Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

Veterinary General Medicine > Final > Flashcards

Final Flashcards

1
Q

What is the most common secretory diarrhea we see clinically?

A

Diarrhea caused by cholera or cholera-like toxins including heat-labeled toxin of E. Coli

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Where are the majors sites of endogenous enzymatic digestion?

A
  1. Mouth
  2. Stomach
  3. Cranial duodenum
  4. Small intestinal brush border
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

The total daily amount of fluid entering the gut roughly equals the animal’s _______ volume.

A

ECF

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

About ____% of water that goes into the gut is absorbed before excretion.

A

99

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

How do crypt cells work?

A

As they undergo division, they take in NaCl from the interstitium, then the Na is recycled back into the ECF leaving a net negative electric charge inside cell causing Cl to diffuse out of dell into the intestinal lumen.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

How do villus cell work?

A

They pump NA out of their ICF into the interstitium which causes a negative charge within the cell promoting the diffusion of luminal Na into the cell. Cl enters the cell as well in exchange for HCO3…water follows the ions from bicarbonate into the lumen.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

What can cause maldigestion diarrhea?

A
  1. Poor chewing/mixing
  2. Poor digestive enzyme
  3. Poor acid production
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

What can cause malabsorption diarrhea?

A
  1. Loss of surface area of the gut

2. Thickening of the gut wall

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

What is exudative diarrhea

A

Result of inflammatory processes affecting the bowel where there is some loss of mucosal integrity leading to leakage of protein, plasma or blood into the guy lumen, or abnormal build up of pressure and protein in the tissue.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

What type of diarrhea is the most severe?

A

Exudative

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

If there is an increase in peristalsis with a decrease in intestinal transport time, how does this contribute to diarrhea?

A

It can decrease the time for digestion and absorption to take place

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

If there is a decrease in peristalsis or mixing motility decreases contact with digestive/absorptive areas, how can this contribute to diarrhea?

A

It can promote bacterial overgrowth and fermentation leading to inflammation or the generation of secretagogues or osmotic earth compounds.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

Which types of diarrhea involve direct tissue damage?

A

Malabsorption/maldigestion diarrhea and exudative diarrhea

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Which type/types of diarrhea do not cause direct tissue damage?

A

Secretory

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

Syncope

A

Sudden, transient loss of consciousness resulting in collapse with spontaneous recovery caused by transient global cerebral hypoxia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

How soon does loss of consciousness occur once blood flow stops?

A

10 seconds

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

What are some causes of cardiac syncope?

A
  1. Arrhythmias
  2. Obstruction to flow
  3. Low output
  4. Cyanotic heart disease
  5. Tamponade
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

What are some causes of neurologic syncope?

A

Increased intracranial pressure reducing cerebral perfusion

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

What are some causes of Metabolic syncope?

A
  1. Abrupt decrease in oxygen delivery

2. Abrupt decrease in nutrient delivery (glucose

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

What are some causes of tussle/cough syncope?

A
  1. Reduced venous return

2. Stimulation of vagal efferents producing bradycardia and vasodilation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

What are causes of autonomic dysfunction syncope?

A

Neurocardiogenic

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

Bradyarrhythmias

A

6-8 second pause in hearts electrical activity

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

Tachyarrhythmias

A

Heart rate greater than 300bpm for more than 6-8 seconds

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

What types of bradyarrhythmias can cause syncope?

A
  1. High grade AV node block
  2. Sick sinus syndrome
  3. Atrial standstill
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

What types of tachyarrrythmias can cause syncope?

A
  1. Supraventricular
  2. Ventricular
  3. Arrythmogenic cardiomyopathy
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

What types of obstruction to outflow of blood can cause syncope?

A
  1. Pulmonic valve stenosis

2. Subaortic stenosis (more common)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

What causes of low cardiac output can cause syncope?

A
  1. Dilated cardiomyopathy

2. Severe mitral regurgitation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

What types of cyanotic heart disease can cause syncope?

A
  1. Tetralogy of Fallow ( R to L PDA) resulting in hypoxemia
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

By definition, syncope is ____ and ______.

A

Short and transient

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

Supraventricular tachyarrythmias and labradors is sick sinus syndrome to ____________.

A

Miniture schnauzers and dachshunds

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

Which breed(s) of dog is most likely to have ventricular tachycardia that causes syncope?

