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Psych 1000 > Final > Flashcards

Final Flashcards

30% 100 Q 3 hrs

1
Q

*How does Freud’s psychoanalytic theory view personality?

What inspired this?

A

They see personality as a dynamic energy system, where there are modifications and exchanges of this energy— inspired by the hydraulics system– which constantly presses for either direct or indirect release.

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2
Q

What two common observations of humanity give rise to the concept of personality?

A
  1. Individuality – the vast spectrum of human Individuality

2. Consistency–people also behave somewhat consistently across situations

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3
Q

What 3 standards are used to evaluate the usefulness of a personality theory?

A
  1. incorporates known facts
  2. allows us to predict future events
  3. stimulates discovery of new knowledge
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4
Q

What clinical phenomena convinced Freud of the power of the unconscious mind?

A

Conversion Hysteria. These patients would experience physical symptoms (e.g. paralysis, blindness) without any external stimuli meaning it must have been initiated by memories.

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5
Q

*What are the 3 minds mental events may be manifested in?

A

Conscious mind: mental events we are presently aware of
Preconscious mind: memories, feelings, thoughts and images that we’re unaware of at the moment but can be called into conscious awareness
Unconscious mind: wishes, feelings, infantile memories, and impulses that lie beyond our awareness. Discharged by dreams, slips of tongue, or disguised behaviour.

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6
Q

*Explain the 3 structures that Freud divided the personality into.
Why is the ego referred to as the executive of the personality?

A

Id: irrational, seeks immediate instinctual gratification on the basis of the pleasure principle.

Ego: tests reality at a conscious level to decide when the id can safely discharge its impulses – based on the reality principle.
- “executive of personality” because it mediates/balances demands of id, constraints/counter-forces of superego, and demands of reality –> why it’s dynamic personality

Superego: the moral arm of the personality

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7
Q

*How and why do defence mechanisms develop?

A

When dangerous id impulses threaten to get out of control or when danger from the environment threatens, the result is anxiety.
When realistic strategies for reducing anxiety are ineffective, the ego may resort to Defence Mechanisms that deny or distort reality.

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8
Q

Explain the psychoanalytic ego defence mechanism Repression

A

Repression – anxiety-arousing memories are pushed into unconscious mind (ex. person develop amnesia for the event)

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9
Q

Explain the psychoanalytic ego defence mechanism Denial

A

Denial – person refuses to acknowledge the anxiety-arousing aspects (emotions or the event) of environment. (ex, cancer patient refuses to consider possibility of him not recovering)

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10
Q

Explain the psychoanalytic ego defence mechanism Displacement

A

Displacement – Impulse is repressed and then directed at a substitute target (ex, guy hates his boss but experiences no anger at work, but goes home and abuses children)

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11
Q

Explain the psychoanalytic ego defence mechanism Intellectualization

A

Intellectualization – the emotion connected to an upsetting event is repressed, and the situation is instead dealt with as an interesting intellectual event (ex, guy just gets broken up with: “crazy how unpredictable love is”)

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12
Q

Explain the psychoanalytic ego defence mechanism Projection

A

Projection – an unacceptable impulse is repressed and then projected onto other people (ex, woman accuses husband of having an affair because of her desires to. Or like she doesn’t like boss, but she thinks she likes him and he doesn’t like her)

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13
Q

Explain the psychoanalytic ego defence mechanism Rationalization

A

Rationalization – person constructs a false but plausible explanation for their anxiety-arousing behaviour or past event (ex, girl gets caught cheating on exam: “that profs exams are unfair and plus everyone else was cheating too”)

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14
Q

Explain the psychoanalytic ego defence mechanism Reaction Formation

A

Reaction Formation– an anxiety-arousing impulse is repressed, but must be released so released in exaggerated opposite behaviour (ex, mum hates child but becomes overprotective of child)

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15
Q

Explain the psychoanalytic ego defence mechanism Sublimation

A

Sublimation – a repressed impulse is released in the form of a socially acceptable or admired behaviour (ex, man with hostile impulses becomes a reporter who ruins political careers with his stories)

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16
Q

*What does Freud’s psychosexual theory of personality development say?
What happens if there is deprivation or excessive gratification during a stage of psychosexual development?

