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Bio 360 CSUN Genetics > final > Flashcards

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1
Q

Unlike prokaryotic chromosomes, eukaryotic chromosomes in a diploid cell…

  • associate with nonhistone proteins.
  • none of the other answers is correct.
  • lack telomeres. are generally circular.
  • can be grouped into homologous pairs.
A

can be grouped into homologous pairs.

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2
Q

Which of the following statements about eukaryotic chromosomes is INCORRECT?

  • The centromere of a chromosome does not have to be in the physical midpoint of a chromosome; it can be located much closer to one of its ends
  • Eukaryotic chromosomes usually contain areas of euchromatin and heterochromatin
  • In a eukaryotic chromosome DNA is bound to proteins
  • Each eukaryotic chromosome contains a single DNA molecule
  • Chromatin is composed of only DNA wrapping around histone octamers
A

Chromatin is composed of only DNA wrapping around histone octamers

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3
Q

Which of the following statements about eukaryotic DNA replication is INCORRECT?

  • DNA replication starts at several origins of replication
  • Topoisomerases relieve the supercoiling caused by the separation of DNA strands during DNA synthesis
  • DNA replication in eukaryotes is essentially the same as in prokaryotes
  • There is no supercoiling of DNA during DNA replication in eukaryotes
  • DNA synthesis proceeds always in the 5’ to 3’ direction
A

There is no supercoiling of DNA during DNA replication in eukaryotes

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4
Q

The __________ theory states that the ancestors of mitochondria and chloroplasts were free-living bacteria.

A

Endosymbiotic

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5
Q

What is the role of histone H1 in chromatin ?

A

to link nucleosomes into a more compact 30nm string

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6
Q

Transcription termination occurs when

A

specific sequences and secondary structure in the RNA molecule causes a complex to cut the RNA molecule free from the DNA-RNA hybrid causing polymerase to fall off the DNA template strand

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7
Q

Which one would you say is the aspect of transcription that is MOST different between eukaryotes and prokaryotes?

A

termination

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8
Q

Which of the following is required for initiation of transcription in eukaryotes, but not in prokaryotes?

  • the recognition of a core promoter sequence upstream of the transcription start site
  • the binding of the sigma factor to the -10 and -35 sequences the binding of an RNA polymerase to single stranded DNA
  • the removal of nucleosomes from chromatin

the removal of nucleosomes from chromatin

  • polyadenilation and cleavage of the transcrip
A

the removal of nucleosomes from chromatin

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9
Q

Which of the following genetic features has been observed to best correlate with the complexity of organisms?

  • number of amino acids
  • AT/GC relative ratios in DNA sequence
  • size of the genome
  • length of the protein-coding sequences
  • number and size of introns
A

number and size of introns

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10
Q

In transcription, to which end of the elongating strand are nucleotides always added?

A

3’

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11
Q

Why is ubiquitin nicknamed the “doom tag”?

A

When ubiquitin binds to a target protein, the complex is sent to the proteasome and destroyed.

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12
Q

Which of the following is NOT a usual molecular mechanism used by a transcriptional repressor?

A

binding to the active site of RNApol II and inhibiting its activity

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13
Q

What is the function of allolactose in regulation of the lac operon?

A

Inducer

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14
Q

Which of the following facts about eukaryotic gene regulation is TRUE?

A

Mediators are protein complexes involved in regulating transcription rates.

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15
Q

At which level(s) can the function of a eukaryotic protein-coding gene be regulated?

  • all of these
  • posttranslation
  • posttranscription
  • translation
  • transcription
A

ALL

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16
Q

In poodles, black fur is dominant to white fur. A black poodle is crossed with a white poodle. In a litter of four, all of the puppies are black. Which of the following is the best conclusion?

A

The black poodle is probably homozygous

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17
Q

In a cross between AaBbCc and AaBbcc, what proportion of the offspring would be expected to be A_bbcc? (A_ means AA or Aa.)

