerve 
Symptoms 
Occurs after significant damage
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83
Q

blepharitis

A
Blepharitis 
Infection of eyelid which may lead to sty formation 
Caused by bacteria 
Hands 
Cosmetics 
Contact Lenses 
Symptoms 
Lump on or near edge of eyelid 
Painful 
Swollen 
Pus-filled 
Treatment 
Warm compress 
Lubricants (e.g. artificial tears)
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84
Q

eye problems when to refer

A
Referral 
Refer if any factor is present 
• Symptoms of infection 
• Conditions resistant to self-care (72 hours) 
• Exposure to chemicals 
• Trauma to eye 
• Glaucoma 
• Signs/symptoms of vision loss
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85
Q

eye drop administration instructions

A

Eye Drop Administration
up PATIENT
CARE
IMPLEM
1.
2.
3.
4.
5.
6.
7.
Wash your hands with soap and water before using this medicine.
Remove cap without touching the dropper lid
Lie down or tilt head back. With your index finger, pull down the lower lid of
your eye to form a pocket and hold the dropper directly over eye with other
hand (without allowing dropper to touch eye or eyelid)
Look up (away from tip) and place drop into the pocket made between your
lower lid and eyeball
Hold eyelid for a moment allowing solution to spread
Gently close your eyes apply light pressure to nasolacrimal opening on side of
nose for 15-30 seconds to limit systemic absorption or loss of product
Wash hands thoroughly again

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86
Q

otitis media

A
Otitis Media 
Inflammation of middle ear 
Common in children <3 
o 
years of age 
Causes 
o 
o 
o 
o 
Bacterial 
Viral 
Allergies 
Irritants ( e.g. cigarette 
smoke)
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87
Q

types of otitis media

A

Types of Otitis Media

L......J AOM
Most common 
Rapid onset symptoms: pain, fever, 
discharge, redness, pulling at ears, 
irritable, crying 
Treatment: antibiotics, analgesics, 
antipyretics, local heat 
I.............J OM + E
Not associated with symptoms of infection 
Symptoms: rhinitis, cough, diarrhea 
Treatment of symptoms: analgesics, 
antipyretics, local heat
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88
Q

otitis externa

A
Not Contagious 
Otitis Externa (Swimmer's ear) 
Inflammation of skin lining the outer ear 
canal 
Causes 
0 Prolonged exposure to moisture or 
injury to ear 
Bacterial or fungal growth 
Risk factors: 
Disrupting the externa with cotton 
swabs or hairpins 
Symptoms 
Pain, ear discharge, hearing loss, 
itching, swelling or redness, 
burning, stinging, 
fever 
Treatment 
Antibiotics, glucocorticoids, 
acidifying solutions such as 
aluminum acetate 
Warm water or saline
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89
Q

cerumen impaction

A
Not Contagious 
Cerumen Impaction 
Buildup of cerumen (ear wax) leading to blockage of ear canal 
Ear wax protects the ear 
Traps dust and prevents bacteria and small objects from entering ear 
o 
Too much wax can block the ear canal 
o 
Symptoms 
Earache, fullness in ear, tinnitus, partial hearing loss, itching 
o 
Treatment 
0 
o 
0 
o 
Carbamide peroxide (Debrox@) 
Baby oil 
Glycerin (Neotic @) 
Ear candling (not recommended)
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90
Q

water clogged ears

A
Water Clogged Ears 
Causes 
Swimming 
Bathing 
Scuba diving 
Being in a humid climate 
Symptoms 
Ear fullness 
Gradual hearing loss 
Itching 
o 
Ear drying agent 
Isopropyl alcohol (Swim- 
Ear plugs (prevention) 
Low heat
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91
Q

ototoxicity

A
Ototoxicity 
Damage to the hearing or balance 
functions of the ear 
0 Reversible vs. Irreversible 
Causes 
0 Chemicals 
Infections 
Symptoms 
Tinnitus, hearing loss, dizziness, 
loss of balance 
Medications Causing Ototoxicity =
Quinine 
Salicylates (aspirin) 
Aminoglycosides 
Platinum antineoplastic agents 
Loop Diuretics
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92
Q