A

Adult personality is moulded by how them as children dealt with instinctual sexual id urges.

if deprivation: Fixation at that stage occurs and instincts stay focused on that stage’s erogenous zone.

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17
Q

*How did neoanalytic theorists like Carl Jung modify and extend Freud’s ideas of the psychoanalytic theory?
What’s animus and anima?

Go to slide 31 of ppt on Personality and see Jung’s stages

A

They stressed the importance of social and cultural factors in personality development and dynamics. and that he stressed infantile sexuality + childhood experiences too much – personality development continues throughout life.
Carl Jung extended the unconscious mind to a personal unconscious (based on life experiences) and a collective unconscious (memories (ARCHETYPES) accumulated throughout whole human race– shared by all individuals!).
- animus: the unconscious masculine side of a woman
- anima: unconscious feminine side of a man

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18
Q

*What is the focus of the object relations approach of Freud’s psychoanalytic theory?

A

Melanie Kline (Object Relations Theorists) focus on the mental representations that people form of themselves, others, and relationships (whether realistic or distorted)

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19
Q

*What do the Humanistic Theories emphasize?

A

humanistic theories emphasize the Subjective experiences of the individual and thus deal with perceptual and cognitive processes.

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20
Q

*What is self-actualization?

A

Self-actualization is viewed as an innate positive force that leads people to realize their positive potential, if not thwarted by the environment

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21
Q

*What is the central concept of Carl Rogers’s theory?

A
  • Focuses on the role of the self (a consistent set of perceptions of and beliefs about oneself). –> termed Self-Concept now – there’s Self-Consistency
  • experiences that are incongruous with the established self-concept produce threat and may result in a denial or distortion of reality (because it threatens our Congruence)
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22
Q

*Explain what Rogers means by the Need for Positive Regard

A
  • he viewed positive regard (from others and themselves) as essential for healthy development
  • unconditional positive regard is received from parents
  • conditional positive regard (=dependent on how you are) may result in realistic conditions of worth that can conflict with self-actualization
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23
Q

*What do trait theorists do?

A

Try to identify and measure the basic dimensions of personality. They want a smaller number of basic traits that can capture personal individuality. Cattell suggested 16 basic traits, but they want less.

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24
Q

*What were Eysenck’s 3 major dimensions of his theory of personality?

A

Extraversion-Introversion
Stability-Instability
Psychotism (creativity, social deviance) -Self Control

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25
Q

*Have traits been proven to be highly consistent across situations?

A

No. Individuals tend to differ in their self-monitoring tendencies and this influences the amount of consistency they exhibit across different social situations.
+ Traits interact with one another and the environment – creating more inconsistency

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26
Q

*In Eysenck’s theory, what are the biological bases for individual differences in the traits: Extraversion and Stability?

A

nervous system (brain arousal), the contribution of genetic factors, possibly the role of evolution in development of universal human traits.

There is genetic contribution to personality. (ex, identical twins, no matter their nurture or if separated, they’ll have very similar personalities)

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27
Q

*What do social cognitive theories pay attention to?

A

Social cognitive theories are concerned with how social relationships, learning mechanisms, and cognitive processes jointly contribute to behaviour

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28
Q

*How does reciprocal determinism apply to an individual’s personality pattern? Specify the two-way causal links.

A

The person, the person’s behaviour, and the environment all influence one another in a pattern of two-way causal links.

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29
Q

**Define Rotter’s concepts of expectancy and the reinforcement value, and explain how they jointly influence behaviour.

A

Rotter viewed behaviour as influenced by expectancies (our perception of how likely it is that a certain consequence will occur if we engage) and the reinforcement value (how much we desire or dread the outcome) of potential outcomes.

Rotter= Social learning

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30
Q

*Describe Rotter’s concept of locus of control and how it affects behaviour.

A

Concept of locus is an Expectancy (from the model) concerning the degree of personal control we have in our lives.
People with an internal locus of control believe that life outcomes are largely under personal control and depend on their own behaviour
People with an external locus of control believe that their fate has more to do with the influence of external factors (ie, chance) than with their own efforts.

