Final Flashcards

You may prefer our related Brainscape-certified flashcards:
1
Q

The process of photosynthesis results in the formation of two substances essential to our existence:

A

sugar and oxygen.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Life existed on Earth as early as ______ years ago.

A

3 to 4 billion

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

Which of the following statements about stromatolites is FALSE?

A

They are fossil structures, with none alive today.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

On Mars, there is evidence for the presence of water in the form of______.

A

ice, liquid water and snow

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Which of the following statements about proteinoid microspheres is FALSE?

A

They are thought to be the first forms of life.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

Which of the following statements concerning primitive cells is FALSE?

A

They constructed new cells from organic molecules made via photosynthesis.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

A heterotroph:

A

is exemplified by a fungus.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

Which of the following statements about photosynthetic autotrophs is FALSE?

A

They obtain their required organic compounds from external sources.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Which of the following statements concerning the earliest photosynthetic organisms is FALSE?

A

They have been found in rocks 4 billion years old.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

The oxygen gas released in photosynthesis originates from:

A

water.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

Atmospheric levels of oxygen gas approached modern levels approximately ______ years ago.

A

500 million

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

Ozone in the outer layer of the atmosphere has important consequences for living things in that it:

A

absorbs ultraviolet rays from sunlight.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

Respiration refers to the process by which organisms:

A

break down molecules under aerobic conditions.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Prokaryotic cells differ from eukaryotic cells in that prokaryotic cells:

A

lack a nuclear envelope.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

Which are prokaryotic organisms?

A

cyanobacteria and archaea

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

The first cells on Earth were most likely:

A

archaeans.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

Which of the following is NOT an adaptation of photosynthetic organisms to rocky coasts?

A

pigment systems

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

The function of the cuticle is:

A

retarding water loss.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

The function of stomata is:

A

regulating the exchange of gases.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

Which of the following statements concerning stomata is FALSE?.

A

They form a waxy covering on all aboveground portions of the plant.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

In perennials, the ______ is most similar in function to the cuticle-covered epidermis of annuals.

A

cork

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

Water is transported upward through the plant body in the:

A

xylem.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

The food manufactured by photosynthesis is transported throughout the plant body in the:

A

phloem.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

The function of phloem is to ______.

A

transport food

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

If a plant is a vascular plant, then by definition that plant must contain ______.

A

phloem

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

Secondary growth refers to growth:

A

originating from lateral meristems.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

The activity of the ______ results in a thickening of stems, branches, and roots.

A

lateral meristems

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

A seed is composed of three parts:

A

seed coat, embryo, and food supply.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

Natural communities of organisms of wide extent, characterized by distinctive, climatically controlled groups of plants and animals, are called:

A

biomes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

What organisms are found at the base of productivity in almost all ecosystems?

A

photosynthetic bacteria, algae, and plants only

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

In all ecosystems, heterotrophs are completely dependent on the productivity of all the following groups of organisms EXCEPT:

A

animals.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

Humans first appeared about ______ years ago.

A

2 million

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

The development of agriculture started at least ______ years ago.

A

10,000

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

Cytology is the study of:

A

cell structure, function, and life histories.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

The projected human population of the Earth by 2050 is _____ billion.

A

9

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

The greenhouse effect refers to the:

A

trapping of heat radiated from Earth.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

Phytoremediation refers to the process by which plants:

A

clean up polluted environments.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

Which substance makes up more than half of all living matter and more than 90 percent of the weight of most plant tissues?

A

Water

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

The most abundant organic molecules in nature are:

A

carbohydrates.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

_________ is a monosaccharide, and ______________ is a disaccharide.

A

Fructose; lactose

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

________ is composed of two sugar subunits linked covalently.

A

Sucrose

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

The common transport form of sugar in plants is ______ and in animals is ______.

A

sucrose; glucose

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

The formation of ______ from ______ occurs by dehydration synthesis.

A

sucrose; glucose and fructose

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

Which of the following statements about hydrolysis reactions is FALSE?

A

They are a type of condensation reaction.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

The principal polysaccharide in the plant cell wall is:

A

cellulose.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
46
Q

What is the most abundant organic compound known?

A

cellulose

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
47
Q

Which of the following consists of beta-glucose subunits?

A

cellulose

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
48
Q

The matrix of the plant cell wall contains:

A

pectins and hemicelluloses.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
49
Q

Which stabilize the cell wall by forming hydrogen bonds with it?

A

hemicelluloses

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
50
Q

Which comprise most of the middle lamella?

A

pectins

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
51
Q

The principal component of the cell walls of fungi is:

A

chitin.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
52
Q

The monomer of ___________ is N-acetylglucoseamine.

A

chitin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
53
Q

When an oil undergoes hydrolysis, the products are:

A

1 glycerol and 3 fatty acids

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
54
Q

Which are examples of triglycerides?

A

oils and fats

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
55
Q

A fat differs from a phospholipid in that a fat contains:

A

3 fatty acids

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
56
Q

The main function of cutin and suberin is to:

A

prevent water loss.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
57
Q

Which lipid is a major component of cork cell walls?

A

suberin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
58
Q

Who am I? I give cell walls a lamellar appearance?

A

suberin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
59
Q

The most water-repellant of the lipids are:

A

waxes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
60
Q

Which of the following is characterized by the presence of four interconnected hydrocarbon rings?

A

steroids

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
61
Q

In all organisms except prokaryotes, an important role of sterols is to:

A

stabilize the phospholipid tails in cell membranes.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
62
Q

The monomers of proteins are:

A

amino acids.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
63
Q

How many different kinds of amino acids are used to build proteins?

A

20

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
64
Q

A peptide bond occurs between the ______ groups of adjacent amino acids in polypeptides.

A

amino and carboxyl

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
65
Q

When a polypeptide undergoes hydrolysis, the products are:

A

amino acids

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
66
Q

The linear sequence of amino acids is called the ______ structure of a protein.

A

primary

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
67
Q

A common ______ structure of proteins involves a hydrogen bond between the amino group of one amino acid and the carboxyl group of an amino acid farther along the peptide chain.

A

secondary

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
68
Q

The tertiary structure of a protein is a result of all of the following EXCEPT:

A

interactions between two or more polypeptide chains.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
69
Q

The ______ structure of a protein involves interactions between two or more polypeptide chains

A

quaternary

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
70
Q

Which of the following statements about enzymes is FALSE?

A

They are typically effective only at high concentrations.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
71
Q

Nucleic acids are different from proteins in that nucleic acids contain:

A

phosphorus.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
72
Q

The monomers of nucleic acids are:

A

nucleotides.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
73
Q

The subunits of a nucleotide are a(n):

A

five-carbon sugar, a nitrogenous base, and a phosphate group.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
74
Q

When many nucleotides undergo dehydration synthesis, the product(s) is(are):

A

a nucleic acid

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
75
Q

Adenosine triphosphate is a type of:

A

nucleotide.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
76
Q

The principal role of ATP in the cell is:

A

providing energy.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
77
Q

Which of the following statements about secondary metabolites is FALSE?

A

They are found in all cells of a plant.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
78
Q

Which of the following is a primary metabolite?

A

glucose

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
79
Q

The major classes of secondary plant metabolites are:

A

alkaloids, phenolics, and terpenoids.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
80
Q

______ is an alkaloid used to dilate pupils in eye examinations.

A

Atropine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
81
Q

Who am I? I form a “blanket” that stabilizes photosynthetic membranes and thus helps the plant cope with heat.

A

isoprene.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
82
Q

Essential oils are types of:

A

terpenoids.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
83
Q

Which of the following secondary metabolites consists of isoprene units?

A

taxol

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
84
Q

The largest group of plant phenolics are the:

A

flavonoids.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
85
Q

______ is a secondary metabolite responsible for adding compressive strength, stiffness, and waterproofing to the plant cell wall.

A

Lignin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
86
Q

_______first concluded that all cells arise from preexisting cells.

A

Rudolf Virchow

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
87
Q

Eukaryotic cells differ from prokaryotic cells in that eukaryotic cells have:

A

a nucleus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
88
Q

Cyclosis refers to:

A

the constant streaming of the cytoplasm.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
89
Q

Which of the following best designates a somatic cell containing 6 chromosomes?

A

2n = 6

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
90
Q

If a plant has a diploid chromosome number of 60, how many chromosomes are present in its gametes?

A

30

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
91
Q

The nucleolus is the structure in which ______ are formed.

A

ribosomes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
92
Q

Grana are stacks of ______ within chloroplasts.

A

thylakoids

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
93
Q

Chlorophylls and carotenoid pigments are embedded in the:

A

thylakoid membranes.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
94
Q

Plastids that contain carotenoids but lack chlorophyll are known as:

A

chromoplasts.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
95
Q

______ are colorless plastids that are the precursors of other, more highly differentiated plastids.

A

Proplastids

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
96
Q

Which of the following statements about mitochondria is FALSE?

A

They are generally larger than plastids.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
97
Q

A pivotal step in programmed cell death is the release of ______ from ______.

A

cytochrome c; mitochondria

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
98
Q

Peroxisomes are organelles that:

A

self-replicate.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
99
Q

The ______ in the cell sap are responsible for the red and blue colors of many fruits and vegetables.

A

anthocyanins

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
100
Q

Smooth endoplasmic reticulum is involved in ______ synthesis.

A

lipid

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
101
Q

Which of the following lists the correct sequence in which glycoproteins travel through the Golgi complex?

A

Forming face, shuttle vesicles, maturing face, trans-Golgi network

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
102
Q

Which of the following is NOT part of the endomembrane system?

A

mitochondrial membrane

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
103
Q

Which of the following statements about microtubules is FALSE?

A

Their subunits are arranged in a solid cylinder.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
104
Q

The alignment of cellulose microfibrils in the cell wall is controlled by:

A

cortical microtubules.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
105
Q

Which of the following statements concerning actin filaments is FALSE?

A

They lack distinct plus and minus ends.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
106
Q

In plants, flagella are found only in:

A

motile sperm.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
107
Q

A ______ has an internal arrangement of nine triplets of microtubules.

A

basal body

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
108
Q

Stretching of the cell wall can be prevented by the cross-linking of _____ with _____.

A

pectins; calcium

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
109
Q

Which of the following statements concerning callose is FALSE?