A
  1. Doberman

2. Boxers

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

What is usually the cardiac cause of syncope in older, small breed dogs?

A

Chronic degenerative valve disease

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

What is usually the cardiac cause of syncope in Boxers, golden retrievers and german shepards?

A

Subaortic stenosis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

A dog is experiencing syncope due to dilated cardiomyopathy, what type of dog is this most likely?

A

Giant breed dogs

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

On physical exam, what are signs of cardiac disease?

A
  1. Murmur
  2. Arrhythmias
  3. Altered pulse character or quality
  4. Cyanosis
  5. Evidence of heart failure
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

How do you treat bradyarrhythmias?

A

Pacemaker with sympathomimetic and vagolytic medications

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

How do you treat supra ventricular tachycardias if you want to abolish the arrhythmia?

A

Na+ channel blockers like the class 1 a drugs ( procainamide and quinidine)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

How do you treat supra ventricular tachycardias if you want to slow the arrhythmia?

A
  1. Digoxin
  2. Ca channel blockers
  3. Beta blockers

All slow AV nodal conduction

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

What is the treatment for ventricular arrhythmias?

A
  1. Class Ib drugs like lidocaine and mexiletine

2. Class III drugs like sotalol

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

What is the treatment for an outflow obstruction issue that is causing syncope?

A

Use fluoroscopy and then medical/surgical management

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

What is the treatment for low cardiac output that is causing syncope?

A

Positive inotrope meds or beta blockade with exercise restrictions

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

What is the treatment for tussive syncope?

A
  1. Hydrocondone
  2. Butorphanol

Cough suppressants

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

Dysphagia

A

Difficulty or painful swallowing stemming from the oral/pharyngeal regions

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

Regurgitation

A

Passive retrograde expulsion of food/fluid from the oral/pharyngeal cavity or esophagus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

Vomiting

A

Forceful ejection of food/fluid through the mouth from the stomach or proximal duodenum that involves abdominal muscle contraction and heaves.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
46
Q

How is swallowing initiated?

A

By voluntary passage of a bolus into the retropharynx leading to an involuntary pharyngeal phase trigger

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
47
Q

Which nerves are required for swallowing?

A

Cranial nerves VII, IX, X, and XII ( facial, glossopharyngeal
, vagas, and hypoglossal)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
48
Q

What are the phases of swallowing?

A
  1. Orophayrngeal ( with Oral, pharyngeal, and cricopharyngeal stages)
  2. Esophageal
  3. Gastroesophagesal
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
49
Q

During the oropharyngeal phase of swelling, which parts are voluntary versus involuntary?

A

The oral phase is voluntary and the pharyngeal and cricopharyngeal are involuntary

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
50
Q

What can cause dysphagia?

A
  1. Pain during pretending or swallowing
  2. Mechanical obstruction of oral cavity/pharynx
  3. Neuromuscular dysfunction
  4. Feline Lymphoplasamacytic stomatitis
  5. Ranula
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
51
Q

What is the most important differential to remember when a dog is experiencing dysphagia?

A

Rabies

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
52
Q

What usually accompanies pharyngeal and cricopharyngeal dysphagia?

A

Esophageal motility disorders

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
53
Q

What are some clinical signs of oral dysphagia?

A
  1. Inappetent
  2. Turkey poking or gobbling food
  3. Dropping food
  4. Tilting head back
  5. Chewing on one side
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
54
Q

What are the most common causes of oral dysphagia?

A
  1. Dental/Periodontal disease
  2. Trauma like mandibular fracture and TMJ dysfunction
  3. Inflammatory disease like lymphoplasmacytic stomatitis
  4. Ranulas
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
55
Q

In 50% of cats that are FIV positive, what may also occur that causes oral dysphagia?

A

Feline Lymphoplasmacytic stomatitis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
56
Q

What is a ranula, what does it do and how do you treat it?

A

A sublingual mucocele that causes mechanical obstruction leading to dysphagia and treatment with marsupializtion

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
57
Q

How is feline lymphoplasmaxytic stomatitis treated?

A

Partial or full-mouth tooth extraction

Medical management with antimicrobials, antiinflammatorys or analgesics

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
58
Q

What is pharyngeal dysphagia?