ear problems: when to refer

A
Referral 
Refer if any factors are present 
Hearing loss, ear pain, drainage, tinnitus 
• Symptoms of infection 
• Symptoms of otitis media and externa 
• Perforated eardrum 
Foreign objects in ear
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93
Q

ear drop administration

A

Ear Drop Administration
up PATIENT
CARE
IMPLEM
1.
2.
3.
4.
5.
6.
7.
8.
9.
Wash hands with soap and water, then dry
Clean outside of ear with a damp cloth, don’t let water into ear
Hold container in your hands for a few minutes to warm drops
If the contents are cloudy, shake the container
Tilt head to the side, open container, draw solution into dropper (don’t touch
the dropper to the ear)
Pull ear back/upwards (adult) or back/downwards (child)
Drop appropriate amount of drops into ear, keep head tilted several minutes or
insert piece of cotton to prevent drops from draining out
Apply light pressure to tragus to ensure appropriate administration
Wipe excess, close container, and wash hands

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94
Q

sinusitis

A

Sinusitis (head cold)
Inflammation and swelling of sinuses
Interferes with drainage & causes mucus buildup
Viral sinusitis
Symptoms last up to 10 days
0 Symptoms: HA, congestion, low fever, nasal discharge , and
halitosis
Bacterial sinusitis
Symptoms increase in severity after 7-10 days
Contagious
Symptoms: worsening congestion, facial pain, thick yellow-green
nasal discharge, toothache, fever, halitosis
Treat symptoms with oral or topical decongestants
(e.g. Pseudoephedrine - Sudafed @ or oxymetazoline - Afrin @ )
AVOID antihistamines
SINUSITIS

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95
Q

allergic rhinitis

A
Not Contagious 
Allergic Rhinitis 
Inflammation of nasal mucous membrane 
Cause 
0 Exposure to allergen 
Types: 
Seasonal 
Persistent (perennial) 
Treatment: 
Oral or topical antihistamines 
Symptoms 
0 
0 
0 
Clear rhinorrhea 
Sneezing 
Congestion 
Post-nasal drip 
Itching eyes, ears, nose, throat 
Watery eyes 
Periorbital swelling 
(Oral: Cetirizine - Zyrtec @; Topical: Azelastine -Astelin @) 
0 Oral or topical decongestants 
(Oral: Pseudoephedrine - Sudafed @; Topical: Oxymetazoline - Afrin @ ) 
Intranasal corticosteroids 
o 
(e.g. Fluticasone - Flonase @)
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96
Q

nasal self care

A
Self Care 
Non-pharmacologic options 
Allergan avoidance 
Nasal rinses (Neti Pot) 
Vaporizers 
Adequate hydration 
Saline nasal sprays
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97
Q

nasal refer if

A
Referral 
Refer if any factors are present 
Severe HA not relieved by OTC products 
Symptoms of systemic infection 
Symptoms lasting >10 days 
Cold that worsens after 7 days 
Changes in vision 
Symptoms resistant to self-care
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98
Q

nasal spray administration

A

Wash hands thoroughly with soap and water
Blow nose gently before using spray
Tilt head slightly forward
Breathe out slowly
Gently insert the bottle tip into one nostril, pointing the tip away from inside of
nose (septum)
Squeeze the pump while breathing in slowly
Repeat in other nostril
Wash hands thoroughly with soap and water

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99
Q

cold sores

A
Cold Sores 
Blisters located on lips, chin, cheeks, or in 
nostrils 
Common cause: Herpes simplex virus 1 (HSV-I) 
Recurrences likely due to stress or 
weakened immune system 
Symptoms 
Red, painful blisters, oozing/yellow 
crusting of blister, tingling &amp; itching 
Treatment (self limiting) 
Topical antivirals - docosanol (Abreva 
Contagious
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100
Q

canker sores

A
Not Contagious 
Canker Sores 
Small, round sores inside of mouth 
0 Cheek, under tongue, gums, or in back of throat 
Causes 
0 Stress 
o Food allergies 
Hormonal changes 
0 Malnutrition 
B-12, folate, zinc, iron 
Symptoms 
Sore usually has red edge with white center 
0 Painful 
Treatment (self-limiting) 
Local anesthetics (benzocaine)
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101
Q