A

It opens plasmodesmata between contiguous cells.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
110
Q

Which of the following lists the correct sequence of cell wall layers, beginning with the outermost layer and progressing inward?

A

middle lamella, primary wall, secondary wall

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
111
Q

Which of the following statements about the primary wall is FALSE?

A

It is usually of uniform thickness.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
112
Q

An interruption in the secondary wall is called a:

A

pit.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
113
Q

Cellulose synthase is an enzyme situated in the:

A

plasma membrane.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
114
Q

In the cell cycle, interphase consists of:

A

the G1, G2, and S phases.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
115
Q

Which of the following statements concerning endoreduplication is FALSE?

A

It may result in gigantic nuclei.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
116
Q

Which of the following statements concerning checkpoints is FALSE?

A

Checkpoints differ significantly among eukaryotic cells.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
117
Q

DNA replication occurs during the ______ phase.

A

S

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
118
Q

Which of the following is unique to cell division in plants?

A

migration of the nucleus to the center of the cell

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
119
Q

In the developing cell plate, the initial polysaccharide is:

A

callose.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
120
Q

In late prophase, sister chromatids are joined by a constriction at the:

A

centromere.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
121
Q

The ______ is the earliest manifestation of the mitotic spindle.

A

prophase spindle

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
122
Q

Sister chromatids become daughter chromosomes at the beginning of:

A

anaphase.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
123
Q

Chromosomes lengthen and become indistinct during:

A

telophase.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
124
Q

During ______, the nuclear envelopes and nucleoli re-form.

A

telophase

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
125
Q

The longest phase of mitosis is always:

A

prophase.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
126
Q

Which of the following statements about the phragmoplast is FALSE?

A

It begins to form at the walls of the dividing cell and grows inward.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
127
Q

Water potential is defined as the:

A

potential energy of water.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
128
Q

The long-distance transport of sap in the phloem is an example of:

A

pressure-driven bulk flow.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
129
Q

What is the water potential, expressed in units of megapascals, of pure water?

A

0

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
130
Q

In the absence of other factors affecting water potential, water will move FROM a region of ______ TO a region of ______.

A

low solute concentration; high solute concentration

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
131
Q

Which of the following could be the water potential of a sucrose solution at atmospheric pressure and at sea level?

A

–10 MPa

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
132
Q

Suppose a drop of dye is placed in one end of a tank of water. What happens next?

A

The dye molecules and the water molecules move down their respective concentration gradients.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
133
Q

Which of the following statements about diffusion is FALSE?

A

When the diffusing molecules become evenly distributed, their movement stops.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
134
Q

Which of the following substances is LEAST likely to diffuse across the plasma membrane?

A

an ion

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
135
Q

Which of the following statements about solute movement in cells is FALSE?

A

Diffusion is an effective way to move substances between distantly separated cells.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
136
Q

Which of the following is the best definition of osmosis?

A

The net movement of water across a selectively permeable membrane.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
137
Q

Turgor pressure results most directly from:

A

water moving into a cell by osmosis.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
138
Q

Wall pressure:

A

is an inwardly directed pressure of the wall.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
139
Q

In plasmolysis:

A

the plasma membrane pulls away from the cell wall.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
140
Q

If a plant cell is placed in a solution with a relatively low water potential, the cell will:

A

undergo plasmolysis.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
141
Q

Wilting results most directly from _______ in plant cells.

A

the loss of turgor

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
142
Q

When botanists speak of a “bilayer,” they are referring to a structure composed entirely of:

A

phospholipids.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
143
Q

The most abundant sterol in the plant cell membrane is:

A

stigmasterol.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
144
Q

The portion of a transmembrane protein embedded in the bilayer is:

A

hydrophobic.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
145
Q

By definition, all proteins attached to protruding portions of transmembrane proteins are:

A

peripheral proteins.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
146
Q

Which of the following statements concerning membrane structure is FALSE?

A

Transmembrane proteins lack hydrophilic sequences.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
147
Q

Although membranes were previously described by the “fluid-mosaic” model, recent evidence suggests that membranes:

A

are less fluid.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
148
Q

In the plasma membrane, carbohydrates are most likely to be found:

A

on the outer membrane surface.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
149
Q

What is the hypothesized role of carbohydrates in the plasma membrane?

A

recognizing molecules that interact with the cell

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
150
Q

Most membrane carbohydrates are present in the form of:

A

glycoproteins.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
151
Q

The portion of a transmembrane protein that is embedded in the hydrophobic interior of the bilayer is usually in the form of a(n):

A

alpha helix.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
152
Q

Which of the following is NOT a function of membrane proteins?

A

making the membrane impermeable

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
153
Q

Small nonpolar molecules, such as O2 and CO2, enter a cell by:

A

simple diffusion.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
154
Q

A steroid hormone would most likely enter a cell by:

A

simple diffusion.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
155
Q

A “gate” is most directly associated with a:

A

channel.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
156
Q

An aquaporin is a:

A

channel protein for water.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
157
Q

Aquaporins are found in the plasma membrane and the:

A

the mitochondrial membrane, the chloroplast membrane, the tonoplast, and the ER.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
158
Q

Which of the following statements about an electrochemical gradient is FALSE?

A

It is the driving force for the movement of charged and uncharged substances across a membrane.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
159
Q

If the concentration of K+ is higher outside a plant cell than inside, K+ will enter the cell by:

A

facilitated diffusion through channel proteins.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
160
Q

Symport is a transport system in which the transport of one solute:

A

depends on the transport of another solute in the same direction.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
161
Q

Which of the following processes in plant cell membranes requires ATP?

A

active transport

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
162
Q

If the concentration of glucose is higher inside a cell than outside, glucose will enter the cell only by:

A

active transport.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
163
Q

In the active transport of sucrose, the secondary active transport system is the:

A

sucrose-proton symporter.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
164
Q

Proteins and polysaccharides will most likely enter a cell by:

A

vesicle-mediated transport.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
165
Q

A cell that ingests bacteria or cellular debris does so by:

A

phagocytosis.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
166
Q

In receptor-mediated endocytosis, specific receptors for the substances to be transported are localized in:

A

coated pits.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
167
Q

In receptor-mediated endocytosis, what happens immediately after the substance to be transported binds to a receptor?

A

The coated pit invaginates to form a coated vesicle.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
168
Q

Which of the following would NOT occur during signal recognition?

A

The signal molecule is transported out of the cell by exocytosis.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
169
Q

Two of the most common second messengers are:

A

calcium ions and cyclic AMP.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
170
Q

In the signal-transduction pathway involving Ca2+ ions in plants, which of the following occurs during the transduction step?

A

Calcium ions are released into the cytosol from the vacuole.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
171
Q

The symplast consists of:

A

all the protoplasts including their plasmodesmata.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
172
Q

Primary plasmodesmata are different from secondary plasmodesmata in that primary plasmodesmata:

A

are formed during cytokinesis.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
173
Q

Which of the following statements concerning the desmotubule is FALSE?

A

It is a main channel for transporting materials.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
174
Q

The cytoplasmic sleeve is the:

A

cytoplasmic channel involved in symplastic transport through a plasmodesma.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
175
Q

Which of the following statements concerning plasmodesmata is FALSE?

A

Their similar symplastic domains cause them to be passive structures.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
176
Q

Of the total solar energy that reaches the Earth, ______ percent is captured by the cells of photosynthetic organisms.

A

less than 1

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
177
Q

The energy of a system is defined as:

A

its capacity to do work.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
178
Q

According to the first law of thermodynamics, the total energy of ______ is ______.

A

the universe; constant

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
179
Q

The first law of thermodynamics states that:

A

energy can be changed from one form to another, but it cannot be created or destroyed.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
180
Q

Which of the following is NOT an example of potential energy?

A

Water at the bottom of a waterfall

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
181
Q

The first law of thermodynamics states that the total energy of a system and its surroundings after an energy conversion is ______ the total energy before the conversion.

A

equal to

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
182
Q

One way of stating the second law of thermodynamics is:

A

the entropy of the universe is increasing.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
183
Q

The second law of thermodynamics states that if no energy enters or leaves the system under study, the potential energy of the final state will be______ the potential energy of the initial state.

A

less than

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
184
Q

An exergonic reaction:

A

is a reaction in which the potential energy of the final state is less than that of the initial state.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
185
Q

ΔH refers to the:

A

change in enthalpy.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
186
Q

Entropy refers to the ______ of a system.

A

disorder or randomness

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
187
Q

ΔG refers to the change in ______ of the system.

A

free energy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
188
Q

Which of the following equations relating enthalpy, entropy, and free energy is correct?

A

ΔG = ΔH - T ΔS

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
189
Q

ΔG is negative.

A

are exergonic.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
190
Q

Which of the following statements about living cells is FALSE?

A

They are at equilibrium with their surroundings.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
191
Q

Oxidation is defined as the:

A

loss of electrons.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
192
Q

In biological reactions, when a molecule is oxidized it ______ an electron and a(n) ______.

A

loses; proton

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
193
Q

In the following reaction, which molecule is oxidized?

glucose + oxygen → carbon dioxide + water

A

Oxygen

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
194
Q

During the oxidation of glucose in the cell, most of the energy is released:

A

in small amounts.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
195
Q

An enzyme:

A

functions as a catalyst.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
196
Q

Most enzymes are:

A

proteins.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
197
Q

A substrate binds to its enzyme at a location called the ______ site.

A

active

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
198
Q

A negatively charged portion of a substrate molecule would most likely fit into a ______ region of its enzyme’s active site.

A

positively charged

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
199
Q

The general name for a nonprotein component required by some enzymes is a:

A

cofactor

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
200
Q

Most enzymes that catalyze phosphorylation reactions require ______ as a cofactor.

A

Mg2+

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
201
Q

The vitamin niacin is part of the ______ molecule.

A

NAD+

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
202
Q

In a NAD+ molecule, a pyrophosphate bridge joins:

A

two ribose molecules.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
203
Q

Which of the following statements about metabolic pathways is FALSE?

A

The enzymes of most pathways allow intermediate products to accumulate.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
204
Q

Isozymes are:

A

different enzymes that catalyze identical reactions.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
205
Q

In an allosteric enzyme, the substrate binds at the ______ site and the regulatory substance binds at the ______ site.