A

When there is trouble with the tongue bringing food back to the pharynx

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
59
Q

What is cricopharyngeal dysphagia?

A

When there is no relaxation of the cricophyrngeus muscle which forms the upper esophageal sphincter

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
60
Q

How is pharyngeal dysphagia and cricopharyngeal dysphagia diagnosed?

A

Fluoroscopy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
61
Q

What are the most common causes of pharyngeal and cricopharyngeal dysphagia?

A
  1. Congenital like cricopharyngeal achalasia
  2. Neurological disease like problems with the cranial nerves, brainstem, tick paralysis, polyradiculoneuropathy, and myasthenia gravis
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
62
Q

What do you want to keep in mind when taking a history of an animal that is suffering from dysphagia?

A
  1. Age=older animal may be more systemic disease, young more congenital or foreign body
  2. Duration of signs=acute could be mechanical obstruction
    3 Presence of other signs= CNS disease
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
63
Q

During the physical exam, what behavior may you see with oral dysphagia?

A

Difficulty before swallowing and tilting/throwing head back while eating

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
64
Q

During the PE, what behavior may you see with pharyngeal dysphagia?

A

Chews normally but repeatedly attempts to swallow while flexing or extending neck

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
65
Q

During the PE, what behavior may you see with Cricopharyngeal dysphagia?

A

Starts to swallow then coughs/gags because bolus hits larynx due to tense cricopharynxgeus muscles (upper esophageal sphincter)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
66
Q

How do we treat dysphagia?

A

Medical/surgical management of underlying disorder
Feeding tube maybe
Treat aspiration pneumonia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
67
Q

What are the clinical signs of regurgitation?

A
  1. Increased appetite
  2. Weight loss/poor growth
  3. Animal may attempt to reconsume regurgitate material
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
68
Q

What does regurgitation produce?

A
  1. Undigested feed
  2. Tubular shape
  3. Frothy saliva
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
69
Q

How is regurgitation controlled?

A

It is a locally mediate process via mechanical events in the esophagus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
70
Q

A dog is suffering from systemic lupus erythematosus, is the dog most likely regurgitating or vomiting?

A

Regurgitation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
71
Q

Megaesophagus: regurgitation or vomit?

A

Regurgitation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
72
Q

Esophagitis: regurgitation or vomit?

A

Regurgitation

73
Q

Hypothyroidism or Hypoadrenocorticism: Vomiting or regurgitation?

A

Regurgitation

74
Q

What are some neuropathic that can cause regurgitation?

A
  1. Polyradiculoneruitis
  2. Lead poisoning
  3. Distemper
  4. Brainstem lesion
75
Q

What is the hallmark sign of gastric disease?

A

Vomiting

76
Q

Is vomiting a clinical sign or a disease?

A

clinical sign

77
Q

How is vomiting controlled?

A

It is central mediated via the chemoreceptor trigger zone in the emetic center of the cerebrum. it is triggered by blood-borne drugs and toxins, indirectly via afferent nerves, and via the abdominal viscera attached to the vagus and sympathetic nerves.

78
Q

What are the phases of vomiting?

A
  1. Nausea
  2. Retching
  3. Vomiting
79
Q

During retching, there is _______ pressure in the thorax, and during vomitng there is ________ pressure in the thorax.

A

negative; positive

80
Q

What happens in order for an animal to retch?

A

The abdominal muscles and diaphragm must contract

81
Q

How long does acute vomiting last and what animals is it more common in?

A

Less than 7 days

In younger dogs and cats

82
Q

At what frequency does an animal need to vomit in order for it to be considered chronic? What type of animals does the type usually occur in ?

A

More than once a day for more than 5 days OR
TWICE a WEEK for more than 2 WEEKS

Middle aged to older animals

83
Q

What are the main electrolyte imbalances that can occur in a dog that is vomiting?

A
  1. Hypokalemia
  2. Hypocholremia
  3. Hyponatremia
84
Q

Why do small animals not suffer from hypoglycemia when they are continually vomiting? Exceptions?

A

Endogenous glucose production

Puppies, toy breed dogs and emaciated animals

85
Q

A cat comes into the clinic and it vomiting/regurgitating tubular casts…is this vomit or regurgitation?

A

In cats, they can throw up tubular casts under both situations. If this was a dog, tubular casts are more common during regurgitation.