A

3/32

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18
Q

In dogs, black coat color (B) is dominant over brown (b), and solid coat color (S) is dominant over white spotted coat (s). A cross between a black, solid female and a black, solid male produces only puppies with black, solid coats. This same female was then mated with a brown, spotted male. Have of the offspring from this cross were black and solid, and half of the offspring were black and spotted. What is the genotype of the female?

A

BBSs

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19
Q

A reciprocal cross is defined as__________

A

a cross where the genotypes of the parents have been swapped

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20
Q

Mendel’s Second Principle of Heredity states that______

A

loci for different characteristics assort independently from each other during gamete formation

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21
Q

Which of the following descriptions of a Y-linked trait in humans is correct?

A

All the sons of an affected father will be affected with the trait

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22
Q

Which of the following is FALSE of X-linked dominant conditions?

A

sons of affected fathers and a heterozygous mother cannot inherit the condition

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23
Q

Which of the following could NOT happen when a parent is heterozygous for an autosomal dominant condition and has 3 children (two girls and a boy)____

A

a grandchild inherits the condition even though none of their children inherited it

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24
Q

Mr. and Mrs. Dover have type AB blood and type O blood, respectively. They have two biological children and one adopted child. Eileen has type A blood, Ben has type B blood, and Hurry has type O blood. Which Children/Child is adopted?

A

Hurry

25
Q

In a particular population carrying a dominant mutant allele, only 70% of the people carrying the allele show the phenotype, and only a small percentage of those showing the phenotype display the most severe symptoms. The gene responsible for this disorder exhibits ____________________.

A

variable expressivity and incomplete penetrance.

26
Q

Recessive embryonic lethality will lead to which of the following?

A

absence of homozygous recessives among progeny that complete development

27
Q

You are studying a gene that controls ossicone (horn) length in giraffes. The wild-type long-ossicone allele (L) is dominant to the mutant short-ossicone (l) allele. However the L allele is only 60% penetrant. You cross two heterozygous giraffes. What proportion of offspring would you expect to exhibit the long ossicone phenotype? Assume the penetrance of L applies equally to both homozygotes and heterozygotes.

A

0.45

28
Q

You are studying body color in an African spider and have found that it is controlled by a single gene with four alleles: B (brown), br (red), bg (green), and by (yellow). B is dominant to all the other alleles, and by is recessive to all the other alleles. The bg allele is dominant to by but recessive to br. You cross a pure-breeding brown spider with a pure-breeding green spider. Predict the genotype of the progeny.

A

B/bg

29
Q

All of the progeny from a testcross were observed, and it was noted that out of a total of 500 progeny, 100 showed a particular recombinant phenotype. This indicates that the recombination frequency between the two genes involved is ____________________.

A

20%

Recombination frequency between two genes is equal to the number of recombinants/total number of progeny x 100

30
Q

IF The recombination frequency between genes (A) and (B) is 5.3%, what is the distance between the genes in map units on the linkage map?

A

5.3 cM

31
Q

In Drosophila, singed bristles (sn) and cut wings (ct) are both caused by recessive, X-linked alleles. The wild type alleles (sn+ and ct+) are responsible for straight bristles and intact wings, respectively. A female homozygous for sn and ct+ is crossed to a sn+ct male. The F1 flies are interbred. The F2 males are distributed as follows: genotype number sn ct 15 sn ct+ 34 sn+ ct 33 sn+ct+ 18 What is the map distance between sn and ct?

A

33

32
Q

Linked genes

A

co-segregate.

33
Q

During embryo development, a cascade of gene regulatory interactions (genes progressively turning each other ON or OFF) controls ___________

A

cell fate determination

34
Q

The first step in allopatric speciation is_

A

splitting of a population into two or more groups by a geographic barrier

35
Q

Suppose that you see four dogs that are within the same breed, same size, anatomical features, coat color, etc. What level of variability would you expect among them?

A

genetic

36
Q

Epigenetics is a field of science that studies_____

A

changes to gene expression that are not due to changes in DNA sequence.