A

active; effector

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
206
Q

In feedback inhibition, the ______ enzyme in a metabolic pathway is inhibited by the ___________.

A

first; end product

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
207
Q

Which of the following is NOT a component of an ATP molecule?

A

a pyrophosphate bridge

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
208
Q

In an ATP molecule, phosphoanhydride bonds link:

A

the phosphate groups together.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
209
Q

Which type of enzyme catalyzes the following reaction?

ATP + H2O → ADP + phosphate

A

ATPase

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
210
Q

Which statement about the reaction ATP + H2O → ADP + phosphate is FALSE?

A

The reactants are more stable than the products.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
211
Q

Which of the following is a phosphorylation reaction catalyzed by a kinase in plant cells?

A

ATP + glucose → glucose phosphate + ADP

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
212
Q

Which of the following statements about sucrose synthesis is FALSE?

A

In the cell, sucrose synthesis is endergonic.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
213
Q

Which of the following statements about the reactions of glucose oxidation is FALSE?

A

Oxygen is oxidized.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
214
Q

Which of the following statements concerning fermentation is FALSE?

A

It involves O2 as the ultimate electron acceptor.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
215
Q

Which of the following does NOT occur during respiration?

A

hydrolysis of starch to glucose

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
216
Q

Formation of ATP from ADP and phosphate as a result of electron transport occurs in:

A

oxidative phosphorylation.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
217
Q

In respiration, most of the energy in the original glucose molecule is:

A

released as heat.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
218
Q

In glycolysis, one molecule of glucose is converted to ______ molecules of ______.

A

three; pyruvate

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
219
Q

Which of the following statements concerning glycolysis is FALSE?

A

It is an aerobic process.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
220
Q

Where in the cell does glycolysis occur?

A

the cytosol

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
221
Q

When one speaks of the cell’s “net energy harvest” from glycolysis one is referring to the amount of:

A

ATP and NADH

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
222
Q

The preparatory phase of glycolysis involves:

A

2 molecules of ATP only.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
223
Q

As part of the first step in the first preparatory reaction of glycolysis:

A

glucose is phosphorylated.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
224
Q

For every molecule of glucose that begins glycolysis, how many ATP molecules are consumed?

A

2

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
225
Q

As part of the cleavage step in glycolysis, glucose is:

A

converted to glyceraldehyde 3-phosphate and dihydroxyacetone phosphate.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
226
Q

For each molecule of glucose that completes glycolysis, how many NAD+ molecules are reduced?

A

2

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
227
Q

For every glucose molecule that completes glycolysis, how many total molecules of ATP are produced?

A

4

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
228
Q

In glycolysis, what is the net energy harvest of ATP molecules per molecule of glucose?

A

2

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
229
Q

Most of the enzymes of the citric acid cycle are found in the _____ of the _____.

A

matrix; mitochondria

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
230
Q

Pyruvate is converted to acetyl CoA in the ____ of the _____.

A

matrix; mitochondria

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
231
Q

For every molecule of glucose that begins glycolysis, how many molecules of acetyl CoA are produced?

A

2

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
232
Q

During the conversion of pyruvate to acetyl CoA, _____ is produced.

A

CO2

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
233
Q

Upon entering the citric acid cycle, the acetyl group combines with ______ to produce ______.

A

oxaloacetate; citrate

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
234
Q

After acetyl CoA enters the citric acid cycle, the coenzyme A portion of the molecule:

A

is released.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
235
Q

Which of the following does NOT occur during the citric acid cycle?

A

oxidative phosphorylation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
236
Q

In each turn of the citric acid cycle, how many molecules of ATP are produced?

A

1

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
237
Q

In the citric acid cycle, how many molecules of FADH are produced per molecule of glucose?

A

2

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
238
Q

In the citric acid cycle, how many molecules of NADH are produced per molecule of glucose?

A

6

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
239
Q

Most of the carriers of the electron transport chain are:

A

embedded in the inner mitochondrial membrane.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
240
Q

Which of the following statements about iron-sulfur proteins is FALSE?

A

They carry electrons and protons.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
241
Q

The most abundant component(s) of the mitochondrial electron transport chain is/are:

A

coenzyme Q.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
242
Q

Who am I? I move freely within the mitochondrial membrane and thus shuttle electrons between other carriers.

A

CoQ

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
243
Q

The energy released by the flow of electrons along the electron transport chain is used directly to:

A

pump protons.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
244
Q

The final electron acceptor in the electron transport chain is:

A

oxygen.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
245
Q

For each pair of electrons passing from NADH to oxygen, how many ATP molecules can be generated?

A

3

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
246
Q

Oxidative phosphorylation depends on a gradient of ______ across the mitochondrial membrane.

A

protons

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
247
Q

In the electron transport chain, electrons pass from complex ____ directly to O2.

A

IV

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
248
Q

The electrochemical gradient resulting from electron transport is due to differences in ______ across the inner mitochondrial membrane.

A

electric charge and proton concentration

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
249
Q

Which of the following statements about ATP synthase is FALSE?

A

It transports electrons.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
250
Q

The number of ATP molecules generated from each NADH produced in glycolysis is _______.

A

2

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
251
Q

The number of ATP molecules generated from each NADH produced in the conversion of pyruvate to acetyl CoA is _______.

A

2

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
252
Q

Most of the ATP formed in respiration is produced by reactions associated with:

A

the electron transport chain.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
253
Q

The process of beta oxidation is involved in the breakdown of:

A

triglycerides.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
254
Q

Under anaerobic conditions, yeasts and most plant cells convert pyruvate to:

A

ethanol and carbon dioxide.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
255
Q

Which of the following processes occurs in both lactate fermentation and alcohol fermentation?

A

oxidation of NADH

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
256
Q

In lactate fermentation and alcohol fermentation, the net ATP production is ______ molecules of ATP per molecule of glucose.

A

2

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
257
Q

“Catabolism” specifically refers to the various pathways in which organisms ______ organic molecules.

A

break down

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
258
Q

The metabolic “hub” of the cell is:

A

the citric acid cycle.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
259
Q

Who provided the first experimental evidence that soil alone does not nourish the plant?

A

Jan Baptista van Helmont

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
260
Q

The O2 evolved in photosynthesis comes from:

A

water.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
261
Q

F. F. Blackman showed that:

A

photosynthesis has a light-dependent stage and a light-independent stage.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
262
Q

Which of the following statements about the electromagnetic spectrum is FALSE?

A

The longer the wavelength of light, the more energy it has.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
263
Q

Light is composed of particles called:

A

photons.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
264
Q

Chlorophyll absorbs light principally in the ______ wavelengths.

A

blue and violet

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
265
Q

An action spectrum is different from an absorption spectrum in that an action spectrum:

A

is the relative effectiveness of different wavelengths for a specific process.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
266
Q

Which of the following is the very next event that occurs when a chlorophyll molecule absorbs light?

A

The electron is boosted to an excited state.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
267
Q

Which pigment occurs in all photosynthetic eukaryotes?

A

Chlorophyll a

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
268
Q

The primary function of ______ is as an anti-oxidant.

A

carotenoids

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
269
Q

Xanthophylls and carotenes:

A

are carotenoids.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
270
Q

The energy-transduction reactions of photosynthesis are also called the ______ reactions.

A

light

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
271
Q

Which of the following statements about an antenna complex is FALSE?

A

It converts light energy into chemical energy.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
272
Q

The light-harvesting complex is different from a photosystem in that the light-harvesting complex:

A

lacks a reaction center.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
273
Q

In the antenna complex, light energy is transferred from one pigment molecule to another by:

A

resonance energy transfer.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
274
Q

In contrast to Photosystem I, Photosystem II is located primarily:

A

in grana thylakoids.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
275
Q

In Photosystem II, energized electrons are transferred from pheophytin directly to:

A

PQA.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
276
Q

In the light reactions, the cytochrome b6/f complex receives electrons directly from:

A

plastoquinol.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
277
Q

Following photolysis, the resulting protons are released into the ______, contributing to the proton gradient across the ______ membrane.

A

lumen of the thylakoid; thylakoid

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
278
Q

The ______ complex links photosystems I and II.

A

cytochrome b6/f

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
279
Q

In photophosphorylation, the role of the ATP synthase complex is to provide a channel for protons to flow back into the:

A

chloroplast stroma.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
280
Q

Which of the following events is NOT associated with Photosystem I?

A

transfer of electrons from cytochromes to iron-sulfur proteins

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
281
Q

Which of the following statements concerning ferredoxin is FALSE?

A

It is found in the chloroplast grana.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
282
Q

Which of the following is produced during noncyclic AND cyclic electron flow?

A

ATP

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
283
Q

During cyclic electron flow, electrons are transferred directly from P700 to Ao to:

A

the photosynthetic electron transport chain.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
284
Q

The Calvin cycle takes place in the:

A

chloroplast stroma.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
285
Q

Carbon dioxide is “fixed” by bonding to:

A

ribulose 1,5-bisphosphate.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
286
Q

The role of Rubisco is to catalyze the conversion of:

A

CO2 to an unstable six-carbon compound.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
287
Q

How many molecules of CO2 are fixed during each turn of the Calvin cycle?

A

one

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
288
Q

Which of the following does NOT occur in the Calvin cycle?

A

ADP is phosphorylated to ATP.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
289
Q

Which of the following statements about the Calvin cycle is FALSE?

A

It uses ATP from noncyclic, but not cyclic, photophosphorylation.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
290
Q

Most of the glyceraldehyde 3-phosphate not exported to the cytosol is converted to ______ and stored in the chloroplasts.

A

starch

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
291
Q

Rubisco can use ______ or CO2 as a substrate.

A

O2

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
292
Q

Which of the following statements about photorespiration is FALSE?

A

It yields ATP but not NADPH.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
293
Q

Which of the following conditions favors photorespiration?

A

a hot, dry environment

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
294
Q

One of the benefits of photorespiration is removing toxic:

A

phosphoglycolate.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
295
Q

In the C4 pathway, the enzyme PEP carboxylase:

A

catalyzes the formation of oxaloacetate.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
296
Q

The malate or aspartate produced in the C4 pathway moves next into:

A

the bundle-sheath cells.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
297
Q

Kranz anatomy is characterized by a layer of ____ around a layer of ____.