gingivitis

A
Not Contagious 
Gingivitis 
Inflammation of the gums 
Causes 
Bacteria leading to accumulated plaque 
Poor hygiene 
Symptoms 
Red/tender gums 
Swollen gums 
Gums that bleed easily 
Receding gums 
Bad breath
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102
Q

thrush

A
Not Contagious 
Oral Candidiasis (Thrush) 
Fungal infection of the mouth 
Cause 
Candida albicans 
Risk Factors 
Symptoms 
Creamy white lesion 
Cottage cheese appearance 
Slight bleeding if lesions are scraped 
'Cotton mouth' sensation 
Weak immune system 
Dentures 
Infants 
Steroid medications 
Smoking 
Dry mouth 
Loss of taste
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103
Q

oral problems refer if

A
Referral 
Refer if any factors are present 
• Lesions associated with significant pain/large area 
• Gingivitis 
• Oral candidiasis 
• Symptoms lasting >14 days 
• Immunocompromised patients 
• Frequent recurrence of cold sores 
• Symptoms resistant to self-care
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104
Q

pharyngitis

A
Pharyngitis 
Inflammation of the throat 
Non-infectious 
Allergies 
Sinusitis 
Post-nasal drip 
Malignancies 
Viral 
Cough 
Scratchy throat 
Bacterial (strep throat) 
Contagious 
Pain (worse when swallowing or talking) 
Scratchy throat 
Dry throat 
Swollen or red glands/tonsils 
White patches on tonsils
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105
Q

oral problems refer if

A
Referral 
Refer if any factors are 
present 
Symptoms of infection (strep throat) 
Difficulty breathing 
Difficulty swallowing 
Symptoms >7 days
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106
Q

basic CV pathophys

A

Electrical impulse generated by the sinoatrial (SA)
node
Impulse travels to the AV node
1/10 second delay, passes through Bundle of His,
then right and left branches
Impulse spread throughout ventricular myocardium
through Purkinje fibers

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107
Q

ASCVD

A
10/24/19 
Atherosclerotic Cardiovascular Disease (ASCVD) 
• Acute coronary syndromes (ACS) 
• History of Ml 
• Stable or unstable angina 
Coronary ot other arterial revascularization 
• Stroke/TlA 
Peripheral artery disease (atherosclerotic origin) 
7 
Atherosclerotic 
Cardiovascular 
Disease (ASCVD) 
8 
Risk Factors for Coronary Heart Disease 
Causative 
• Cigarette smoking 
• Hypertension 
• Low high-density lipoprotein cholesterol (<40 mg/dL) 
• High total and low-density lipoprotein cholesterol 
• Type I and type 2 diabetes mellitus 
Predisposing 
• Obesity/overweight 
• Physical inactivity 
• Family history of premature coronary heart disease (in male, first-degree 
relative <55 years; in female, first-degree relative <65 years) 
• Age (men 245 years; women 255 years) 
• Insulin resistance 
4
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108
Q

angina

A

intermittent chest pain cause by temporary oxygen insufficiency and myocardial ischemia

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109
Q

HF - compensatory responses

A

Cardiac dilation - Residual blood accumulated in the ventricle - Causes stretching of myocardial fibers and dilation of ventricle Cardiac hypertrophy - An adaptation to the increase diastolic volume - Causes increased ventricular muscle mass and wall thickness Activation of sympathetic nervous system - Release of norepinephrine and other catecholamines in response to reduced CV output and tissue perfusion - Causes increased HR and contractility to maintain normal CV output Stimulation of reninangiotensin-aldosterone system (RAAS) - Due to reduced renal perfusion through sympathetic nervous system activation - Causes aldosterone release àsodium and water retention àincreased venous pooling of blood due to failing ventricle

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110
Q

HTN

A

Elevated SBP > 140 mmHg, DBP > 90 mmHg, or both ● 90% of patients have idiopathic HTN ○ Secondary causes (10%): renal disease, adrenal disorders (primary aldosteronism, Cushing’s Syndrome, or pheochromocytoma), or pregnancy