86
Q

Between dysphagia, regurgitation and vomiting, which ones commonly involve ptyalism?

A

Dysphagia and vomiting

87
Q

Is white foam more common in regurgitation or vomiting?

A

Regurgitation

88
Q

What are the major causes of weight loss/failure to thrive?

A
  1. Inadequate feed/water intake
  2. Poor quality feed/water source
  3. Inability/reluctance to eat/swallow
  4. Incomplete digestion or nutrient absorption
  5. Increased loss after absorption
  6. Increased metabolic demand
89
Q

What are the causes of inadequate feed/water intake?

A
  1. Lack of availability
  2. Decreased ability to access feed
  3. Herd competition
  4. Animal:feed ratio is to high
  5. Weather influences
90
Q

What could be the cause of poor quality of food/water source?

A
  1. Feed palatability is off
  2. Feeding straw
  3. Lack of knowledge of owners on what to properly feed a certain species
91
Q

Why would an animal be inable or reluctant to eat/swallow?

A
  1. Poor dentition
  2. Feed palatability
  3. Oral trauma
  4. Esophageal trauma
  5. Neurologic disorder
  6. Musculoskeletal disorder
92
Q

Why would an animal have incomplete digestion or nutrient absorption of their food?

A
  1. Poor dentition
  2. Small or large intestinal disease
  3. Pharmaceutical alterations
93
Q

Why would an animal have increased loss of nutrients after absorption?

A
  1. Protein losing enteropathy
  2. Renal disease
  3. Sequestration/third spacing
94
Q

What are some physiological reasons for increased metabolic demand in an animal?

A
  1. Pregnancy
  2. lactation
  3. Environmental extremes
  4. Breeding
  5. Exercise
95
Q

What are some pathophysiologic reason for increased metabolic demand in an animal?

A
  1. Neoplasia
  2. Chronic laminitis
  3. Renal failure
  4. Liver disease
  5. Cardiac disease
  6. Respiratory disease
96
Q

In order of most practical to least practical, name the diagnostic tests you can do on an animal that is losing weight and failing to thrive.

A
  1. History and Feed analysis
  2. General physical exam
  3. Oral exam
  4. Rectal exam with fecal evaluation
  5. Rebreathing exam
  6. Complete blood count/chemistry
  7. Serology
  8. Ultrasound
  9. Radiographs
  10. Abdominocentesis
  11. Endoscopy
  12. Biopsy
  13. Abdominal exploration
97
Q

How do animals produce body heat?

A
  1. Muscle activity and cellular processes
  2. Sympathetic stimulation
  3. Digestion and fat metaboliziation
  4. Thyroxine (thyroid hormone)
98
Q

What factors can affect thermoregulation of an animal?

A
  1. Age
  2. Ambient temperature
  3. Feeding times
  4. Reproductive cycles
  5. Accuracy of the measurement and device
99
Q

How do animals preserve body heat?

A
  1. Reduce peripheral circulation

2. Behavioral changes like seeking shelter and huddling

100
Q

What are some mechanisms that contribute to losing heat from the body?

A
  1. Conduction
  2. Convection
  3. Evaporation
  4. Radiation
  5. Increase peripheral circulation
  6. Behavioral changes like seeking out shade and water sources
101
Q

What is conduction?

A

An object transfers heat to another object

102
Q

What is convection?

A

Transfer of heat to either air or water

103
Q

What is radiation?

A

Loss of heat from the ground and the sky

104
Q

What is evaporation?

A

The loss of heat through saliva, sweat or panting especially when ambient temperature is high

105
Q

How is heat transferred within the body to either lose it or gain it?

A

Circulatory convection

106
Q

What is the overarching thermoregulatory organ of the body?

A

The anterior hypothalamus that is connected to a feedback loop between all the other organs and receptors of the body

107
Q

What temperature are skin thermoreceptors more responsive to? Why is this advantageous?

A

COLD

If the temp is dropping and the receptors respond, the body can acclimate before the core body temperature is affected.

108
Q

If an animal gets hot, what will the body start doing to cool down?

A
  1. Peripheral vasodilation
  2. Sweating
  3. Increased RR
109
Q

If an animal gets cold, what will the body start doing to heat up?