A

mesophyll cells; bundle-sheath cells

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
298
Q

Suaeda aralocaspica is different from many other C4 plants because it:

A

lacks Kranz anatomy.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
299
Q

Compared with a C3 plant, a C4 plant:

A

needs more ATP to fix CO2.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
300
Q

Which of the following is a C4 plant?

A

crabgrass

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
301
Q

Compared with C3 plants, C4 plants:

A

use nitrogen more efficiently.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
302
Q

In CAM plants, malate formed as the end product of CO2 fixation in the dark is stored as malic acid in the:

A

vacuole.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
303
Q

Which of the following is most likely to occur in a leaf cell of a CAM plant during the day?

A

decarboxylation of malic acid

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
304
Q

Which of the following is not considered a CAM plant?

A

wheat

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
305
Q

Which of the following statements about CAM plants is FALSE?

A

All CAM plants are flowering plants.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
306
Q

By crossing different varieties of peas ______ discovered the principles of heredity.

A

Gregor Mendel

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
307
Q

Which of the following statements about sexual reproduction is FALSE?

A

It is the principal mode of reproduction in prokaryotes.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
308
Q

Which of the following statements about homologous chromosomes is FALSE?

A

Homologs resemble each other in size but not in shape.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
309
Q

Chromatin consists of:

A

DNA, histones, and other proteins.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
310
Q

Which of the following statements concerning histones is FALSE?

A

They are present in four distinct types.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
311
Q

A nucleosome consists of:

A

a core of histones wrapped with DNA.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
312
Q

A cell that unites with another cell is called a:

A

gamete.

313
Q

The pairing of homologous chromosomes is called:

A

synapsis.

314
Q

Which of the following statements about the synaptonemal complex is FALSE?

A

It forms just before prophase.

315
Q

Crossing-over occurs during:

A

prophase I.

316
Q

Homologous pairs of chromosomes separate during:

A

anaphase I.

317
Q

Nuclear envelopes form around single-stranded chromosomes during:

A

telophase II.

318
Q

Unpaired double-stranded chromosomes line up on the equatorial plane during:

A

metaphase II.

319
Q

Sister chromatids become daughter chromosomes during:

A

anaphase II.

320
Q

If a cell has three pairs of homologous chromosomes, in how many ways could they be distributed among the haploid cells produced by meiosis?

A

eight

321
Q

Which of the following statements about alleles is FALSE?

A

They occupy different sites on homologous chromosomes.

322
Q

The seeds of all the progeny of a cross between yellow-seeded plants and green-seeded plants are as yellow as those of the yellow-seeded parent. From this information, it is clear that:

A

the F2 generation consists entirely of yellow-seeded plants.

323
Q

When a particular trait appears in the F2 generation but not in the F1 generation, it is an indication that:

A

the trait is recessive.

324
Q

If we say that the phenotype of an individual is purple, we are saying that:

A

the appearance of the individual is purple.

325
Q

If the allele for red flower color is dominant over the allele for white flower color, which of the following represents a cross between a white-flowered plant and a plant heterozygous for flower color?

A

Rr × rr

326
Q

In peas, green pod color is dominant over yellow pod color. If a plant heterozygous for pod color is crossed with a plant homozygous recessive for pod color, what phenotypes would you expect in the offspring?

A

half with green pods and half with yellow pods

327
Q

In peas, tall stem length is dominant over short length. What genotypic ratio would you expect in the offspring of a cross between a heterozygous tall plant and a homozygous short plant?

A

one heterozygous tall: one homozygous short

328
Q

If W represents the allele for purple flower color, and w represents the allele for white flower color, what phenotypic ratio would you expect for the offspring of a testcross?

A

One WW: one ww

329
Q

Consider the two traits, seed shape and seed color. R represents the allele for round seeds, r the allele for wrinkled seeds, Y the allele for yellow seeds, and y the allele for green seeds. Which of the following indicates a cross between a plant heterozygous for both traits and a plant homozygous recessive for both traits?

A

RrYy × rryy

330
Q

Consider the two traits, seed shape and seed color. R represents the allele for round seeds, r the allele for wrinkled seeds, Y the allele for yellow seeds, and y the allele for green seeds. What phenotypic ratio would you expect in the offspring of a cross between a plant with wrinkled green seeds and a plant heterozygous for both traits?

A

one round yellow: one round green: one wrinkled yellow: one wrinkled green

331
Q

Which of the following is true of Mendel’s second law but not his first law?

A

The two alleles of a gene assort independently of the alleles of the other genes.

332
Q

If two genes are linked, then by definition they:

A

occur on the same chromosome.

333
Q

Suppose that a plant has two genes that are linked, with Ab on one homolog of a homologous pair of chromosomes and aB on the other homolog. What gametes could the plant produce if crossing-over occurred between these genes during meiosis?

A

Ab, aB, AB, and ab only

334
Q

Consider a chromosome represented as ABC·DEFG, where · indicates the centromere. Suppose ultraviolet light causes the chromosome to change to AC·DEFG. What type of mutation has occurred?

A

deletion

335
Q

Consider a chromosome represented as ABCD·EFG, where · indicates the centromere. Suppose ultraviolet light causes the chromosome to change to ACBD·EFG. What type of mutation has occurred?

A

inversion

336
Q

Which of the following statements about transposons is FALSE?

A

They occur only in bacteria.

337
Q

The exchange of segments between nonhomologous chromosomes is called a(n):

A

translocation.

338
Q

Polyploidy refers to the:

A

gain of a complete set of chromosomes.

339
Q

Which of the following statements concerning mutations is FALSE?

A

The mutation rate in eukaryotes is about one mutant gene at a given locus per 2000 cell divisions.

340
Q

When the phenotype of a heterozygote is intermediate between the phenotypes of its homozygous parents, the condition is known as:

A

incomplete dominance.

341
Q

In snapdragons, a cross between a red-flowered plant and a white-flowered plant produces a plant with pink flowers. What offspring would you expect from a cross between two pink-flowered plants?

A

1/4 red, 1/2 pink, 1/4 white

342
Q

A population of organisms that has four alleles for a given gene is said to have:

A

multiple alleles.

343
Q

In peas, the dominant alleles A and B must be present for purple flower pigment to be produced; otherwise the flowers are white. What offspring would you expect from a cross between plants of genotypes Aabb and aaBb?

A

one purple: three white

344
Q

When a trait exhibits continuous variation in a population of organisms, it most likely is due to:

A

several different genes interacting.

345
Q

In ______, a single gene has many different effects on the phenotype.

A

pleiotropy

346
Q

Cytoplasmic inheritance in plants involves genes present in the:

A

mitochondria and plastids.

347
Q

Which of the following is NOT a possible cause of maternal inheritance?

A

Plastids and mitochondria are present in sperm cells but only plastids are transmitted into the egg.

348
Q

An aquatic plant produces one type of leaf above water and another type of leaf under water. This is most likely an example of:

A

interaction of the genotype with the environment.

349
Q

Which of the following statements about asexual reproduction is FALSE?

A

It increases the ability of a population to adapt to differing conditions.

350
Q

Which of the following statements about sexual reproduction is FALSE?

A

It is necessary for the survival of the population.

351
Q

The pyrimidine bases of DNA are:

A

cytosine and thymine.

352
Q

Data obtained by Erwin Chargaff indicated that in DNA the ratio of nucleotides containing _________ to those containing _______ is approximately 1:1.

A

adenine; thymine

353
Q

The DNA molecule has the shape of a:

A

double helix

354
Q

In the ladder analogy of DNA structure, the sides of the ladder are composed of:

A

alternating sugars and phosphates.

355
Q

In a DNA molecule, the hydrogen bonds join:

A

the paired nitrogenous bases.

356
Q

Which of the following are complementary bases?

A

guanine and cytosine

357
Q

Each strand in a DNA molecule:

A

has a 5′ end and a 3′ end.

358
Q

Which of the following statements about DNA replication in eukaryotes is FALSE?

A

There is only one origin of replication.

359
Q

After a DNA molecule “unzips,” the two strands are kept separated by:

A

single-strand binding proteins.

360
Q

DNA replication requires a short strand of _____ as a primer to initiate synthesis.

A

RNA

361
Q

In DNA replication, the lagging strand differs from the leading strand in that the lagging strand is synthesized:

A

in fragments.

362
Q

In DNA replication, _______ catalyzes the joining of Okazaki fragments.

A

DNA ligase

363
Q

RNA contains ______ instead of the ______ found in DNA.

A

uracil; thymine

364
Q

The role of ______ is to carry amino acids to the ribosomes.

A

tRNA

365
Q

The process of translation results in the synthesis of:

A

protein.

366
Q

A codon consists of _____ nucleotides in a(n) ____ molecule.

A

three; RNA

367
Q

When scientists describe the genetic code as redundant, they mean that:

A

many amino acids have more than one codon.

368
Q

Which of the following statements about promoters is FALSE?

A

They consist of three nucleotides that bind to a codon.

369
Q

Which of the following molecules contains an anticodon?

A

tRNA

370
Q

A transfer RNA molecule carries a(n) ______ to the ribosomes.

A

amino acid

371
Q

An aminoacyl-tRNA synthetase catalyzes the:

A

attachment of a particular amino acid to a particular tRNA.

372
Q

A ribosome consists of ______ and ______.

A

rRNA; protein

373
Q

An incoming aminoacyl-tRNA molecule binds to the ribosome at the ______ site.

A

A (aminoacyl)

374
Q

Which of the following events is NOT part of the initiation stage of translation?

A

The initiator tRNA is released from the E site.

375
Q

During the elongation stage of translation:

A

a peptide bond is formed.

376
Q

Which of the following events is NOT part of the termination stage of translation?

A

The ribosome moves along the mRNA to the next codon.

377
Q

Polypeptides destined for membranes of the Golgi complex are synthesized on ribosomes:

A

attached to the endoplasmic reticulum.

378
Q

In a cell of a multicellular organism:

A

all enzymes are expressed continuously.

379
Q

Euchromatin differs from heterochromatin in that euchromatin:

A

is more readily transcribed during interphase.

380
Q

Which of the following statements concerning telomeres is FALSE?