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31
Q

Define self-efficacy. What four sources/types of information influence efficacy beliefs?

A

Bandura’s concept of self-efficacy relates to our self-perceived ability to carry out the behaviours necessary to achieve goals in a particular situation.
4 important determinants have been identified to create difference in self-efficacy (aka, can increase or decrease it):
- previous performance attainments in similar situations
- observational learning (observing others and their outcomes)
- verbal persuasion (en/discouraging messages from others)
- emotional arousal that is interpreted as either enthusiasm or anxiety

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32
Q

What are projective tests?

A

Tests that present ambiguous stimuli to subjects so that they can make interpretations of it that can cue internal stimuli. (ex, the inkblot test)

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33
Q

How do radical behaviourists see personality?

A

view Personality as a collection of “response tendencies”.

And they ignore internal factors

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34
Q

What are the TWO COMPLIMENTARY PROCESSES IN DEVELOPMENT & SELF- ACTUALIZATION?

A
  1. Individuation (discovering and differentiating
    the various aspects in the personality: animus, persona, shadow – each aspect is individuated)
  2. Transcendent Function (integrates the various individuated aspects into a single unified Self)
  • they both function simultaneously but individuation is first. Happens during YOUNG ADULTHOOD (teen-40). This is when personality is developed.
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35
Q

What does Jung say about Synchronicity?

A

Because we all have that collective unconscious, coincidences are indications that were all connected.

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36
Q

How did Rogers define psychological adjustment?

What does it mean to be Incongruent?

A

The degree of congruence between your experience and self-concept match up.
Your true self, ideal self and self-image are not aligned.

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37
Q

Describe 3 ways theorists have defined the term stress.

A
  • a stimulus (aka, a stressor)
  • a response (aka, a feeling of stress)
  • an organism-environment interaction (aka, a transaction)
    - predicts individual differences in response to stressors
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38
Q

What is a stressor?

How is the stressfulness of a situation defined?

A

stressors = events that place psychological or physical demands
The balance btwn demands and resources determines how stressful a situation is.

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39
Q

what 4 types of appraisal occur in response to a potential stressor?
How do these correspond to primary and secondary appraisal?

A

People appraise…
1. the nature of the demands (primary)
2. the resources available to deal with them (secondary)
3. their possible consequences
4. the personal meaning of these consequences
Distortions at any of these levels can result in inappropriate stress responses.

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40
Q

What is the physiological response to stressors mediated by?

A

response to stressors are mediated the autonomic and endocrine systems, and involves a pattern of arousal that mobilizes the body to deal

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41
Q

Describe the 3 stages of Seyle’s GAS

A

General Adaptation Syndrome describes the changes that occur during chronic stress.

  1. Alarm rxn
    - stress response is activated (shift to sympathetic)
  2. Resistance
    • bodily resources are mobilized to allow you to function despite the stress (NE and cortisol released from adrenal glands)
  3. Exhaustion
    • resources are depleted and stress-induced illness occurs (adrenal glands can’t function properly)
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42
Q

Differentiate btwn vulnerability and protective factors.

A

Vulnerability factors increase people’s susceptibility to stressful events (lack of protective factors)
Protective factors are resources that help people cope more effectively with stressful events.
- social support, coping skills, personality factors (ie, optimism)

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43
Q

What 3 C beliefs underlie the protective factor called hardiness?

A

Hardy individuals are characterized by Commitment (and believe what they’re doing is important), feelings of personal Control, and a tendency to perceive stress situations as a Challenge

44
Q

Define, and give examples, of the 3 major classes of coping strategies

A
  1. Problem-focused coping: attempt to confront and deal directly with the demands of the situation, or change the situation to make it no longer stressful (ex, studying for a test).
  2. Emotion-focused coping strategies: attempt to manage the emotional responses that result from the stress (ex, avoidance or acceptance of the stressful situation… go to a party and forget about test, or a man diagnosed with cancer accepts it) – used a lot for situations of low personal control
  3. Seeking social support: turning to others for assistance and emotional support
45
Q

How do gender and cultural factors affect the tendency to use particular coping strategies?