A
  1. Peripheral vasoconstriction
  2. Erector pili reaction
  3. Increased muscle activity (shivering or getting put and moving
  4. Eating and finding shelter
110
Q

In which patients is hypothermia more detrimental?

A
  1. Young
  2. Old
  3. Patients on certain medications and sedated
  4. Sick patients with systemic disease/infection/sepsis
111
Q

What are the clinical signs of hypothermia?

A
  1. Low temperature
  2. Low RR
  3. Absence of shivering
  4. Decreased cardiac function with hypoxia
  5. Multi-organ failure
  6. Death
112
Q

What are the causes of hyperthermia?

A
  1. Increased heat production
  2. Increased absorption of environmental heat
  3. Impaired ability to regulate body temp
113
Q

When an animal has increased heat production, what could be causing this?

A
  1. Exercise (healthy if animal is trained regularly)

2. Malignant hyperthermia

114
Q

Heat stroke is due to which causes of hyperthermia?

A
  1. Increased absorption of environmental heat

2. Impaired ability to regulate body temp

115
Q

What animals are most at risk to heat stroke?

A
  1. Brachycepahlic and/or obese dogs
  2. Ruminants
  3. Adult horses in a very humid/hot environments that are exercising with improper conditioning beforehand
116
Q

What are the clinical signs of heat stroke?

A
  1. Lethargic
  2. Not ambulating well
  3. Multi organ dysfunction/failure
  4. High temperature
  5. Vomiting/diarrhea
  6. Unresponsive
117
Q

What are the treatments for heat stroke?

A
  1. Gradual cooling of the body
  2. IV fluid therapy with room temp fluid
  3. Oxygen therapy
  4. Support for organs that may have been damaged
118
Q

How would an animal lose the ability to regulate body temperature?

A
  1. Trauma or some other damage to the anterior hypothalamus

2. Structural changes to the hypothalamus due to hemorrhage, infection, inflammation, edema, and neoplasia

119
Q

If the hypothalamus is damaged, what clinical signs may you see in regards to hyperthermia?

A
  1. Loss in variation of ambient temperature especially when sleeping
  2. Not sweating
  3. Not responsive to anti-pyrettics
  4. As you start to cool the, there is a massive overcorrection of temperature
120
Q

How/why is fever different than hyperthermia?

A

There is a change in the set point of temperature at the hypothalamus due to endogenous or exogenous pyrogens.

121
Q

What can induce a fever in an animal?

A
  1. Exogenous activation of a pyrogen

2. Immune cell that activates a cascade that produces endogenous pyrogens

122
Q

What substances are considered exogenous pyrogens?

A
  1. Viruses
  2. Bacterial infections
  3. Pharmacological agents (propofol left out, needle not clean)
  4. Tissue trauma
  5. Blood transfusions
  6. Toxins
123
Q

What are some endogenous pyrogens?

A
  1. IL-1
  2. Neoplasia via paraneoplastic syndrome
  3. Abnormal tissue that becomes secondarily infected
  4. HYPP in horses
  5. Fat necrosis
  6. Hyperthyroidism
124
Q

What are the benefits of fevers? (mild fever)

A
  1. Increased antibody production and immune system works more effectively
  2. Bacteria can’t grow as well as they can’t access iron stores in body
  3. Better survival when infected with a virus or bacteria with reduced morbidity
125
Q

What are the disadvantages of fevers? (high fever)

A
  1. Damage to the immune system
  2. Increased metabolic activity that increases caloric need and body temp
  3. Suppress the appetite center
  4. Protein loss at GIT and kidneys
  5. High temps can damage organs like the heart and brain
126
Q

Fever of unknown origin workup

A
  1. Take a history to see if the fever cycles..goes away and comes back again
  2. Physical exam -recurrent to see patterns
  3. Diagnostic tests like blood cultures and imaging
  4. Where are you in the country, changing infectious agents like fungus
127
Q

What is a DDAVP trial?

A

It is a desmopressin test for diagnosing central diabetes insipidius that is run for 5-7 days

128
Q

If the water intake is decreased during a DDAVP trial, what conclusion can you make?

A

The animal likely has central diabetes insipidus

129
Q

If there is minimal change of water intake during a DDAVP trial, what conclusion can you make?