A

They are regions of active transcription.

381
Q

Which of the following is the most likely next step after histones are acetylated?

A

Transcription occurs.

382
Q

Acetyltransferases catalyze the attachment of acetyl groups to:

A

histones.

383
Q

When DNA is methylated:

A

transcription is repressed.

384
Q

Which of the following is the best estimate for the percentage of DNA in eukaryotic cells that codes for proteins?

A

less than 10 percent

385
Q

Interspersed repeated DNA units:

A

are believed to have originated from transposons.

386
Q

Which of the following statements about simple-sequence repeated DNA segments is FALSE?

A

They are dispersed throughout the DNA.

387
Q

Which of the following statements concerning transposons is FALSE?

A

They replicate more slowly than other genes.

388
Q

Exons are segments of a gene that:

A

are translated into protein.

389
Q

Which of the following events occurs in eukaryotic cells but NOT in prokaryotic cells?

A

mRNA transcripts are extensively modified before they leave the nucleus.

390
Q

Which of the following events is NOT involved in mRNA processing?

A

the forming of peptide bonds

391
Q

Which of the following statements concerning noncoding RNAs is FALSE?

A

They are types of tRNA molecules.

392
Q

Traditional breeding programs:

A

depend on inherent genetic variability.

393
Q

Genetically modified plants were first grown commercially in:

A

1996.

394
Q

Which of the following statements concerning restriction enzymes is FALSE?

A

They recognize single-stranded DNA sequences.

395
Q

A sticky-ended fragment can join with another DNA segment only if that segment:

A

has been cut with the same restriction enzyme.

396
Q

DNA ligase would most likely be used in recombinant DNA technology to:

A

join DNA fragments together.

397
Q

Which of the following statements concerning vectors is FALSE?

A

A host cell can be a vector.

398
Q

By definition, a transformed cell:

A

contains a recombinant DNA molecule.

399
Q

The ampR gene is used in recombinant DNA technology to:

A

screen for the presence of cells containing recombinant plasmids.

400
Q

Suppose a plasmid containing a gene of interest plus the ampR gene is used to transform E. coli cells. When these cells are placed on a medium containing ampicillin, what will happen?

A

They will survive and grow.

401
Q

An example of a selectable marker gene is:

A

ampR.

402
Q

When the lacZ gene technique is used to detect recombinant DNA in host bacterial cells, the colonies will appear _______ if the cells have been successfully transformed.

A

white

403
Q

Which of the following would be linked to a promoter to determine if a particular gene introduced into a host cell is directing the synthesis of protein?

A

the luciferase gene

404
Q

Which of the following statements concerning DNA libraries is FALSE?

A

A genomic library lacks exons.

405
Q

In recombinant DNA technology, reverse transcriptase is used to:

A

synthesize cDNA.

406
Q

The polymerase chain reaction is used to:

A

produce millions of copies of a DNA segment in a short time.

407
Q

The Taq polymerase is used in recombinant DNA technology to:

A

make up to a millionfold copies of a DNA segment in a few hours.

408
Q

One important characteristic the Taq polymerase is its

A

resistance to high temperature.

409
Q

In recombinant DNA technology, cutting different samples of a single DNA molecule with different restriction enzymes allows one to:

A

determine the nucleotide sequence of a gene.

410
Q

The first eukaryotic genome to be sequenced was that of:

A

Saccharomyces cerevisae.

411
Q

By definition, hydroponics is the technique for growing:

A

plants without soil.

412
Q

It was not until the discovery of ________ that organ and tissue culture became feasible.

A

plant hormones

413
Q

Because meristems lack _________ tissues, meristem culture results in plants that lack _________.

A

vascular; viruses

414
Q

Crown-gall tumors are produced by a(n):

A

bacterium.

415
Q

Agrobacterium induces the formation of crown-gall tumors by transferring the ____ plasmid containing ______ to the host plant’s nuclear DNA.

A

Ti; T-DNA

416
Q

In Agrobacterium, genes that code for enzymes involved in the synthesis of the hormone auxin are found in the _____ region of the plasmid.

A

onc

417
Q

In the Agrobacterium Ti plasmid, the ____ gene codes for the synthesis of amino acids that are used as food.

A

O

418
Q

In the Ti plasmid of Agrobacterium tumefaciens, the onc region contains genes that code for enzymes in:

A

auxin and cytokinin synthesis.

419
Q

Opines are:

A

amino acid derivatives.

420
Q

In _________, electrical pulses cause pores in the plasma membrane to open, thus allowing DNA to enter the cell.

A

electroporation

421
Q

Which of the following statements about particle bombardment is FALSE?

A

It is used to deliver DNA but not RNA into a cell.

422
Q

The BT gene is transferred for the purpose of:

A

conferring resistance to caterpillars.

423
Q

Glyphosate is:

A

an herbicide that kills all plants

424
Q

One advantage of inserting into crop plants a gene that codes for an altered enzyme in aromatic amino acid synthesis is that the plants would:

A

be resistant to glyphosphate.

425
Q

Mutant forms of the ethylene receptor gene from Arabidopsis are inserted into plants for the purpose of:

A

delaying flower wilting.

426
Q

Why would a gene for cytokinin synthesis be fused to a promoter that is expressed only in senescent leaves?

A

to delay leaf senescence

427
Q

“Golden rice” is notable because of its:

A

high β-carotene content.

428
Q

The advantage of using the “ice-minus” strain of Pseudomonas syringae is:

A

reducing susceptibility to frost.

429
Q

One aspect of structural genomics is:

A

preparing physical maps.

430
Q

A genetic map is different from a physical map in that a genetic map is:

A

based on rates of recombination

431
Q

Which of the following is NOT one of the goals of functional genomics?

A

determining the location of genes on a chromosome

432
Q

The transcriptome refers to all of the:

A

RNA molecules transcribed by the genome.

433
Q

The preparation of knockout mutants involves:

A

inserting a piece of DNA into the gene of interest.

434
Q

Which of the following statements about prokaryotic genomes is FALSE?

A

Approximately 90% of the identified genes have been assigned a function.

435
Q

Which of the following statements about eukaryotic genomes is FALSE?

A

The greater the complexity of the organism, the more protein-coding genes it has.

436
Q

______ warned of the hazards of increased human population growth.

A

Thomas Malthus

437
Q

Humans breed plants and animals through the process of:

A

artificial selection.

438
Q

______ is the sum total of all the alleles of all the genes in a population.

A

The gene pool

439
Q

When biologists speak of the “fitness” of an organism they are referring to:

A

the number of its surviving offspring.

440
Q

Which of the following statements concerning the Hardy-Weinberg Law is FALSE?

A

It involves conditions that are usually met in natural populations.

441
Q

Which of the following is NOT a necessary condition for a population to be in Hardy-Weinberg equilibrium?

A

nonrandom mating

442
Q

Which is the mathematical representation of the Hardy-Weinberg equilibrium?

A

p2+ 2pq + q2 = 1

443
Q

In a population that is in Hardy-Weinberg equilibrium, the frequency of a particular recessive allele is 40 percent. What proportion of the population is homozygous for the dominant allele?

A

36 percent

444
Q

In a population that is in Hardy-Weinberg equilibrium, the frequency of a particular dominant allele is 20 percent. What percentage of the individuals in this population will be heterozygous for that trait?

A

32 percent

445
Q

In a population that is in Hardy-Weinberg equilibrium, the frequency of a particular dominant allele is 70 percent, and the frequency of the recessive allele is 30 percent. In the next generation, the frequency of the dominant allele will be ______ percent and the frequency of the recessive allele will be ______ percent.

A

70; 30

446
Q

The raw material for evolutionary change is provided by:

A

mutations.

447
Q

In a population, ______ results from the immigration or emigration of individuals.

A

gene flow

448
Q

In a population of 1000 plants, the frequency of the a allele is 5 percent. Suppose a fire causes the loss of 500 individuals who are homozygous for the A allele. In this case the fire caused the frequency of a to change from ______ to ______.

A

0.05; 0.1

449
Q

By definition, _______ is the term that refers to changes in a gene pool due to chance.

A

genetic drift

450
Q

An example of ______ is when a single plant seed is carried by the wind to a remote island where it initiates a new population.

A

the founder effect

451
Q

An example of ______ is when a forest fire destroys a large percentage of a population of trees.

A

the bottleneck effect

452
Q

When plants heterozygous for a trait self-pollinate there will be a(n):

A

decrease in the frequency of individuals heterozygous for that trait.

453
Q

In a population, natural selection:

A

can preserve and promote variability.

454
Q

As an example of rapid evolutionary change, one variety of Agrostis grows much faster on tailings and dumps around abandoned lead mines than does another variety. What is the explanation for this?

A

Selection has favored the development of the lead-resistant variety.

455
Q

Which of the following statements about adaptation is FALSE?

A

It is correlated with selective forces exerted by the environment but not by other organisms.

456
Q

The tendency of individuals to vary over time in response to different environmental conditions is called:

A

developmental plasticity.

457
Q

Which of the following statements concerning ecotypes is FALSE?

A

They exhibit a gradual change in phenotype correlated with gradual changes in the environment.

458
Q

The experiments with Potentilla glandulosa showed that this organism:

A

exists as four distinct ecotypes.

459
Q

The experiments with Oxyria digyna and Solidago virgaurea provide evidence that:

A

ecotypes differ physiologically.

460
Q

______ refers to the adjustments that occur when populations of different species exert a strong selective force on each other.

A

Coevolution.

461
Q

The key criterion of the biological species concept is that the members of a species:

A

are all genetically isolated from other species.

462
Q

If two groups are genetically isolated from each other, then by definition:

A

one group cannot exchange genes with the other group.

463
Q

The existence of Platanus × hybrida is indicative of the fact that:

A

fertile hybrids between species can occur.

464
Q

One approach of the phylogenetic species concept states that species are defined on the basis of their:

A

historical relatedness to other organisms in the species.

465
Q

Allopatric speciation is different from sympatric speciation in that allopatric speciation involves:

A

geographic isolation.

466
Q

Which of the following statements about allopatric speciation is FALSE?

A

Organisms with restricted dispersal should form new species over large areas.

467
Q

Which of the following statements about sympatric speciation is FALSE?

A

It is more common than allopatric speciation.