A

Men tend to use problem-focused coping more, while women tend to use social support and emotion-focused coping.
Those in collectivist cultures (Asian, Hispanic) tend to favour social support and emotion-focused coping.

46
Q

Describe the transtheoretical model and the rationale for stage-matched interventions.

A

The transtheoretical model identifies six stages that people may move through during the process of successful long-term behavioural change:
- precontemplation (unrecognized)–> contemplation –> preparation –> action –> maintenance –> termination.

This model has inspired stage-matched interventions focused on the individual’s current stage, with the intent of moving the person to the action, and ultimately termination stage.

47
Q

What factors predict dropout and compliance for exercise?

A

People who are able to persist for 3-6 months are likely to continue.
+ attitudes, social

48
Q

What are the major behaviour-change techniques used in behavioural weight control programs?

A

They feature self-monitoring, stimulus control procedures, and eating procedures designed to help people eat less but enjoy it more.

49
Q

Summarize the outcomes of a program directed at homosexual men. How do cultural factors influence outcomes?

A

Behavioural changes have been accomplished in homosexual populations.
Cultural factors sometimes conflict with safe sex practices, increasing the challenges of reducing health-endangering behaviours.

50
Q

What is motivational interviewing?

A

A nonconfrontational procedure designed to engage the person’s own motivation to change self-defeating behaviours.

51
Q

What kinds of behaviour-change procedures are employed in multimodal treatments for substance abuse?

A

aversion training, stress-management and coping-skills training, positive reinforcement for change

52
Q

What is the difference between a lapse and a relapse? How does the abstinence violation effect contribute to relapse?

A

Lapse: a one-time “slip” when confronted with a high-risk situation
Relapse: a return to the undesirable behaviour pattern, tends to happen after a lapse
abstinence violation effect: the person becomes upset and self-blaming over failure to remain abstinent and views the lapse as proof that they would never be strong enough to resist temptation

53
Q

What is a harm reduction approach?

A

attempt to reduce the negative consequences that a behaviour produces rather than stopping the behaviour. (ex, the needle exchange programs for drug addicts)

54
Q

What are the 3 Ds that typically underlie judgements that behaviour is abnormal?

A

Abnormality is largely a social judgement. Behaviour that is judged to reflect a psychological disorder typically is

  1. distressing (to person or others)
  2. dysfunctional, maladaptive, or self-defeating
  3. socially deviant in a way that arouses discomfort in others
55
Q

What does the vulnerability-stress model say?

A

each one of us has some degree of vulnerability for developing a psychological disorder, given sufficient stress.

56
Q

What is meant by reliability and validity of diagnostic classification systems?
What is the major psychiatric classification system in North America?

A

DSM-5 has…
Reliability (diagnostic agreement btwn other clinicians using same system)
Validity (the diagnostic categories should accurately capture the essential features of the various disorders.

57
Q

What effects does psychiatric labelling have on social- and self-perceptions?

A

It becomes a description of the individual rather than the behaviour.

58
Q

Differentiate between the legal concepts of competency and insanity.

A

Competency to stand trial means that the individual is in sufficient contact with reality to understand the legal proceedings.
Insanity refers to an inability to appreciate the wrongfulness of one’s act and to control one’s behaviour at the time the crime was committed.

59
Q

Describe the 4 components of anxiety.

A
  1. subjective emotional feelings of tension and discomfort
  2. cognitive processes involving worry, perceptions of threat and lack of control
  3. excessive physiological arousal
  4. behaviours that reflect the anxious state and often are designed to escape or avoid the feared object or situation
60
Q

What is a phobic disorder, and what are the 3 major/common types?

A

Phobic disorder: an irrational fear of a specific object or situation.
Agoraphobia (open places/public); Social Anxiety disorder (situations where person may be embarrassed); Specific Phobias (dogs, snakes, etc.)

61
Q

How does a generalized anxiety disorder differ from a phobic disorder and panic disorder?

A

generalized anxiety disorder (recurrent anxiety reactions that are difficult to link to specific environmental stimuli) – involving chronic tension and anxiety.
Panic disorder= occurs suddenly and unpredictably and they are much more intense

62
Q

Differentiate between obsessions and compulsions. How are they typically related to each other?

