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Renal Quizzam 1 > Final > Flashcards

Final Flashcards

1
Q

What are the complications of pyelonephriits?

A
  • Xanthogranulomatous Pyelnephritis
  • Papillary NEcrosis
  • emphysematous pyelo
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2
Q

Having sickle cell puts you at risk for what renal injuries?

A

FSGN, Renal Papillary Necrosis,

Renal medullary carcinoma

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3
Q

Patient on amphotericin B sees a psychiatrist and wants to be prescribed lithium. WHy no?

A

No! because could cause RTA1

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4
Q

Don’t give contrast to what type of pts?

A

CKD DMs as contrast AKI is most common

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5
Q

Small cystic dilations of medullary collecting ducts discovered incidentally?

A

Medullary Sponge Kidney

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6
Q

Most common genetic cause of ESRD in children?

A

Nephronophthisis

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7
Q

Pt inability to concentrate urine, has small kidneys

A

Medullary cystic kidney disease

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8
Q

Cartilage formation over large cysts in kidneys. No fibrosis

A

Multicystic renal dysplasia

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9
Q

Pt gets ESRD while undergoing dialysis. What is she at risk for getting?

A

Calcium Oxalate crystasl and RCC

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10
Q

Common yellow corticol tumor.

A

Renal papillary adenoma

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11
Q

Large tan brown with central stellate scar. abundant mitochondria

A

Oncotyoma

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12
Q

The most common RCC is what gene?

A

VHL for clear cell

MET for papillary

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13
Q

Type B intercalated cell of collecting duct

A

Chromophobe carcinoma

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14
Q

You see a tumor with epithelial, stromal, and blastemal cells. What is the most critical prognostic element?

A

Presence of diffuse anaplasia

This is Wilms Tumor

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15
Q

Most common place of ureter obstruction?

A

Ureteropelvic junction;
followed by:
- iliac vessels (pelvic inlet)
- where they enter bladder.

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16
Q

What’s an IgG4 related idiopathic disease that fibrose the retroperitoneum.

A

Sclerosing retroperitoneal fibrosis!

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17
Q

mast cell mediated

A

interstitial Hunners disease. chornic pelvic pain.

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18
Q

Chronic E. Coli infection creates foamy macrophages which….?

A

Cause michaelis guttman bodies –> Malakoplakia

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19
Q

Brunn nest transitional ephtelium

A

Cystitis cystica and cystitis granularis (when it turns cuboidal).

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20
Q

Shed tubular cells that implant and reproduce in teh uroepithelium

A

Nephrogenic adenoma

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21
Q

Children bladder cancers?
Adults baldder cancers?
Most common?

A

Rhabdomyosarcoma
Adults: Leiomyosarcoma
Noninvasive papillary tumors

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22
Q

What is balanoposthitis?

A

Nonspecific infection of foreskin

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23
Q

Koilocytosis and hyperplasia with sessile or pedunculated red papillary excrescences is from what strains? Is this benign or malignant?

BOwenoid and BOwen

A

HPV 6, 11; condyloma acuminatum; benign

HPV 16 - malignant

BOwenoid resolves on it’s own
Bowen precursor

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24
Q

Epididymitis and orhcitis is more than likely what infectious agent?

A

Gram (-) rods

UTIs

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25
Q

Middle aged man has a painless mass in his scrotum. Bx reveals an autoimmuen spermatic tubule granuloma.

What if this was caused by gonorrhea?

A

Granulomatous orchitis.

Suppurative orchitis

26
Q

Pt without vaccination presents with bilateral enlargement of salivary glands and pain in scrotum

A

Mumps orchitis

27
Q

If a pt has obliterative endarteritis you can suspect

A

Syphilis

28
Q

Cancers in the upper pole of the epididymis are malignant or benign?

A

Benign adenomatoid tumors

29
Q

Pt presents with AMS and breathing difficulties. Further physican exam reveals mass in testicle. What labs do you think?

A

Choriocarcinoma spreads hematogenously to brain and lung. high hCG.
Sheets and cords appearance

30
Q

Pt with a mass in testicles. On bx, yellow and mucinous. It isthe most common tumor in boys less than 3.. What morph finding is diagnostic

A

Yolk sac tumor
high AFP,
Schiller-Duval bodies

31
Q

Pt presents with high hCG and normal AFP. the mass is painful

A

Embryonal carcinoma

32
Q

High ALP, painless. Most common testicular tumor. What do you do with it?