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111
Q

lipid disorders

A

Triglycerides (TG) - Consist of FFA and glycerol, used for stored energy - Levels above 500 can increase risk of pancreatitis - Dependent on dietary fat Lipoproteins - LDL is the “bad cholesterol” àlodges in arterial walls and stimulates atherosclerotic plaque development - HDL is the “good cholesterol” àremoves cholesterol from arterial wall, takes to liver for disposal - Lipoprotein (a) àsimilar to LDL, genetically determined, higher tendency to form clots Apolipoproteins - Play major role in binding, solubilizing, and transport of lipids - Include Apo B and A1 (as examples)

112
Q

FEV1

A

forced expiratory volume in 1 second

113
Q

FVC

A

forced vital capacity

114
Q

FEV1/FVC

A

fraction of air exhaled in the first second relative to the total volume exhaled

115
Q

COPD

A

chronic obstructive pulmonary disease

116
Q

CXR

A

chest xrap

117
Q

SOB

A

shortness of breath

118
Q

DOE

A

dyspnea on exertion

119
Q

CAP/HAP

A

community/hospital acquire pneumonia

120
Q

PNA

A

pneumonia

121
Q

COPD common signs and symptoms

A
COPD- Common Signs &amp; Symptoms 
Dyspnea 
Accessory 
Muscle Use 
Wheezing 
Chronic 
Cough 
Pursed Lip 
Breathing 
Inspiratory 
Crackles 
Chronic 
Sputum 
Production 
Chest Pain 
Decreased 
FEVI 
OLLEC 
SSES 
Barrel Chest 
Decreased 
Breath 
Sounds 
History of 
Smoking
122
Q

what happens to FEV1/FVC during COPD

A

decreased

123
Q

COPD goals of treatment

A
PLAN 
Goals of Treatment 
Acute Exacerbation 
• Minimize negative impact of current exacerbation 
• Prevent recurrence of events 
Chronic 
Reduce symptoms 
Reduce frequency and severity of exacerbations 
Improve exercise tolerance 
Improve health status
124
Q

asthma signs and symptoms

A
Asthma- Common Signs &amp; Symptoms 
Wheezing 
Chest Pain/ 
Tightness 
Coughing 
(particularly 
at night) 
Decreased 
FEVI 
Possible 
Activity 
Interference 
Dyspnea 
Change in 
Inhaler Use
125
Q

spirometry in asthma

A

Spirometry in Asthma
Decreased FEVI
Normal or increased FVC
Decreased FEVI/FVC

126
Q

lung infections signs and symptoms

A
cough 
fever
sputum 
chest tightness
aches and pains
sore throat
wheezing
chills
dyspnea
headache
127
Q

goals of infections management

A
Goals of Infection Management 
• Eradication of the infecting organism 
' Prevention of complications or worsening 
of infection 
Smoking Cessation 
' Vaccinations against infection
128
Q

endocrine system

A

complex regulatory system that releases hormones that act as chemical messengers into the bloodstream

129
Q

diabetes mellitus common signs and symptoms

A
polyuria
polydipsia
polyphagia
neuropathy
nephropathy
retinopathy
fatigue
130
Q

CVD

A

cardiovascular disease

131
Q

ADA

A

American Diabetes Association

132
Q

BG

A

Blood glucose

133
Q

CGM

A

continuous glucose monitoring

134
Q

CKD

A

Chronic kidney disease

135
Q

other sites to test blood than fingertip

A

palm or forearm

136
Q

purpose of diabetes foot exams

A
  • early identification of risk
  • early detection, diagnosis and referral for problems
  • early intervention and treatment to prevent from worsening
  • teach self-management and preventative strategies
137
Q

signs/symptoms of hypothyroidism

A
bradycardia
facial puffiness
decreased sweating
decreased systolic BP 
coarse, thinning hair
cold intolerance
increased diastolic BP
fatigue
depression
dry/coarse/cold skin
weight gain
constipation
brittle nails
hoarse voice
decreased libido
138
Q