468
Q

The type of polyploidy known as allopolyploidy:

A

is more common than autopolyploidy.

469
Q

Approximately ______ percent of flowering plants are polyploid.

A

47 to 70

470
Q

Tragopogon mirus and Tragopogon miscellus are examples of species formed by:

A

allopolyploid speciation.

471
Q

One of the most important polyploid groups is the:

A

wheats.

472
Q

An example of recombination speciation is provided by:

A

Helianthus anomalus.

473
Q

Which of the following statements concerning recombination speciation in sunflowers is FALSE?

A

It involves polyploidy.

474
Q

Varieties of Kentucky bluegrass undergo a form of asexual reproduction known as ______ in which embryos that are genetically identical to the parent are produced.

A

apomixis

475
Q

Apomixis is a type of:

A

asexual reproduction.

476
Q

Cross-pollination between individuals of the same species is called:

A

outcrossing.

477
Q

The origin of taxonomic groups above the level of the species is called:

A

macroevolution.

478
Q

According to the gradualism model:

A

evolution occurs by the accumulation of many small changes in the frequencies of genes in a gene pool.

479
Q

According to the theory of punctuated equilibrium:

A

long periods of little phyletic change are interrupted by short periods of rapid change.

480
Q

Modern biological classification began with:

A

Carl Linnaeus.

481
Q

Which of the following statements about Linnaeus is FALSE?

A

He developed a “shorthand” designation for each species consisting of a single word.

482
Q

The binomial for poison ivy is Toxicodendron radicans. To what genus does this plant belong?

A

Toxicodendron

483
Q

The binomial for the coast redwood is Sequoia sempervirens. What is the species name of this plant?

A

Sequoia sempervirens

484
Q

Which of the following statements about the naming of species and varieties is FALSE?

A

When used alone, the specific epithet provides valuable taxonomic information.

485
Q

Which of the following lists the taxonomic categories in the correct hierarchy, from most to least inclusive, under kingdom?

A

Phylum, class, order, family, genus, species

486
Q

Cattleya is one genus in the Orchidaceaea, the orchid family. In this example:

A

Cattleya and Orchidaceae are taxa.

487
Q

The term “phylum” is nomenclaturally equivalent to:

A

division.

488
Q

The names of almost all plant families end in:

A

-aceae.

489
Q

Phylogeny refers to the:

A

evolutionary history of an organism.

490
Q

A natural classification system differs from an artificial classification system in that a natural classification system:

A

reflects the evolutionary relationships among organisms.

491
Q

When the members of a taxon are all descendents of a common single ancestral species, the taxon is said to be:

A

monophyletic.

492
Q

When the members of a group have two or more ancestors, that group is said to be:

A

polyphyletic.

493
Q

Biological features that have a common origin, even if they have a different function, are said to be:

A

homologous.

494
Q

The wing of a bird and the wing of an insect are:

A

analogous but not homologous.

495
Q

Synapomorphies are:

A

shared derived characters.

496
Q

In a cladogram, groups that terminate in adjacent branches are called:

A

sister groups.

497
Q

The rule of parsimony states that:

A

cladograms should be constructed in the least complicated way.

498
Q

Which of the following statements concerning the use of molecular data in systematics is FALSE?

A

Molecular data concerning the amino acid sequences of proteins are the most widely used.

499
Q

Neutral mutations:

A

can be used to determine changes occurring in homologous genes since lineages diverged.

500
Q

If you analyze the neutral mutations from two groups and find there are few differences in their nucleotide sequences, you would logically conclude that the two groups:

A

diverged relatively recently from a common ancestor.

501
Q

Which of the following statements concerning chloroplast DNA is FALSE?

A

It contains more nucleotides than the mitochondria.

502
Q

Which of the following statements concerning the rcbL gene is FALSE?

A

It is a rapidly evolving gene.

503
Q

The DNA barcode used for animals is _____, and for plants the DNA barcode is ______.

A

CO1; rbcL or matK

504
Q

The three domains of organisms are the:

A

Archaea, Bacteria, and Eukarya

505
Q

The eukaryotes are divided into _____ supergroups.

A

7

506
Q

According to the serial endosymbiotic theory, chloroplasts evolved from:

A

bacteria.

507
Q

By definition, an endosymbiont is an organism that:

A

lives within another, dissimilar organism.

508
Q

Which of the following best indicates the correct sequence in which the evolution of these organelles occurred?

A

lysosome, mitochondrion, chloroplast

509
Q

The endomembrane system of plant cells most likely evolved from:

A

portions of the plasma membrane.

510
Q

The nucleus of plant cells most likely evolved from:

A

portions of the plasma membrane.

511
Q

In the Vorticella/Chlorella endosymbiosis:

A

Chlorella provides photosynthetic products for Vorticella.

512
Q

In the course of evolution of eukaryotic cells, some mitochondrial DNA was transferred to:

A

the host cell’s nucleus.

513
Q

In secondary endosymbiosis, a ______ is engulfed by a eukaryotic host.

A

cell containing a primary plastid

514
Q

A eukaryotic, multicellular organism that absorbs its food belongs to the kingdom:

A

Fungi.

515
Q

A multicellular organism that ingests its food belongs to the kingdom:

A

Animalia.

516
Q

Water molds and slime molds are included in the _____

A

protist

517
Q

_____ are a paraphyletic group of eukaryotic organisms that are unicellular, colonial or multicellular.

A

Protists

518
Q

Multicellular eukaryotes that have an embryo during the sporophyte phase belong to the kingdom:

A

Plantae.

519
Q

Which of the following describes zygotic meiosis?

A

The zygote is the only diploid cell in the life cycle.

520
Q

Which of the following describes sporic meiosis?

A

It is characteristic of organisms having an alternation of generations.

521
Q

The gametophyte:

A

occurs in organisms having sporic meiosis.

522
Q

Life cycles in which the haploid and diploid forms are similar in external appearance are said to have ______ generations.

A

isomorphic

523
Q

One clear evolutionary trend in the vascular plants is the increasing dominance of:

A

the sporophyte.

524
Q

Which of the following statements about phylum Anthophyta is FALSE?

A

The two major classes are the monocots and dicots.

525
Q

Which of the following statements about myco-heterotrophic plants is FALSE?

A

They form haustoria with their host plant.

526
Q

In a myco-heterotrophic relationship, the ______ transfers carbohydrates to the _______.

A

fungus; myco-heterotroph

527
Q

The pedicel of a flower is:

A

the stalk of a flower in an inflorescence.

528
Q

The fertile parts of a flower are the:

A

carpels and stamens.

529
Q

The perianth consists of all the ______ of a flower.

A

sepals and petals

530
Q

Which of the following statements about a stamen is FALSE?

A

It is part of the gynoecium.

531
Q

The gynoecium consists of all the ______ of a flower.

A

carpels

532
Q

The portion of a carpel that encloses the ovules is the:

A

ovary.

533
Q

The style connects the _____ to the ______.

A

ovary; stigma

534
Q

In axile placentation, the ovules are borne:

A

on a central column of tissue in a partitioned ovary.

535
Q

A perfect flower contains:

A

carpels and stamens.

536
Q

A monoecious species has:

A

staminate and carpellate flowers on the same plant.

537
Q

A flower that has only stamens and petals is:

A

imperfect and incomplete.

538
Q

An example of connation is the union of stamens with:

A

other stamens.

539
Q

By definition, a flower with a aposepalous calyx has:

A

sepals not joined together.

540
Q

In flowers with sepals, petals, and stamens attached below the ovary, the ovary is said to be:

A

superior.

541
Q

All bilaterally symmetrical flowers are:

A

irregular.

542
Q

In angiosperms, the mature female gametophyte consists of _____ cells.

A

7

543
Q

In angiosperms, the ovary develops into a(n):

A

fruit.

544
Q

The innermost layer of the pollen sac wall is the:

A

tapetum.

545
Q

Microsporocytes divide by ______, forming ______.

A

meiosis; haploid microspores

546
Q

Which of the following statements concerning pollen grain apertures is FALSE?

A

They are located in the intine.

547
Q

Sporopollenin is the primary constituent of the:

A

exine.

548
Q

When the microspore of an angiosperm divides, it gives rise directly to:

A

a generative cell and a tube cell.

549
Q

A polymer in the _____ protects the pollen grain against UV radiation, dehydration, and pathogen attack.

A

exine

550
Q

Which of the following statements about pollen grains is FALSE?

A

They are poorly represented in the fossil record.

551
Q

About 70% of living angiosperms have a(n) _______ type of megasporogenesis and megagametogenesis.

A

Polygonum

552
Q

In the most common pattern of embryo sac development in angiosperms, how many nuclei end up at the chalazal end?

A

3

553
Q

______ are found at the chalazal end of the embryo sac.

A

Antipodals

554
Q

In embryo sac development, the egg apparatus contains the egg cell and the:

A

synergids.

555
Q

In the center of the embryo sac are the:

A

polar nuclei.

556
Q

The mature female gametophyte is called a(n):

A

embryo sac.

557
Q

The mature megagametophyte consists of ______ nuclei and _____ cells.

A

8; 7

558
Q

In the process of pollination, the:

A

pollen passes from the anther to a stigma.

559
Q

Which of the following statements concerning transmitting tissue is FALSE?

A

It is classified as being either wet or dry.

560
Q

________ mark the pathways of sperm cell and sperm nucleus migrations within the ovule.

A

Actin “coronas”

561
Q

In the process of double fertilization, one sperm fuses with the ______, and the other sperm fuses with the ______.

A

egg; polar nuclei

562
Q

In most angiosperms, the primary endosperm nucleus is:

A

3n.

563
Q

The process of double fertilization occurs:

A

only in angiosperms, Ephedra, and Gnetum.

564
Q

The function of the endosperm is to provide ______ for the embryo.

A

food

565
Q

In some angiosperms, the food store of the seed is perisperm derived from the:

A

nucellus.

566
Q

Unlike gymnosperms, the stored food in angiosperms is:

A

formed after fertilization.

567
Q

As the seed develops, the ovary wall becomes the:

A

pericarp.

568
Q

Angiosperms first appear in the fossil record in the ______ period.

A

Cretaceous

569
Q

The most recent evidence indicates that:

A

The angiosperms have close relatives among the living gymnosperms.