A

Obsessions: repetitive, unwelcome thoughts, images or impulses that invade consciousness and are very hard to dismiss or control.
Compulsions: repetitive behavioural responses that can be resisted only with great difficulty (ex, cleaning rituals).
Compulsions are often responses to obsessive thoughts and function to reduce the anxiety associated with the thoughts.

63
Q

How might GABA be related to anxiety disorders?

A

Biological factors in anxiety disorders include both biochemical and genetic processes, possibly involving the action of NTs, such as GABA, within parts of the brain that control emotional arousal.
Abnormally low levels of inhibitory GABA activity in these areas may cause people to have highly reactive nervous systems that quickly produce anxiety responses.

64
Q

How does psychoanalytic theory explain the development of anxiety disorders?

A

they believe that neurotic anxiety results from the inability of the ego’s defences to deal with internal psychological conflicts.

65
Q

How do cognitive factors enter into anxiety disorders, particularly panic disorder?

A

Cognitive distortions, including the tendencies to magnify the degree of threat and danger, and int he case of panic disorder, to misinterpret normal anxiety symptoms in ways that can evoke pain.

66
Q

Explain anxiety disorders in terms of classical conditioning, negative reinforcement, and observational learning.

A

The behavioural perspective views anxiety as a learned response established through classical conditioning or vicarious learning. The avoidance responses in phobias and compulsive disorders are seen as operant responses that are negatively reinforced through anxiety reduction.

67
Q

Describe 4 culture-bound disorders that involve anxiety.

A

Demonstrates the role of sociocultural factors in anxiety disorders.
Koro (fear that his penis will contract into his abdomen and kill him); Taijin Kyofushu (fearful of offending others); Windigo (fear of being possessed by monsters that will turn them into homicidal cannibals); Anorexia Nervosa (fear of getting fat)

68
Q

Describe some of the symptoms and causes of anorexia and bulimia.

A 
Anorexia:
    - symptoms: no more menstruation
    - cause: cultural norms
Bulimia:
    - symptoms: normal body weight, gastric problems, badly eroded teeth, depressed, anxious
    - cause: life stress and guilt
69
Q

Differentiate between major depression and dysthymia.

A

major depression: unable to function effectively due to minor setback or loss (the worst it can be)
dysthymia: more chronic, long-lasting form of misery, occurring for years on end with intervals of normal mood that never last more than a few weeks or months

70
Q

Describe the four classes of symptoms that characterize a) depression and b) mania.

A

depression: emotional (negative emotions), cognitive (negative thoughts), motivational (loss of motivation), somatic (behavioural slowness)
mania= intense mood and behaviour activation.
- the exact opposite symptoms

71
Q

What biochemical processes might underlie depression?

So how do drugs work to relieve depression in relation to this?

A

Link of depression to an underactivity of NTs (NE, dopamine, serotonin) that activate brain areas involved in pleasure and positive motivation.
Drugs that relieve depression increase the activity of these NTs.

72
Q

What evidence is there to support the notion that early losses create a risk-factor for later depression?

A

Traumatic loss early in life creates a personality vulnerability pattern. (psychoanalysis)

73
Q

Describe the a) cognitive triad, and b) depressive attributional pattern described by Beck.
How does Seligman explain the the dramatic increase in depression among people born after 1960?

A

Cognitive triad: negative beliefs about self, world and future
Depressive attributional pattern in which negative outcomes are attributed to personal causes and successes to situational causes.
Seligman’s theory of learned helplessness suggests that attributing negative outcomes to personal, stable and global causes fosters depression. – we’re the “me” generation, so we’re more likely to respond more strongly to to failure

74
Q

What are the two major risk motives and risk factors for suicide?

A

Manipulation and a desire to escape distress.

The risk for suicide increases if the person is depressed and has a lethal plan and a past history of parasuicide.

75
Q

Describe somatic symptom disorders and the varieties.

A

Involve physical complaints that don’t have a physiological explanation.
They include pain disorders, and conversion disorders, in which a physical symptom or disability occurs int he absence of physical pathology.

76
Q

What causal factors might be involved in somatic symptom disorders?