A

The animal is likely suffering from psychogenic polydipsia or primary nephrogenic polydipsia

130
Q

Polyuria

A

Large amounts of urine

131
Q

Pollakiuria

A

Frequent small amounts of urine

132
Q

Incontinence

A

Lack of voluntary control of urinations aka enuresis

133
Q

How much do dogs need to urinate in order for it to be considered polyuria?

A

More than 50 ml/kg/day

134
Q

How much do cats need to urinate in order for it to be considered polyuria?

A

More than 40 ml/kg/day

135
Q

How much water does a dog need to drink in order for it to be considered polydipsia?

A

More than 100 ml/kg/day

136
Q

How much water does cat need to drink in order for it be considered polydipsia?

A

Greater than 45 ml/kg/day

137
Q

How is urine concentrated?

A

ADH is prodded and released which leads to renal tubules responding to the ADH creating medullary hypertonicity

138
Q

How is urine diluted?

A

Reduced or absent ADH production and then the renal tubules respond to the ADH and create an osmotic gradient between the renal tubules and the medullary interstitium

139
Q

What is primary polyuria?

A

it is the failure of renal tubules to respond to ADH or reduced or absent ADH production or the reduction of the osmotic gradient between the renal tubules an the medullar interstitium

140
Q

If primary polyuria is caused by a reduced or absent ADH production and release, what is the cause?

A

Central Diabetes insipidus

141
Q

if primary polyuria is caused by the failure of the renal tubules to respond to ADH, what are the likely causes?

A
  1. Primary nephrogenic diabetes insipidus

2. Secondary nephrogenic diabetes insipidus

142
Q

What is the most common cause of polyuria?

A

Secondary nephrogenic diabetes insipidus

143
Q

If the osmotic gradient is reduced, what two factors will change?

A
  1. Sodium levels

3. BUN

144
Q

What are causes of osmotic solute in the urine during primary polyuria?

A
  1. Normal concentration ability
  2. Diabetes mellitus
  3. Primary glucosuria
145
Q

What are the causes of primary polydipsia with polyuria?

A
  1. Primary psychogenic polydipsia
  2. Liver failure
  3. Hyperthyroidism
146
Q

What are some causes of primary polyuria that

A
  1. Hypercalcemia
  2. Hyperadrenocorticism
  3. Liver failure
  4. Pyelonephritis
  5. Pyometra
147
Q

What are the causes of primary polydipsia in the absence of polyuria?

A
  1. Eating dry food
  2. Fever
  3. Elevated ambient temperature aka hyperthermia
148
Q

What is the differential list for PU-PD?

A
  1. Diabetes mellitus
  2. Diabetes insipidus (central and nephrogenic)
  3. Hyperthyroidism
  4. Hyperadrenocorticism
  5. Hypercalcemia
  6. Kidney disease
  7. Liver disease
  8. Psychogenic polydipsia
  9. Hypokalemia
  10. Primary glucosuria
  11. Acromegaly
  12. Pyometra
  13. Drugs
149
Q

You conduct a urinalysis on a dog and the SG is greater than 1.007, what may be going on?

A
  1. Psychogenic polydipsia

2. Diabetes insipidus

150
Q

What is the urine specific gravity in most patients?

A
  1. Greater than 1.025
151
Q

If you do a urinalysis and there is glucose, what could be going on?

A
  1. Dibetes mellitus

2. Primary glycosuria

152
Q

If you do a blood chemistry panel, what three elements are you looking at to assess in PU-PD cases?

A
  1. Ionized calcium
  2. Potassium
  3. Creatinine
153
Q

When working up a PU-PD case, what should you look at on blood chem panels besides the electrolytes and creatinine?

A

Test for synthetic liver function like BUN, cholesterol, albumin and glucose

154
Q

What tests are helpful when working up a PU-PD case to rule out hyperadrenocorticism, hyperthyroidism , liver disease, acromegaly and pyometra?

A
  1. LDDS-hyperadrenocorticism
  2. T4 levels -hyperthyroidism
  3. Bile acids-liver disease
  4. IGF-1-acromegaly
  5. Ultrasound-pyometra
155
Q

What test can be used to rule out early kidney failure when working up a PU-PD case?

A

SDMA

156
Q

What is a water deprivation test used for?

A

When working up a PU-PD case, it can differentiate between central DI, nephrogenic DI, and psychogenic polydipsia

157
Q

When should a water deprivation test not be used for a PU-PD case?