signs/symptoms of hyperthyroidism

A
  • tachycardia
  • silky/fine textured hair
  • increase bowel habits
  • increased systolic BP
  • warm/moist skin
  • palpitations
  • decreased diastolic BP
  • fine tremor
  • irritability
  • proptosis/lid lag/exophthalmos
  • inappropriate weight loss
  • rapid speech
  • onycholysis
  • increased sweating/heat intolerance
  • amenorrhea
139
Q

why are thyroid hormones important for children

A

normal growth and development, abnormalities may result in neurological problems

140
Q

why are thyroid hormones important for elderly

A
  • thyroid hormone secretion decreases
  • TSH secretion increases
  • less likely to exhibit signs and symptoms of thyroid disorders
  • may present as myxedema coma
141
Q

thyroid hormones and pregnancy

A
  • increase in chorionic gonadotropin that stimulates thyroid gland
  • increase in urinary iodide excretion
  • increase in thyroxine-binding globulin
  • hypothyroidism rare
142
Q

acute somatic pain

A

superficial: throbbing, burning or prickling caused by pain stimulation in skin or subq tissue
deep: dull, aching pain which is usually localized due to injury to skeletal muscles/tendons/ligaments

143
Q

acute visceral pain

A

deep/dull/aching/squeezing or pressure like pain that is hard to localize due to injury to an organ

144
Q

malignant (cancer) pain

A

pain at primary cancer site and/or metastases

145
Q

non-malignant pain

A

neuropathic: burning, tingling, numbing pain which due to nerve injury or unknown reasons
musculoskeletal: aching pain due to injury, chronic diseases, meds/medical treatments, or unknown reasons

146
Q

what is the FLACC scale used for

A

patients unable to communicate pain

147
Q

osteoarthritis

A

localized, degenerative joint disease caused by deterioration of articular cartilage

148
Q

OA clinical presentation

A

asymmetrical joint involvement (pain/tenderness/short lived AM stiffness/bony spurs)

149
Q

OA treatment

A

first line-acetaminophen

second line- nsaids/opioids

150
Q

RA

A

autoimmune disorder marked by systemic and symmetrical inflammation of synovial joints

151
Q

RA clinical presentation

A

lab findings: rheumatoid factor

signs/symptoms: prolonged AM stiffness, swan necked hand deformities, systemic signs(fever, rash, fatigue)

152
Q

RA treatment

A

OTC (acetaminophen, NSAIDs)

Rx ( DMARDs, corticosteroids)

153
Q

gout

A

disorder of uric acid metabolism results in increased uric acid levels

154
Q

gout clinical presentation

A

rapid onset of pain/tenderness/and swelling

155
Q

gout treatment

A

colchincine/nsaids/corticosteroids

156
Q

gout prevention

A

allopurinol/colchicine/febuxostat/probenecid

157
Q

OA

A

decrease in bone mineral density resulting in bone fragility

158
Q

OA clinical presentation

A

hunching/back pain/increased risk of fractures

159
Q

OA prevention/treatment

A

OTC: calcium and vitamin D
Rx: bisphosphonates, calcitonin, raloxifene, teriparatide

160
Q

fibromyalgia

A

chronic disease characterized by generalized musculoskeletal pain and fatigued

161
Q

fibromyalgia clinical manifestations

A

aching/fatigue/insomnia due to pain

162
Q

fibromyalgia treatment options

A

amitriptyline
duloxetine
gabapentin
pregabalin

163
Q

the psych interview

A

medical history
social history
developmental history

164
Q

categories of metal disorders

A
  • anxiety
  • obsessive-compulsive and related disorders
  • trauma and stressor-related disorders
  • mood
  • psychotic
  • neurocognitive disorders
  • substance use disorders
  • personality disorders
  • neurodevelopmental disorders
165
Q

bipolar disorders

A

experience of both mania/hypomania and depression in distinct episodes, may have “mixed” features with symptoms of both mood poles