A

Familial similarities may have a biological basis, or they’re a result of environmental shaping through attention and sympathy.
Tend to occur more in cultures that discourage open expression of negative emotions.

77
Q

What is the central feature of dissociative disorders?

Describe the 3 major types.

A

Losses of memory and personal identity.
Dissociative amnesia (selective memory loss),
Dissociative fugue(losses all sense of identity, goes to new location),
Dissociative identity disorder (DID) – aka, multiple personality disorder

78
Q

How does the trauma-dissociation theory account for the development of DID?

A

says that DID emerges when children dissociate to defend themselves from severe physical or sexual abuse.

79
Q

What is meant by the term Schizophrenia?

What is the cognitive feature of this?

A

Schizophrenia is a psychotic disorder featuring disordered thinking and language; poor contact with reality; flat inappropriate emotion; disordered behaviour.
The cognitive portion can involve delusions (false beliefs) and hallucinations (false perceptions)

80
Q

Distinguish between Type 1 and Type 2 schizophrenia.

A

Type 1: predominance of positive symptoms (delusions, hallucinations and disordered speech and thinking).
Type 2: negative symptoms (absence of normal rxns – lack of emotional expression, loss of motivation, absence of normal speech)

81
Q

Describe the genetic and neurological factors in schizophrenia.
What is the dopamine hypothesis?

A

Strong evidence for genetic predisposition, making people vulnerable to stressful life events.
Dopamine hypothesis – schiz involves overactivity of the dopamine system, resulting in too much stimulation

82
Q

What concepts do a)psychoanalytic and b)cognitive theorists use to explain the symptoms of schizophrenia?

A

Psychoanalytic theorists regard schiz as a profound regression to a primitive stage of psychosocial development in response to unbearable stress, particularly in the family.

Cognitive theorists focus on the thought disorder that is central to schiz. They think these people have a defect in their attentional filters, so they’re overwhelmed by internal and external stimuli and become disorganized.

83
Q

Describe the major characteristics of antisocial personality disorder.

A
  • egocentric and manipulative tendency toward immediate self-gratification
  • lack of sympathy for others
  • tendency to act out impulsively
  • failure to profit from punishment

thought to be caused by aggressive, uncaring, deviant models

84
Q

How do psychoanalysts see antisocial personality disorder?

A

failure to develop superego which would have restrained the impulsive self-gratification.

85
Q

What is the major therapeutic goal in psychoanalysis?

How is this done?

A

to help clients achieve insight into the unconscious dynamics that underlie their behaviour disorders so that they can deal adaptively with their current environment.
Done through the therapist’s interpretations of dream content, free associations, resistance, and transference reactions.

86
Q

How do resistance and transference reflect underlying conflicts?

A

Resistance: avoiding patterns, defensive manoeuvres. ex, they’re having trouble answering certain questions. This is a sign that anxiety-arousing sensitive material is being approached.

Transference: the client responds irrationally to the analyst as if they were an important figure from the client’s past. This brings into the open repressed feelings and maladaptive behaviour patterns.

87
Q

How do brief psychodynamic therapies differ from classical psychoanalysis?

A 
Brief psychodynamic therapies also have goals of promoting insight, but they focus on CURRENT life events.
Interpersonal therapy (a type of brief therapy) is a structured therapy that focuses on addressing CURRENT interpersonal problems and enhancing those skills.
88
Q

what is the goal of humanistic therapies?

A

to liberate the client’s natural tendency toward self-actualization by establishing a growth-inducing therapeutic relationship

89
Q

Define 3 important therapist attributes described by Rogers.

A

Rogers’s client-centered therapy emphasizes

  • unconditional positive regard
  • empathy
  • genuineness
90
Q

How is Gestalt therapy derived from Gestalt psychology principles?

A

we learnt that Gestalt refers to the perceptual principle of actively organizing stimulus elements into meaningful “whole” patterns instead of looking at one part.
This therapy aims to remove the blockages in client’s awareness of the wholeness of the immediate experience, by making them aware of their feelings and the ways in which they interact with others.

91
Q

What do ABCD stand for in rational-emotive therapy?