570
Q

Which of the following is NOT a unique characteristic of the angiosperms?

A

Stamens with four pairs of pollen sacs

571
Q

The monocots and eudicots comprise approximately _____ percent of living angiosperms.

A

97

572
Q

Which of the following do NOT have single-pored pollen?

A

eudicots

573
Q

Which of the following statements concerning Amborella is FALSE?

A

It belongs to the Mesangiospermae.

574
Q

Which of the following is NOT a characteristic of Archaefructus?

A

petals

575
Q

The original angiosperms most likely:

A

had simple flowers.

576
Q

In most angiosperms, petals are probably evolutionary derivatives of:

A

stamens.

577
Q

In contrast to living angiosperms, the stamens of archaic angiosperms:

A

are colored and fleshy.

578
Q

In archaic angiosperms, the carpels:

A

are leaflike.

579
Q

Which of the following is NOT an evolutionary trend among flowers?

A

from an inferior ovary to a superior ovary

580
Q

Ray flowers and disk flowers are characteristic of the:

A

Asteraceae.

581
Q

The largest angiosperm family is the:

A

Orchidaceae.

582
Q

The pollinium consists of the:

A

contents of an anther.

583
Q

Which of the following was NOT an evolutionary adaptation of angiosperms in response to insects?

A

unisexual flowers

584
Q

The most important flower-visiting animals in angiosperm evolution are:

A

bees.

585
Q

Which of the following is NOT an example of coevolution of bees and flowers?

A

Flowers pollinated by bees are usually red.

586
Q

Flowers with a long corolla tube are most likely pollinated by:

A

moths.

587
Q

Which of the following statements concerning pollination by “deception” is FALSE?

A

“Sex-deception” occurs exclusively in the grasses.

588
Q

Most flowers pollinated by birds:

A

are red or yellow.

589
Q

Which of the following statements about most bat-pollinated flowers is FALSE?

A

They are relatively odorless.

590
Q

Flowers pollinated by ______ are most likely to produce no nectar, have dull colors, are relatively small, and have the sexes separated on the same plant.

A

wind

591
Q

The red, orange, and yellow pigments of flowers are:

A

carotenoids.

592
Q

The most important pigments in floral coloration are:

A

flavonoids.

593
Q

The red and blue pigments stored in vacuoles in flowers are:

A

anthocyanins.

594
Q

______ are flavonoids that vary in color with the pH of the cell sap.

A

Anthocyanins

595
Q

Ultraviolet absorbance in flowers is related to the presence of:

A

flavonoids.

596
Q

The red color of beets is due to the presence of:

A

betacyanins.

597
Q

By definition an accessory fruit develops from:

A

an ovary plus additional flower parts.

598
Q

By definition, a parthenocarpic fruit lacks:

A

stamens.

599
Q

Apples and pears are:

A

simple accessory fruits.

600
Q

A simple fruit in which the inner layer of the fruit wall is fleshy is a(n):

A

berry.

601
Q

A simple fruit in which the fleshy portion is derived largely from the base of the perianth is a(n):

A

pome.

602
Q

By definition, an indehiscent fruit:

A

does not break open at maturity.

603
Q

The fruit characteristic of the pea family is a(n):

A

legume.

604
Q

Which of the following is NOT an indehiscent fruit?

A

capsule

605
Q

The grains typical of the grass family are a type of fruit known as a:

A

caryopsis.

606
Q

A _______, characteristic of the pea family and others, splits open at maturity into two or more one-seeded portions.

A

caryopsis

607
Q

Which of the following is NOT an adaptation specific to wind-borne fruits or seeds?

A

tissue with large air spaces

608
Q

In ______, the seeds are shot aloft from the plant.

A

Impatiens

609
Q

The function of elaiosomes is to:

A

provide food for ants.

610
Q

What is the apparent function of most secondary plant products?

A

restricting the palatability of the plant to herbivores

611
Q

A relationship between plants of the mustard family Brassicaceae and larvae of the butterfly family Pierinae has developed such that the larvae:

A

feed only on those plants.

612
Q

Which of the following statements about the coevolution of angiosperms and insects is FALSE?

A

Many of the possible coevolution variants have evolved only once within a particular plant family.

613
Q

A plant’s body plan consists of a(n) ______ and a(n) ______ pattern.

A

apical-basal; radial

614
Q

When the zygote first divides, the two daughter cells are the ______ cell and the ______ cell.

A

apical; basal

615
Q

Located at the micropylar pole of the embryo is the:

A

basal cell.

616
Q

Which of the following statements about the polarity of an embryo is FALSE?

A

It is established only after the zygote has divided.

617
Q

Which primary meristem forms first?

A

protoderm

618
Q

Which of the following statements concerning primary meristems is FALSE?

A

An example is the suspensor.

619
Q

The procambium is the precursor of the:

A

xylem and phloem.

620
Q

During early embryogenesis, the ground meristem surrounds the:

A

procambium.

621
Q

Which of following lists the correct developmental sequence in eudicots, where I is the globular stage; II, the heart stage; III, the proembryo; IV, the torpedo stage; and V, the zygote?

A

V, III, I, II, IV

622
Q

In embryogenesis in monocots, globular embryos next become:

A

cylindrical.

623
Q

The root and shoot apical meristems first become discernible during the transition between the ______ and ______.

A

globular stage; torpedo stage

624
Q

The cotyledons elongate most dramatically and may become curved during the _______ stage.

A

torpedo

625
Q

Where does the shoot apical meristem arise in eudicot embryos?

A

between the two cotyledons

626
Q

Normal development of the ______ prevents formation of extra embryos by the ______.

A

embryo proper; suspensor

627
Q

During embryogenesis in Arabidopsis, mutants with the twn mutation:

A

form secondary embryos from the suspensor.

628
Q

In Arabidopsis, embryonic development is thought to be coordinated by at least ______ distinct genes.

A

750

629
Q

The stem-like axis above the cotyledon(s) is the:

A

epicotyl.

630
Q

Which of the following CANNOT be part of the plumule?

A

radicle

631
Q

In some embryos, below the hypocotyl the _________ is found.

A

radicle

632
Q

In eudicots, in which most of the endosperm is absorbed by the embryo, the cotyledons:

A

are large and fleshy.

633
Q

The cotyledon of grasses is called a(n):

A

scutellum.

634
Q

In monocots, the cotyledon can have all of the following functions EXCEPT:

A

protection of the plumule.

635
Q

In a grass embryo, the coleorhiza encloses the:

A

radicle.

636
Q

The integuments develop into the:

A

seed coat.

637
Q

Which of the following statements about the seed coat is FALSE?

A

It develops from the ovary.

638
Q

In grasses, the pericarp consists of the:

A

mature ovary and remnants of the seed coat only.

639
Q

The scar left on the seed coat after the seed has separated from its stalk is called the:

A

hilum.

640
Q

Which of the following statements concerning the maturation phase of seed development is FALSE?

A

Cell division in the embryo accelerates.

641
Q

Which of the following events is NOT associated with seed germination?

A

synthesis of food reserves

642
Q

When the seed coat is ruptured during germination, the seed:

A

switches to aerobic respiration.

643
Q

A quiescent seed is different from a dormant seed in that a quiescent seed will germinate:

A

when hydrated.

644
Q

Which of the following would not typically cause coat-imposed dormancy?

A

prevention of the release of growth promoters from the seed

645
Q

Embryo dormancy would typically be caused by:

A

an increase in abscisic acid concentrations.

646
Q

The process of after-ripening involves:

A

enzymatic modification of a dormant seed so that it will germinate.

647
Q

In temperate regions of the world, after-ripening is triggered by:

A

low temperature.

648
Q

What induces the seeds of manzanita and other plants of the California chaparral to germinate?

A

fire

649
Q

The ______ is usually the first structure to emerge from a germinating seed.

A

root

650
Q

In monocots, the root system commonly develops from:

A

stem-borne roots.

651
Q

In epigeous germination, which structure emerges above ground first?

A

hypocotyl

652
Q

In the pea (Pisum sativum), the ______ forms the hook that pushes to the soil surface during seed germination.

A

epicotyl

653
Q

Which of the following statements about seed germination in onion (Allium cepa) is FALSE?

A

Germination is hypogeous.

654
Q

In maize (Zea mays), the first structure to emerge from the seed during germination is the:

A

coleorhiza.

655
Q

Which of the following statements about the shoot and root apical meristems is FALSE?

A

They lose the potential to divide soon after embryogenesis is complete.

656
Q

In contrast to derivatives, initials:

A

give rise to more initials and derivatives.

657
Q

Which of the following statements about primary growth is FALSE?

A

It results in the thickening of the stem and root.

658
Q

When a botanist uses the word “indeterminate,” she is referring to the:

A

unlimited growth of the apical meristems.

659
Q

Most of the growth of a plant body is the result of:

A

cell enlargement.

660
Q

Morphogenesis refers to:

A

the acquisition of a particular shape.

661
Q

The developmental fate of a plant cell is determined mostly by:

A

its final position.

662
Q

____________ refers to the phenomenon whereby a cell becomes increasingly committed to a course of development that weakens its ability to resume growth.

A

Determination

663
Q

The three tissue systems of vascular plants are:

A

the dermal, vascular, and ground tissue systems.

664
Q

From which primary meristem does sclerenchyma develop?

A

ground meristem

665
Q

In a eudicot stem, ______ is the ground tissue external to the system of vascular strands and ______ is the ground tissue internal to these strands.

A

cortex; pith

666
Q

______ is a simple tissue, and ______ is a complex tissue.

A

Collenchyma; xylem

667
Q

The rays found in secondary vascular tissue consist of:

A

parenchyma cells.

668
Q

Which of the following statements about parenchyma cells is FALSE?

A

They lack secondary walls.

669
Q

Cells that are totipotent, play an important role in wound healing, and initiate adventitious structures are:

A

parenchyma cells.

670
Q

The role of transfer cells is to:

A

facilitate the movement of solutes over short distances.

671
Q

______ tissue is composed of cells having unevenly thickened primary walls.

A

Collenchyma

672
Q

______ is the typical supporting tissue of growing stems, leaves, and floral parts.c

A

Collenchyma

673
Q

Which of the following statements about sclerenchyma cells is FALSE?