166
Q

depression therapy

A
novel antidepressants
SSRIs
SNRIs
MAOIs
Adjunctive therapy
167
Q

bipolar therapy

A
  • anticonvulsant mood stabilizers
  • antipsychotic mood stabilizers
  • lithium
168
Q

positive schizophrenia symptoms

A

hallucinations, delusions, disorganized thinking

169
Q

negative schizophrenia symptoms

A

anhedonia, social isolation, hygiene problems

170
Q

cognitive symptoms

A

concentration difficulties, changes in executive functioning

171
Q

mood symptoms

A

depression

172
Q

MMSE

A

mini-mental state exam - evaluates cognition

173
Q

PANSS

A

positive and negative syndrome scale - schizophrenia

174
Q

HAM-D

A

Hamilton depression scale - depression

175
Q

MADRS

A

Montgomery-asberg depression rating scale - depression

176
Q

HAM-A

A

Hamilton anxiety scale - anxiety

177
Q

YMRS

A

young mania rating scale

178
Q

GAF

A

global assessment of functioning - current functioning

179
Q

meds that cause anxiety

A

amphetamines, caffeine, beta-blockers, pseudoephedrine, estrogen, mefloquine, NSAIDs, theophylline, thyroid, varenicline

180
Q

meds that cause depression

A

efavirenz, clonidine, beta-blockers, phenytoin, topiramate, vigabatrin, triptans, corticosteroids, oral contraceptives, tamoxifen, varenicline, interferons

181
Q

meds that cause psychosis

A

albuterol, amphetamines, anabolic steroids, ACE inhibitors, corticosteroids, dextromethorphan, digoxin, efavirenz, ganiciclovir, H2-blockers, mefloquine, opiates, pseudoephedrine, quinidine, statins, SMX-TMP, zolpidem

182
Q

common signs and symptoms of BPH

A
  • lower urinary tract symptoms
  • obstructive symptoms
  • irritative symptoms
183
Q

BPH symptoms

A

lab values

  1. increased urea nitrogen BUN
  2. elevated serum creatinine
  3. elevated prostate specific antigen
184
Q

what can exacerbate BPH

A

testosterone replacement, decongestants, antihistamines, tricyclic antidepressants, caffeine

185
Q

pharmacologic treatment of BPH

A

rx: alpha adrenergic antagonists, 5-alpha reductase inhibitors
OTC: saw palmetto

186
Q

ED basic pathophysiology

A
  • result from single abnormality or combination
  • disease that compromise vascular flow or nerve conduction can contribute
  • sub physiologic levels of testosterone
187
Q

ED common signs and symptoms

A
  • failed to achieve penile erection
  • hypogonadism
  • decreased libido
188
Q

what can exacerbate ED

A

antihistamines, tricyclic antidepressants, dopamine antagonists, spironolactone, cimetidine, CNS depressants

189
Q

ED lab assessments

A

blood glucose, serum testosterone, lipid profile

190
Q

ED complications

A

poor intimate relationships, depression, performance anxiety

191
Q

ED treatment goals

A

improvement in quantity and quality of penile erections suitable for intercourse and considered satisfactory by patient and partner

192
Q

ED questions to ask

A
  1. onset
  2. frequency
  3. duration
  4. quality
  5. time
  6. satisfaction
193
Q

are herbal products effective for EF

A

NO

194
Q

menstrual conditions goals of treatment

A

symptom control, reduce disease burden, improve quality of life

195
Q

menstrual conditions questions to collect

A

symptoms, what makes is better/worse, previously tried

196
Q

menstrual conditions treatment for moderate to severe symptoms

A

SSRIs/SNRIs, hormonal contraceptives

197
Q

pregnancy/lactation assessment

A
  1. symptoms
  2. trimester
  3. disease state control
  4. med history
198
Q

pregnancy/lactation complications or considerations

A
  1. physiologic changes
  2. transplacental drug transfer
  3. drug use during lactation
199
Q

major pathogen for yeast infection

A

candida albicans

200
Q

yeast infection risk factors

A

oral/genital contact, antibiotic use

201
Q

common signs/symptoms for yeast infection

A
  1. itching or irritation
  2. burning on urination
  3. redness
  4. cottage cheese like and/or odorous discharge
202
Q

yeast infection assesment

A
vaginal pH(normal)
microscopy
203
Q

yeast infection goals of treatment

A

resolution of symptoms

204
Q

yeast infection treatment

A

OTC topical antifungals, Rx fluconazole (Diflucan), lifestyle modifications, others