37
Q

Which of the following is FALSE about DNA methylation?

It is associated with repression of transcription

Cytosines on both strands of a CpG island are methylated

Refers to the subtraction of methyl groups from the nucleotide bases

DNA C-methylation is carried out by an enzyme called DNA methyltransferase

Occurs on cytosine bases that are adjacent to guanine nucleotides

A

Refers to the subtraction of methyl groups from the nucleotide bases

38
Q

When you consider that cancer results from a progressive and cumulative series of genetic defects, mutations in which of the following is most likely to accelerate (speed up) the appearance of cancer____?

A

cell cycle check-point proteins

39
Q

Among the crosses below, which will give a 1:1 phenotypic ratio?

A

AaBB x aaBB

40
Q

You have discovered a new species of mammal while studying for your Genetics final in the basement of Eucalyptus Hall. The species diploid number is 8. Assuming this species follows the same rules as all other known mammals, mitotically produced cells will be __________ and meiotically produced cells will be __________

A

2n = 8,

n = 4

41
Q

Which of the following processes can generate recombinant gametes? (choose all that apply)

A

Independent assortment of two unlinked heterozygous loci

A crossing over event between two incompletely linked heterozygous loci

42
Q

Suppose a three-point testcross was conducted involving the genes A, B, and C. If the most abundant classes are CaB and cAb and the rarest classes are cab and CAB, which gene is in the middle?

A

A

43
Q

Which of the following processes is more likely to involve a mechanism known as “strand invasion and heteroduplex formation”, whereby DNA strands from homologous chromosomes base pair with one another?

A

Recombination

44
Q

In the modification of eukaryotic mRNA, a “cap” consisting of __________ and a tail consisting of __________ are usually added to the transcript

A

A methylated guanine; multiple adenines

45
Q

Which of the following events occurs during meiosis but not mitosis?

A

Crossing-over between homologous chromosomes

46
Q

A eukaryotic gene typically has all of the following features except

A 5’ UTR

Introns

An operator

Transcription factor binding sites

A promoter

A

operator

47
Q

What is the relationship between DNA, a gene and a chromosome?

A

A chromosome contains hundreds of genes, which are composed of DNA

48
Q

In edible pea, tall (T) is dominant to short (t), and green pods (G) are dominant to yellow pods (g). The phenotype of a TtGg plant is:

A

Tall and green

49
Q

Phenylketonuria is an inherited disease caused by a recessive allele. If a woman and her husband are both carriers, what is the probability that their first child will have the disease?

A

25%

50
Q

The D gene controls pea plant height. The DD and dd genotypes confer tall and dwarf phenotypes, respectively. What is the relationship between D and d?

A

They are alleles of the same gene

51
Q

The direction of transfer of genetic information in living things is

A

DNA – mRNA – protein

52
Q

If the parents of a family already have two boys, what is the probability that the next two offspring will be girls?

A

1/4

53
Q

In a Monohybrid cross AA x aa, how many homozygotes are found amoung the F2 offspring?

A

1/2

54
Q

Could the characteristic followed in the pedigree be caused by an autosomal dominant disease? Why or why not?

A
55
Q

No, the offspring of I-1 and I-2 contradict an autosomal dominant inheritance

A
56
Q

Sometimes a piece of one chromosome attaches to a non-homologous chromosome. This is known as a(n):

A

Translocation

57
Q

The R/r and S/s genes are linked and 10 map units apart. In the F1 testcross Rs/rS x rs/rs what percentage of the progeny will be of the parental types?

A

90%

58
Q

Replication, Transcription, and Translation are alike in that all:

A

Are guided by complementary base paring

59
Q

The pairwise map distances for four linked genes are as follows: A-B = 22 m.u., B-C = 7 m.u., C-D = 9 m.u., B-D = 2 m.u., A-D = 20 m.u., A-C = 29 m.u. What is the order of these four genes?

A

ADBC

Bio 360 CSUN Genetics (1 decks)

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