A

They strengthen plant parts that are still elongating.

674
Q

The two types of ______ cells are fibers and sclereids.

A

sclerenchyma

675
Q

______ are types of tracheary elements.

A

Vessel elements and tracheids

676
Q

Perforation plates are characteristic of the ______ of ______.

A

vessel elements; angiosperms

677
Q

One role of pit membranes in tracheids is to:

A

trap air bubbles.

678
Q

By definition, metaxylem is ______ protoxylem.

A

formed after

679
Q

An example of programmed cell death is the differentiation of:

A

tracheary elements.

680
Q

In vascular plants, food is conducted through:

A

sieve cells and sieve-tube elements only.

681
Q

Which of the following statements about sieve cells is FALSE?

A

They are interconnected to form sieve tubes.

682
Q

Callose is a ______ deposited in the ______ of sieve elements.

A

carbohydrate; pores

683
Q

A cell that is alive at maturity but lacks a nucleus and certain organelles is the:

A

sieve element.

684
Q

During the differentiation of sieve-tube elements, which of the following does not disintegrate?

A

endoplasmic reticulum

685
Q

Which of the following statements about P-protein is FALSE?

A

In undisturbed cells, it plugs the sieve-plate pores.

686
Q

Which of the following statements about forisomes is FALSE?

A

They seal the sieve-plate pores in undisturbed sieve tubes.

687
Q

The parenchyma cells that are developmentally related to the ______ of angiosperms are called ______.

A

sieve-tube elements; companion cells

688
Q

The _____ is thought to supply the sieve-tube element with essential molecules.

A

companion cell

689
Q

Albuminous cells are thought to have the same function as:

A

companion cells.

690
Q

Which of the following statements concerning the epidermis is FALSE?

A

Stomata are epidermal cells.

691
Q

Stomata are the ______ between ______.

A

pores; guard cells

692
Q

A subsidiary cell is most closely associated with which of the following?

A

guard cells

693
Q

Which of the following is NOT a function of trichomes?

A

providing structural support

694
Q

Which of the following is NOT part of the periderm?

A

phelloderm

695
Q

The cork cambium produces ______ on its outer surface and ______ on its inner surface.

A

cork; phelloderm

696
Q

When a seed germinates, the __________ is the first structure to emerge.

A

root

697
Q

The two primary functions of roots are:

A

anchorage and absorption.

698
Q

Which of the following statements concerning roots is FALSE?

A

Some roots contain an internal rhizosphere.

699
Q

The rhizosphere is the volume of:

A

soil around the root.

700
Q

In gymnosperms and eudicots, the primary root is called the:

A

taproot.

701
Q

Which of the following statements about monocot roots is FALSE?

A

The main root system has one prominent root.

702
Q

Which of the following statements about feeder roots is FALSE?

A

They are usually found in the lower 15 centimeters of soil.

703
Q

After you transplant a shrub, which of the following is the more effective next step you should do to increase the chances that the shrub will survive?

A

Cut back the shoot.

704
Q

Which of the following statements about the rootcap is FALSE?

A

Its peripheral cells are not replaced.

705
Q

Which of the following statements about border cells is FALSE?

A

They produce a similar array of proteins during their lifetime.

706
Q

Gravity- and water-potential gradients are perceived by the:

A

lateral rootcap.

707
Q

The promeristem of the root:

A

is the most distal part of the apical meristem.

708
Q

In a “closed type” of root apical organization, the:

A

rootcap, vascular cylinder, and cortex each have their own initials.

709
Q

Which of the following statements about the quiescent center is FALSE?

A

It is located a short distance behind the apical meristem.

710
Q

The sequence of regions in a growing root, beginning immediately behind the rootcap, is:

A

cell division, elongation, maturation.

711
Q

Root hairs are produced in the:

A

region of maturation.

712
Q

Protophloem and protoxylem mature in the:

A

region of elongation.

713
Q

The ______ occupies the greatest area of the primary root.

A

cortex

714
Q

Aerenchyma is found in the:

A

cortex

715
Q

Substances moving through the root cortex:

A

follow both symplastic and apoplastic pathways.

716
Q

The innermost layer of the cortex is the:

A

endodermis.

717
Q

Which of the following statements about Casparian strips is FALSE?

A

They are permeable to water but not to ions.

718
Q

The presence of Casparian strips forces substances entering and leaving the vascular cylinder to pass through the protoplasts of ______ cells.

A

endodermal

719
Q

Suberin lamellae, such as those found in some older roots, are alternating layers of:

A

suberin and wax.

720
Q

Endodermal cells that do not become suberized in older roots are called ______ cells.

A

passage

721
Q

Which of the following statements about the exodermis is FALSE?

A

It is part of the epidermis.

722
Q

The outermost layer of a root’s vascular cylinder is the:

A

pericycle.

723
Q

At the center of most eudicot roots is:

A

metaxylem.

724
Q

The protoxylem poles are located next to the:

A

pericycle.

725
Q

Primary phloem is located between the:

A

xylem ridges.

726
Q

In the center of maize roots is:

A

a pith.

727
Q

The vascular cambium is initiated by cells:

A

between the primary xylem and primary phloem.

728
Q

In roots, the vascular cambium arises from the:

A

procambium and pericycle only.

729
Q

s the vascular cambium continues to divide during secondary growth of the root, most of the primary phloem:

A

is crushed.

730
Q

In roots, cork cambium arises in the:

A

pericycle.

731
Q

Immediately inside the cells of the cork cambium is:

A

phelloderm.

732
Q

If you placed your hand on the outer surface of a root that is one meter in diameter, you would be touching:

A

cork.

733
Q

In a woody root one meter in diameter, which tissue would NOT be present

A

epidermis

734
Q

In angiosperms, cells of the ______ and the ______ contribute to lateral root formation.

A

endodermis; pericycle

735
Q

A stilt root is an example of a(n):

A

aerial root.

736
Q

A pneumatophore is:

A

negatively gravitropic.

737
Q

Velamen is a(n):

A

multiple epidermis.

738
Q

Which of the following statements about supernumerary cambia in sugarbeet roots is FALSE?

A

They produce phloem toward the inside and xylem toward the outside.

739
Q

Which of the following is(are) NOT produced by the shoot apical meristem?

A

a protective covering

740
Q

Which of the following is NOT part of a phytomere?

A

apical meristem

741
Q

Which of the following statements about cells of the tunica is FALSE?

A

They form four layers in most angiosperms.

742
Q

In the angiosperm shoot apex, the corpus and overlying tunica constitute the:

A

central zone.

743
Q

In Arabidopsis, the protoderm originates from the:

A

outermost tunica layer.

744
Q

Which of the following statements about the Tilia stem is FALSE?

A

The xylem is located outside the phloem.

745
Q

In the Sambucus stem, phloem differentiates toward the ______ and xylem differentiates toward the ______.

A

outside; center

746
Q

Which of the following statements about the Ranunculus stem is FALSE?

A

It has a vascular cambium.

747
Q

______ has a stem with scattered vascular bundles.

A

Zea

748
Q

Extensions of vascular tissues into the leaves from the stem are called:

A

leaf traces.

749
Q

A leaf trace extends between the leaf and a:

A

stem bundle.

750
Q

A sessile leaf, by definition, lacks a ______.

A

petiole.

751
Q

In most monocots, the base of the leaf is expanded into a ______.

A

sheath.

752
Q

A leaf having a rachis is a ______ leaf.

A

pinnately compound

753
Q

Plants that are characterized as xerophytes:

A

are adapted to dry habitats.

754
Q

Which of the following statements about the leaf epidermis is FALSE?

A

Its cells are loosely arranged.

755
Q

Which of the following statements about palisade parenchyma is FALSE?

A

It is usually located on the lower side of the leaf.

756
Q

Unlike the leaves of eudicots, most monocot leaves:

A

have parallel venation.

757
Q

Which of the following statements about bundle-sheath extensions is FALSE?

A

They interconnect all the bundle sheaths in a leaf.

758
Q

Unlike C3 grasses, C4 grasses have leaves:

A

with mesophyll and bundle-sheath cells in two concentric layers.

759
Q

Which of the following statements about bulliform cells is FALSE?

A

They are large mesophyll cells.

760
Q

Which layer(s) of the peripheral zone of the shoot apical meristem are the founder cells?

A

L1, L2, and L3

761
Q

Unlike the midrib, the leaf blade develops from:

A

marginal meristems.

762
Q

In leaves, intercalary growth occurs by:

A

cell division and cell enlargement throughout the blade.

763
Q

In eudicots, the major veins develop toward the ______ and the minor veins develop toward the ______.

A

leaf margins; leaf base

764
Q

In grass leaves, the midvein and other large longitudinal strands arise at the _____ of the primordium and develop _____.

A

base; both upward and downward

765
Q

Compared with sun leaves, shade leaves:

A

have a lower ratio of mesophyll surface area to leaf blade surface area.

766
Q

Which of the following events is NOT associated with leaf abscission?

A

Return of reusable substances to the leaf

767
Q

Which of the following statements about the transition region and its formation is FALSE?

A

Vascular transition is initiated soon after seed germination.

768
Q

Which of the following events does NOT occur in a shoot apex during flower development?

A

A change from determinate to indeterminate growth

769
Q

he homeotic mutation that results in “double flowers” in some rose varieties causes ______ to be converted into ______.

A

stamens; petals

770
Q

Studies of Arabidopsis mutants have identified classes of ______ that affect the identity of floral organs.

A

homeotic genes

771
Q

The studies of homeotic mutations in Arabidopsis initially identified _____ classes of genes essential to normal flower development, but this model has recently been expanded to ____ gene classes.

A

3; 5

772
Q

Most tendrils are modified:

A

leaves.

773
Q

A spine is a modified:

A

leaf.

774
Q

A prickle is a modification of:

A

the epidermis.

775
Q

The edible portion of an Irish potato is a:

A

tuber.

776
Q

A stolon is different from a rhizome in that a stolon:

A

grows aboveground.

777
Q

A bulb is different from a corm in that a bulb:

A

stores food in its leaves.

778
Q

When you eat celery and rhubarb you are eating:

A

petioles.

779
Q

A succulent leaf is one that is specialized for:

A

water storage.