205
Q

menopause assessment

A

risks/benefits of different therapies, symptoms, med history

206
Q

menopause treatment algorithm

A
  • non pharmacologic : Lifestyle modifications
  • hormone replacement therapy : moderate to severe vasomotor symptoms, vulvovaginal atrophy, prevention of postmenopausal osteoporosis
  • non hormonal : SSRIs, SNRIs, gabapentin, vaginal moisturizers/lubricants
207
Q

what is endoscopy used to diagnose

A

PUD, GERD, esophageal varices, carcinoma, H. Pylori, Barrett’s esophagus, pancreatitis

208
Q

what is colonoscopy used to diagnose

A

colon cancer, diverticulitis, Crohn’s disease, ulcerative colitis

209
Q

radiography with or without contrast used to diagnose

A

with contrast: tumors, polyps, ulcers, hiatal hernia

without contrast: abdominal pain work up, bowel obstruction, free air

210
Q

what can an ultrasound be used to diagnose

A

AAA, gallstones

211
Q

what can computed tomography (CT) be used to diagnose

A

with contrast: abscess, infection, inflammation

without contrast: AAA, bowel obstruction, free air

212
Q

what can MRI diagnose

A

neoplasm, stones, sclerosing, cholangitis

213
Q

what is gastroenteritis

A

inflammation of the stomach and intestines

214
Q

what causes gastroenteritis

A

infection(usually viral), contaminated food/water, reaction to a new food, meds

215
Q

Gastroenteritis symptoms

A

N/V, diarrhea, abdominal cramping, low grade fever

216
Q

when to refer gastroenteritis

A

immediately refer if: bloody diarrhea, high fever, dehydration, vomiting > 2 days, diarrhea > 1 week

217
Q

what is GERD

A

most common disorder of the esophagus in which there is decreased lower esophageal sphincter pressure, increased gastric volume, impaired esophageal motility

218
Q

what make GERD worse

A

dietary: large meals, eating before bedtime, dietary fat
miscellaneous: tight clothing, pregnancy
meds: lower LES tone (anticholinergics, barbiturates, benzos, beta blockers….)
direct irritants: aspirin, NSAIDs, Iron, alendronate

219
Q

GERD presentation (typical)

A

heartburn, water brash, belching, regurgitation

220
Q

GERD presentation (atypical)

A

non-allergic asthma, chronic cough, hoarseness, pharyngitis, chest pain, dental erosions

221
Q

when to refer GERD

A

constant pain, dysphagia, odynophagia, unexplained weight loss, choking

222
Q

GERD self care

A

non-pharmacologic: avoid aggravating foods, elevate head of bed, consume small frequent meals, avoid eating within 3 hrs of bedtime, avoid alcohol, weight loss, smoking cessation

pharmacologic: antacids and acid suppressant

223
Q

Peptic ulcer disease (PUD)

A

ulcerative disorders that occur in upper GI tract due to exposure to acid-pepsin secretions

224
Q

what are the most common types of PUD

A

gastric ulcer and duodenal ilcer

225
Q

what are the two top causes of PUD

A

H. pylori infection and NSAID use

226
Q

PUD risk factors

A
age >60yrs
corticosteroid therapy
anticoagulant therapy
high dose NSAID use
hx of PUD or GI bleed
chronic diseases
227
Q

PUD complications

A

GI bleed
perforation
gastric outlet obstructions

228
Q

PUD signs/symptoms

A
  • dark sticky stools, BRBPR, anemia, coffee ground like stool
  • epigastric pain, anorexia, weight loss, belching, bloating, abdominal distention
229
Q

when to refer for PUD

A

immediately refer if patient exhibits S/Sx - no OTC symptoms - Rx (antibiotics, acid suppressants, antacids, mucosal protectants)

230
Q

PUD self care

A

avoid aggravating factors: ASA and NSAIDs, cigarette smoking and alcohol

231
Q

what is inflammatory bowel disease (IBD)