A

Seminoma

Excellent prognosis after radical orchiectomy

33
Q

The most common testicular cancer in older men.

A

Metz from Hodgkin lymphoma: Tericular lymphoma

34
Q

Pt has incresaed PSA and ALP. DRE reveals a hard prostate. What genetic mutations are involved? Where does it metz?

A

Prostatic adenocarcinoma

Glutathione S Transfersae GSTP1
TMPRSS2, most common acquired

blood –> bone

35
Q

You see U waves on EKG, what’s the electrolyte abnormality

A

Hypokalemia

36
Q

A pt has low RBF and GFR, which diuretic will still work?

A

loop

do not work well:
Thiazide

37
Q

What is the mechanism of vaptans? tolvaptan?

When do you use these?

A

Blocks ADH hormone receptor in CD (prevents aquaporins), decreases water reabsorption

Tolvaptan: V2 selective

hypervolemia, euvolemia hyponatremia

38
Q

Pt eats a bunch of licorice. what happens?

A

Increases systolic blood pressure by potentiating aldosterone effects

39
Q

A patient being treated for bipolar is given an effective therapy. What is the pt at risk for

A

Nephrogenic DI

If pts has nephrogenic diabetes, give thiazide; unless it’s caused by Li+, then give amiloride.

40
Q

Arterial pressure is determiend by what?

A

Cardiac output * Peripheral Resistance

41
Q

Trousseau’s sign and Chvostek sign makes you think what

A

Hypocalcemia

42
Q

What is a unique reabosprotino electrolyte?

A

MOst of Mg is reabsorbed in TAL

43
Q

What channel doesn’t degrade properly in Liddle syndrome?

A

ENaC

44
Q

How to you treat the RTAs?
RTA 1
RTA 2
RTA3

A

RTA1:

  • often causes kidney stones bc of the alkali envirnoment; use sodium bicarbonate to treat acidotic blood and alkalinic urine.
  • Watch for low K+ and treat this.

RTA2:
- POtassium citrate

RTA4:
- reduce K+

45
Q

Pt with uncomplciated cystitis. What do you give them?

Pyelo?

A

Cystitis
1. Nitrofurantoin, sulfa, or fosfomycin

Pyelo: 
1. Fluoros
2. TMP SMX
3. aztreonam
Comp pyelo
1. Ceftriaxone

Prostatitis
TMP SMX

46
Q

Phenazopytidine would be used when? Side effect?

A

Anesthesia of the genitalia during peeing

Makes pee orange

47
Q

How do you treat the bone defects associated with chronic kidney disease

A

Calcitriol decreases the increase in PTH that you get

48
Q

azotemia, hyperkalemia, metabolic acidosis

A

OBSTRUCTION

49
Q

False positives in hematuria

A

Myoglobin
alkaline urine (proteus)
Pts who take Vit C

50
Q

APOl1 gene

A

Hypertensive nephrosclorosis podocyte mutation

51
Q

Syphilis can cause what glomerular nephroapthy

A

membranous glomerulonephritis

52
Q

Autoregulation is impaired. what is the pt doing

A

taking nsaids

53
Q

hemoglobin in a urine sample can be causedby

A

HUS,
burns
nephritis
hemolysis

54
Q

Pt with asymptomatic hematuria has a family hx

A

Thin basment membrane disease

55
Q

GFR Categories
G1-G5

albumin in pee
A1-A3

A 
G1: >90
G2 60-90
G3a 45
G3b 30
G4 15 -30
G5 <15

A1 Less tahn 30, normal
A2 30-300 increaed
A3 over 300

56
Q

A pt is having bone defects in chronic renal failure. What CKD stage is she at? What otehr sx does she ahve in this stage? WHat sx will she get in the next stage?

A

Stage 3; twitches, hiccups, cramps

Acidosis and hyperkalemia stage 4
SEnsory> motor defects
LE > UE

57
Q

A pt with myelomeningocele or spinal cord trauma

A

Neurogenic bladder

58
Q

What type of carcinoma obstructs ureters at UPJ or UVJ?

A

Transitional cell CA

59
Q

How do you define and stage acute renal injury? What about CKD?

A

By the rate of rise serum creatine

GFR

60
Q

If they have gross hematuria what do you gotta watch out for?

A

IgA and SCD

61
Q

Tx of septic shock

A

Vasopressor

Renal Quizzam 1 (2 decks)

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