A

focuses on discovering and changing maladaptive beliefs and logical errors of thinking that underlie maladaptive emotional responses and behaviours.
A– activating event that seems to trigger the emotion
B– belief system that underlies the way in which a person appraises the event
C– consequences (emotional and behavioural) of the appraisal
D– disputing (challenging) an erroneous belief system

92
Q

What are the classical conditioning procedures used in exposure therapy?

A

Behavioural treatments based on classical conditioning are directed at modifying emotional responses.
Exposure to a CS and prevention of avoidance responses promote extinction. Exposure through imagination, real life or virtual reality technology.
Operant conditioning works too.

93
Q

What is systematic desensitization?

A

Systematic desensitization is designed to countercondition a response to anxiety-arousing stimuli that is incompatible with anxiety, such as relaxation.

94
Q

How does classical conditioning underlie aversion therapy?

A

Aversion therapy is used to establish a conditioned aversion response to an inappropriate stimulus that attracts the clients.

95
Q

How do token economics work?

A

The token economy is a program designed to strengthen adaptive behaviours through systematic positive reinforcement.

96
Q

Under what conditions is punishment used as a behaviour modification technique?

A

Punishment can be used to reduce destructive behaviours in disturbed children.

97
Q

How is modelling used in social skills training?

A

Helps clients learn and rehearse more effective social behaviours.

98
Q

What skills are found in culturally competent therapists?

What about gender?

A

Culturally competent therapists take into account both cultural and individual factors to understand and treat the client.
Whether the therapist is a man or woman seems less important to outcome than gender sensitivity.

99
Q

Describe Eysenck’s challenge to therapy effectiveness.

A

He stimulated the use of increasingly more sophisticated research methods to evaluate the outcomes of various therapies.

100
Q

What is the most powerful approach to researching the effects of therapy?

A

Randomized Clinical Trials (RCTs)

101
Q

How is meta-analysis used to assess therapy effects?

What have they shown about overall effectiveness and the effects of different forms of therapy?

A

Meta-analysis is a method for combining the results of many studies into an effect size statistic.
Found that overall these treatments work.
Found little difference among various therapies.

102
Q

What client, therapist, and therapy variables are important to treatment outcome?

A

3 sets of interacting factors affect the outcome of treatment:
Client characteristics – nature of problem; client motivation
- success= openness; good match btwn the nature of the problem and the kind of therapy being received; self-relatedness (their ability to experience and understand internal states)
Therapist characteristics – empathy, genuineness, experience
- success= quality of the relationship w/ client
Therapy techniques – timing of interpretations, specific techniques
- faith in therapist, protected environment

103
Q

How do anti-anxiety drugs achieve their effects? Do they have any drawbacks?

A

Binds at specific receptor site and increases the sensitivity of GABA
drawback: psychological and physical dependence from long-term use + anxiety symptoms come back when off the drug
ex, Xanax, Valium

104
Q

How do the 3 classes of antidepressant drugs achieve their effects biologically?
How effective are they compared to/combined with psychotherapy?

A

Tricyclics, Monoamine Oxidase (MAO) Inhibitors, Selective Serotonin Reuptake Inhibitors (SSRIs)

Tricyclics (prevent reuptake into presynaptic neurons so that they can continue to stimulate postsynaptic neurons) and MAO Inhibitors (reduce activity of MAO, and enzyme that breaks down the NT synapse… also bad side effects) increase the activity of the excitatory NTs NE and serotonin to increase positive emotion and motivation.

SSRIs increase activity of just serotonin.

105
Q

What is tardive dyskinesia. and how is it caused?

A

Caused from prolonged use of antipsychotic drugs.

When you have uncontrollable movements of face and tongue, flailing of arms and legs, IRREVERSIBLE.

106
Q

which disorders do and don’t respond to ECT?

A

Electroconvulsive therapy is used to treat severe depression, when a strong threat of suicide exists. Not used as often now, but they have upped the safety.

107
Q

Psychosurgery and prefrontal lobotomy

A

Psychosurgery is only used a last-resort. They destroy or remove brain tissue to change disordered behaviour.
Has severe side effects on mental and emotional functioning including seizures, stupor, memory and reasoning impairment.

Psych 1000 (2 decks)

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