A

crohn’s disease and ulcerative colitis

232
Q

what is the goal of IBD treatment

A

induce remission

233
Q

when to refer for IBD

A

patients with incapacitating symptoms

234
Q

IBD maintenance treatments

A

aminosalicylates, corticosteroids, biologics

235
Q

IBD acute treatments

A

anti-inflammatory meds, FEN therapy, supportive therapies

236
Q

what is hepatitis

A

inflammation of the liver usually from viral and chemical or drug related causes

237
Q

S/Sx hepatitis

A
  • jaundice
  • malaise, fatigue, anorexia, myalgias, elevated ALT, AST bili, GGTP, LDH
  • positive antibody studies
  • decreased total protein
238
Q

what is cirrhosis

A

wide spread hepatic cell destruction

239
Q

S/Sx cirrhosis

A
  • jaundice
  • anorexia, NVD, fatigue, pruritus
  • prolonged PT
  • hypoalbuminemia
  • increased/decreased total AST, ALT, GGTP, bili
240
Q

what is cholecystitis

A

inflammation of the gall bladder

241
Q

causes of cholecystitis

A

gall stones, tumor, bile duct blockage

242
Q

S/Sx cholecystitis

A

N/V, fever, severe pain in upper right abdomen, occur after large or fatty meal, tenderness upon palpitation

243
Q

cholecystitis treatment options

A

pain control, antibiotics, limiting oral intake, surgery

244
Q

what is celiac disease

A

immune reaction to gluten

245
Q

causes of celiac disease

A

exact cause unknown, possible genetic component, may be triggered by stressful event

246
Q

S/Sx celiac disease adults

A

weight loss, diarrhea, bloating, fatigue, headache, osteoporosis, itching, dental erosion, nerve damage, joint pain

247
Q

S/Sx celiac disease children

A

diarrhea, constipation, short stature, delayed puberty, ADHD

248
Q

celiac disease self care options

A

gluten free diet

249
Q

lactose intolerance

A

lactase deficiency

250
Q

causes of lactose intolerance

A

increase in age, result of injury or illness, congenital

251
Q

S/Sx of lactose intolerance

A

diarrhea, N/V, abd cramping, bloating, flatus

252
Q

lactose intolerance self care options

A

lactase enzyme tablets or drops, reduced lactase dairy products, consuming dairy with meals, consuming lower lactose dairy products

253
Q

what is the #1 cause of medication induced constipation

A

opioid analgesics

254
Q

what is diarrhea

A

increase in the number of fluid content of bowel movement

255
Q

when to refer diarrhea

A

blood in stool

signs of dehydration

256
Q

when to refer for N/V

A
weight loss
intractable vomiting
blood in vomit
constant pain
odynophagia
257
Q

what is jaundice

A

icterus or yellowish discoloration of skin and sclerae

258
Q

potential causes of jaundice

A

cirrhosis
hepatitis
bile duct blockage
liver cancer

259
Q

define pediatric

A

birth to 18 yrs

260
Q

define neonate

A

0-28 days

261
Q

define infant

A

28 days/1month up to 12 months

262
Q

define child

A

1-11yrs

263
Q

define adolescent

A

12-18 yrs

264
Q

what is a corrected age?

A

postnatal - weeks born early

265
Q

what is failure to thrive

A

weight or rate of weight gain is below children of similar age/sex

266
Q

as child ages, does BP go up or down

A

up

267
Q

as child ages, does HR go up or down

A

down

268
Q

as child ages, does RR go up or down

A

down

269
Q

when should children start having their BP checked regularly

A

at 3 yrs of age

270
Q

what is generally considered a fever

A

> 100.4 deg F

271
Q

when to refer a fever

A
  • < 3 months of age
  • fever > 24 hrs if less than 2 yrs of age
  • fever > 72 hrs if > or equal to 2 yrs of age
  • fever > 104
  • no improvement w/ treatment
272
Q

what is the CrCl for children

A

0.413 * (height in cm/SCr)

273
Q

what is considered “sensory motor”

A

age - 0 to 2 yrs with no understanding of self

274
Q

what is considered “preoperational”

A

age 2 to 7 yrs consider only part of the situation, only here and now

275
Q

what is considered “concrete operations”

A

ages 7 - 11 yrs, consider multiple parts of a situation, difficulty with hypothetical situations

276
Q

what is considered “formal operations”

A

ages > or equal to 12 - can understand hypothetical situations