A

When the patient is experiencing:

  1. Azotemia
  2. Dehydration
  3. SG > 1.03 in dogs and > 1.04 in cats
158
Q

What does the first stage of a water deprivation test entail?

A

3 days restriction of water to minimize medullary washout

159
Q

What does the second stage of a water deprivation test entail?

A

Abrupt water deprivation requiring close monitoring with the goal to achieve maximal ADH secretion and concentration of urine at a loss of 3-5% body weight

160
Q

If urine concentrates during the second stage of a water deprivation test, what is likely going on with the patient? What if it doesn’t concentrate?

A

Psychogenic polydipsia

Diabetes insipidus (central or nephrogenic)

161
Q

How often should you monitor a patient during the second stage of a water deprivation test? What are you monitoring?

A

Every 1-2 hours

Do a PE, weight, empty bladder to check SG, BUN

Cr, PCV, TP, and electrolytes every 4-6 hours)

162
Q

When is it time to stop a water deprivation test?

A
  1. Lost 5% of body weight
  2. Clinically dehydrated, vomiting, lethargic and with abnormal mentation
  3. Azotemic
  4. SG > 1.030
163
Q

What does the their state of a water deprivation test entail?

A

This is the ADH response test where you give a DDAVP and check the SG

164
Q

If the urine concentrates during the third stage of a water deprivation test, what does this mean? What if it doesn’t concentrate?

A

Patient likely has central diabetes insipidus if concentrating, but has primary nephrogenic DI if not concentrating

165
Q

What does the last stage of a water deprivation test entail?

A

Over 6 hours, reintroduce water gradually to patient to avoid acute water overload and cerebral edema

166
Q

What are some problems with water deprivation tests?

A
  1. Interpretation
  2. Misdiagnosis
  3. Can’t differentiate partial diabetes insipidus from psychogenic polydipsia
167
Q

What are some complications of conducting a water deprivation test?

A
  1. Dehydration
  2. Acute kidney failure if patient has early renal disease
  3. Urosepsis if there is pyelonephritis
  4. Acute water overload and cerebral edema
168
Q

How does cushings disease show up on a DDAVP trial?

A

There may be only a minimum or moderate response to the test

169
Q

Compared to small versus large intestinal diarrhea, what will the fecal volume be like?

A

There will be increased fecal volume if the pathology is in the small intestine, but normal in the large.

170
Q

Which four clinical signs are typically seen in a large animals suffering from diarrhea?

A
  1. Blood in stool
  2. Tenesmus
  3. Increased frequency if pathology in the large intestine
  4. Vomiting/coli is pathology is in the small intestine, rare in the large intestine.
171
Q

A dog has mucous, no fat, normal color, no gas, and no weight loss. Is this diarrhea likely stemming from the small or large intestine?

A

Large

172
Q

A cow has melana in the feces, along with vomiting, but is defecating at a normal frequency. Is this diarrhea likely stemming from the small or large intestine?

A

Small

173
Q

How much gas will a small animal be experiencing if it has diarrhea stemming from the small intestine? Large?

A

Small: Occasional gas
Large: Rare

174
Q

A cat is defecating frequently, but the volume is normal; however the diarrhea has fresh blood in it, but the color is normal. Where is this diarrhea stemming from?

A

The large intestine

175
Q

If you noticed fat in a small animals diarrhea . what part of the intestines is likely diseased?

A

Small

176
Q

If you noticed undigested food in a small animals diarrhea and the animals is losing weight, what part of the intestine is likely diseased?

A

Small

177
Q

If a horse is struggling to defecating, but when it does there is diarrhea, what part of the intestines is likely diseased?

A

Large

178
Q

The small intestine in a cat is damaged, what characteristics will you noticed with the behavior of the cat and the feces?

A

The cat will be losing weight, have gas, have increased fecal volume but normal urgency to defecate, will have undigested food with fat, the color will be variable and there won’t be any mucous.

179
Q

The large intestine of a dog is damaged, what characteristics will you notice with the behavior of the dog and the feces?

A

The dog will not be losing weight, will not have gas, will have increased urgency to defecate but the fecal volume will be normal, there won’t be fat or undigested food, there may be mucous but the color will be normal.

Veterinary General Medicine (1 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2024 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions