Final Flashcards

1
Q

Define inflammation and infection

A

Inflammation: protective immune response that is triggered by any type of injury or irritant
Infection: invasion of microorganisms into tissue that causes cell or tissue injury

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2
Q

What are the signs of inflammation? Use an example

A
Ex. Sunburn
Redness (red skin)
Heat (warm to the touch)
Swelling (swollen and blisters)
Pain (painful to touch)
Loss of motion (uncomfortable when moving)
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3
Q

What are the signs of infection? Give an example

A
Ex. Infected wound
Redness (skin is red)
Heat (warm to the touch)
Swelling (swollen with blisters)
Pain (painful to touch)
Drainage of pus
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4
Q

How are inflammation and infection related?

A

When you cut your skin the tissue around the cut will undergo mild inflammation. Skin bacteria invade the cut tissue causing infection. Bacteria will cause more irritation causing more inflammation

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5
Q

What is Reye’s syndrome?

A

Caused by aspirin given to children causing swelling in brain and liver

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6
Q

Describe a virus

A

Smallest infectious agent
Genome in a capsid sometimes with a lipid envelope acquired from the host
Variable size

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7
Q

How are viruses classified?

A

Nucleic acid structure, structural configuration, and biological characteristics

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8
Q

What are the possible effects of a viral infection?

A
Asymptomatic latent viral infection (herpes)
Slowly progressive cell injury (HCV)
Acute cell necrosis and degeneration
Cell hyperplasia and proliferation
Neoplasm
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9
Q

Measles

A

D: one of the most serious childhood diseases due to complication (1/1000 die and get encephalitis)
E: acute viral disease spread via airborne droplets, highly contagious, in: 7-14, sp: 4-4
S: Fever, runny nose, inflammation of resp mucous membrane, machlopapular rash over body trunk and extremities, koplik spots
D: koplik spots
T: relief of symptoms, prevent dehydration, fever, spread
P: immunization

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10
Q

Rubella

A

D: usually mild in kids but serious in pregnant women during 1st tri
E: airborne droplets, rubella virus, in:14-21
S: rash (pink), lymph node enlargement, nasal discharge, joint pain, chills and fever
D: blood test for antibodies
T: symptoms, rest, nutrition, prevent spread
P: immunization

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11
Q

Roseola

A

D: kids under 2, high fever (39-40) last 3-4d, fever drops and pink rash appears lasting hours
E: human herpesvirus 6, contact with saliva or respiratory secretions, in: 14-21
S: high fever, sometimes flu like, pink rash
D: high fever and age of child, blood test
T: symptoms, rest, nutrition
Prevention: hand washing

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12
Q

Mumps

A

D: infection of parotid glands
E: mumps virus spread by saliva and airborne droplets, in: 16-18, inf: 6-8 since clinical onset
S: swelling, pain when swallowing, chills, fever, ear pain
D: swollen glands, blood test
T: symptoms, complications include deafness and orchitis in males
P: immunization

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13
Q

Varicella

A

D: most common childhood infectious disease
E: Herpes varicella-zoster virus, in: 10-21, highly contagious, spread by airborne particles or direct contact
S: macular rash on face, trunks, and extremities, extremely itching
D: physical exam
T: alleviation of itching, complications include secondary infection, encephalitis, or death
P: vaccine

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14
Q

Poliomyelitis

A

D: one of the most devastating childhood diseases before 1952, crippled thousands of children in pandemics
E: poliovirus spread through oral-fecal route, may be latent, 1 in 200 develop symptoms, in: 3-6 (abortive), 7-21 (severe), sp: 7-10 b&a
S: fever, headache, sore throat, abdominal pain, stiffness in neck, trunk, and extremeties, paralysis
D: weakness in arms/legs, stool sample
T: no curs, physical therapy, symptoms, ventilator support
P: vaccine

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15
Q

Influenza

A

D: acute respiratory disease
E: orthomyxoviridae family spread by contact or airborne droplets, inf:5-14
S: sudden high fever, cough, chills, headache, joint muscle pain, runny nose
D: physical exam, rapid assay test
T: symptoms, antiviral drug in vulnerable pop
P: vaccine

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16
Q

Common cold

A

D: most frequently occurring disease
E: human rhinovirus most common, transmission by direct or droplet contact
S: rhinitis, runny nose, coughing, sneezing, low grade fever, watery eyes
D: physical exam
T: symptoms, rest, hydration, nutrition
P: hand washing

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17
Q

Respiratory syncytial virus

A

D: viral infection of airways, most common cause of bronchiolitis and pneumonia and hospitalization of infants
E: RSV, in:2-8, con: 8
S: cold-like symptoms
D: symptoms
T: none
P: avoiding those with infection and good hand washing

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18
Q

Fifth disease

A

D: more common in kids than adults (ages 5-15)
Etiology: parvovirus (B19) spread by airborne droplets, blood, skin, or contaminated surface, in: 4-14
S: low fever, runny nose, swollen joints, rash on cheeks and trunk and extremeties
D: symptoms
T: symptoms, rest, fever and pain relief, complications include chronic anemia (weakened immune system), aplastic crisis (sickle cell), hydrops fetalis (pregnant woman)
P: avoidance of infectious people, hand washing

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19
Q

Hand-foot-and-mouth disease

A

D: mild contagious viral infection common in kids under 10
E: coxsackievirus A16 spread by person to person contact, most contagious 7 days
S: fever, sore throat, malaise, painful red blister-like lésions inside mouth, red rad with blisters on palms, soles, and but, irritability, loss of appetite
D: age and symptoms
T: fever and pain relief, avoid dehydration
P: hand washing, disinfection of common areas, isolation

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20
Q

Gastroenteritis

A

D: highly contagious viral disease, stomach flu, inflammation of stomach and intestines
E: commonly rotavirus and norovirus spread through close contact, contagious at onset and 3 days after recovery (Rota) or 2 before and 2 weeks after (noro)
S: noro (repeated vomiting, diarrhoea, stomach pain, low grade fever), rota (intense diarrhoea, vomiting, stomach pain, fever)
D: symptoms and stool sample
T: none
P: handwashing, isolation, disinfection, rota vaccine

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21
Q

Define primary and secondary infection

A

Primary: pathogenic bacteria
Secondary: a consequence of another disease

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22
Q

What characteristics are used to classify bacteria?

A

Shape
Gram-stain
Biochemical/cultural characteristics
Antigenic structure

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23
Q

How are bacteria classified by shape?

A

Spherical (coccus): clusters (staphylococci), pairs (diplococci), chains (streptococci)
Rod shaped (bacillus)
Spiral/corkscrew

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24
Q

Compare gram stain reactivity

A

Gram positive: remain purple after alcohol wash

Gram negative: pink after safranin staining

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25
Q

How are bacteria classified based on biochemical and cultural characteristics?

A

Oxygen dependence: aerobic or anaerobic
Nutrient requirements
Special structures: flagella, spores
Unique biochemical profile: fermentation, starch hydrolysis

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26
Q

Pertussis

A

D: acute respiratory infection
E: bordetella pertussis, gram +, encapsulated coccobacillus, in: 6-10, spread by respiratory droplets
S: 3 stages - catarrhal (inflammation of mucous membrane: cough, runny nose, low fever), paroxysmal (spasms: violent coughing, cyanosis, distended neck veins, vomiting), convalescence (decreasing episodes of whooping cough)
D: symptoms, nasopharyngeal culture
T: antibiotics, supportive therapy
P: vaccine

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27
Q

Diphtheria

A

D: used to be leading cause of death among children, now almost completely eradicated
E: corynebacterium diphtheriae (gram +, noncapsulated bacillus), in: 2-5d, spread by direct contact with droplets
S: severe inflammation of the respiratory system, thick membranous coating of pharynx, nose, and tree, thick fibrous exudate, extreme difficulty breathing, toxin can produce degeneration in peripheral nerves and other tissues leading to heart failure and paralysis, 20% fatality, in: 2-5
D: physical exam and positive culture
T: antibiotics and antitoxin
P: immunization

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28
Q

Impétigo

A

D: high contagious bacterial skin infection
E: staphylococcus aureus or group A streptococci, affecting mainly young children
S: superficial pyoderma, vesicles and pustules that rupture producing a yellow crust over the lesion
D: symptoms, positive culture of lesions
T: washing and drying area,
P: good personal hygiene,

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29
Q

Acute tonsillitis

A

D: infection of palatine tonsils
E: most commonly caused by group A beta-hemolytic streptococci
S: sore throat, enlarged tonsils with spots, furry tongue, cough, fever, pain with swallowing
D: visual exam, throat culture
T: antibiotics, tonsillectomy
P: avoiding contact, good hand washing

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30
Q

Otitis media

A

D: acute bacterial infection of middle ear
E: bacteria entering middle ear typically during upper res infection or swimming, 4 bacteria (streptococcus pneumoniae or pyogènes, moraxella catarrhalis, haemophilus influenzas)
S: neonates (irritability or feeding difficulties), older kids (fever, pain, hearing loss, nausea, vomiting, chills, vertigo)
D: physical exam (otoscopy revealing)
T: antibiotics, supportive treatments, myringotomy (removal of fluid to prevent membrane rupture), tynpanostomy (insertion of tubes)
P: prevent and treat upper res infections, modifications of risk factors, breastfeeding

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31
Q

Tuberculosis

A

D: infection of res system, global health emergency in 2006
E: mycobacterium tuberculosis (gram - or +, highly aerobic), found in GI, bones, brain, kidney, lymphnodes, in:4-12w, spread by droplets,
S: persistent cough, bloody sputum, enlarged lymphnode, night sweats, malaise, weight loss
D: skin test, chest x-ray, sputum culture
T: antibiotics, nutrition, rest, quarentine
P: skin testing, TB vaccine

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32
Q

Describe fungal diseases

A

Typically seen on skin or mucous membrane
Can afflict any age group but some more common in infants
Irritating more than dangerous

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33
Q

Candidiasis

A

D: yeast infection, irritating infectious found in mouth (thrush) and but (diaper rash)
E: Candida albicans acquired during delivery or from antibiotic delivery and unclean bottle nipples, part of normal flora
S: white plaques on mucous membrane of the tongue, red inflamed scaly rash on the buttocks and groin
D: visual and microscopic examination, culture
T: go away on own or anti du gal medicine
P: breast feeding, good oral hygiene, consumption of yogurt, keeping diaper clean and dry

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34
Q

Tinea

A

D: highly contagious fungal infection of skin, group commonly known as ring worm, seen in scalp and area between toes, in teens in toes (athletes foot) and groin (jock itch)
E: caused by a variety of fungi
S: itching, cracking and weeping of the skin
D: clinical appearance and microscopic examination of scrappings
T: keeping area clean and dry, antifungal agents
P: keep skin healthy, clean, and dry, avoiding community showers, pools, and hottubs, handwashing

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35
Q

Describe a parasitic disease

A

Disease chased by an organism that feeds another organism
Common in areas of poor hygiene, contaminated water, poor nutrition
Common in North America: giardiasis, pediculosis, helminth

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36
Q

Giardiasis

A

D: infection with parasite giardia
E: giardia lamblia from infected water source or unwashed raw produce, flagellated protozoan, colonize and reproduce in small intestine and absorb nutrients from host
S: watery diarrhea, nausea, abdominal cramping, flatulence, fever, loss of appetite, shiny and foul-smelling stool, weight loss and signs of poor nutrition
D: stool exam
T: relief of symptoms, prevent dehydration, furazolidone treatment
P: good handwashing, washing fruit and vegetable, avoid unclean water

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37
Q

Pediculosis

A

D: lice, three types (head, body, pubic)
E: direct contact and by sharing combs etc, equal opportunity pathogen
S: visible in scalpe, itching
D: observation
T: eradication with medicated shampoo or mechanical removal
P: avoiding contact with infected and sharing clothes and hair brush

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38
Q

Pinworms

A

D: parasitic helminths (nematodes), do not cause physical harm except itching and never infect blood
E: enterobius vermicularis transmission through infection/inhalation of eggs (can survive 2-3 weeks), attach to inside wall of large intestine, later female moves into rectum, leaves at night and lays eggs causing itching, scratch and cycle continue
S: anal itching
D: microscopic examination of stool, trapping eggs to adhesive tape in morning
T: hand washing, medication, cleaning of bed and clothing
P: hand washing, toilet habits, avoid biting nails and fingers

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39
Q

What are the different realms of development?

A

Gross motor
Fine motor
Speech and language
Social/adaptive/self help skills

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40
Q

What are some biological risk factors for developmental disability?

A
Prematurity/low birth weight
Birth injury/hypoxia
Vision/hearing impairment
Genetic conditions/chronic illness 
Family history of DD, ID, seizures, attentional difficulties, learning disabilities
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41
Q

What are some social risk factors for developmental disability?

A
Low parental education
Unemployment/poverty/social isolation
Single parent family
More than 3 kids in household
Parental mental illness or substance abuse
History of abuse in a parent
Domestic violence 
Frequent moves
Poor quality services or lack of access to services
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42
Q

What are the principles of normal motor development?

A

Follow a defined series of stages that are the same for all children: cephalocaudal, proximal to distal, involves maturation of the CNS
Velocity and quality of progress differs based on interaction of genetics, biology, and environment

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43
Q

What are the different principles associated with motor development?

A
  1. Primitive and protective reflexes
  2. Head and trunk control
  3. Quantity vs quality
  4. Variations of normal or RED FLAGS
  5. Progress vs regression vs plateau
  6. Isolated delay vs global delay
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44
Q

What are primitive reflexes?

A

Often present at birth and disappear by 4-6 months of age
Indicate immaturity of CNS
Ex. Moro, ATNR, palmar/plantar grasp, rooting reflex, placing or stepping reflex

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45
Q

Describe the moro reflex

A

Occurs spontaneously after sudden movement
Sudden symmetric abduction and extension of arms with extension of the trunk followed by a slower addiction of upper extremities with crying
Disappears by 4-6m due to cortical maturity
Important to rule out congenital MSK and nerve injury

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46
Q

Describe the asymmetric tonic neck reflex

A

Appears 2-4w and disappears by 6m
Limb movements strongly influenced by head position
If head directed to one side, gradual extension towards side head is turned and flexion of opposite side
Fencing position
Protective for rolling

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47
Q

What are equilibrium and postural reflexes?

A

As cortical functioning in the newborn improves primitive reflexes are replaced by those important to maintain posture and balance
Include head righting (infant able to keep head in midline/virtical position despite tilting) lateral, frontal, and backward propping, parachute reflex (out stretch of both hands when body is moved headfirst in downward direction)
Usually appear 4-6m

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48
Q

What is the general progression of locomotion in gross motor development?

A
Prone to supine rolling
Supine to prone rolling
Early commando crawling 
4 point crawling
Supported standing and cruising
Walking independently
Running
Jumping on 2 feet
Throw ball overhand
Balancing on one foot
Ride tricycle
Hoping/skipping
Catch ball
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49
Q

Compare quality and quantity of motor development

A

Quantity: how much, a child has acquired a certain skill
Quality: how they do it, maturity and rapidity with which it is done

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50
Q

What are some red flags in gross motor development?

A
Delay in disappearance of primitive reflexes or appearance of postural reflexes
Assynetrical reflexes
Presence of spontaneous postures or obvious hyper- or hypotonia
Abnormal movement patterned
No head control by 3-4m
No indépendant sitting by 9m
No indépendant steps by 18m
Poor balance/coordination 
Any loss of skills or regression
51
Q

What are the steps to fine motor development?

A
Loss of palmar grasp
UE control proceeds proximal to distal
Hands to midline
Swipes/bats are objects around midline
Hands more open
Voluntary grasp and release of objects 
Finger and thumb slowly begin to function independently 
Rake for small objects
Radial palmar grasp
Radial digital grasp
Inferior pincer grasp
Mature pincer grasp
52
Q

What are the red flags in fine motor development?

A
Fisting of the hands more than 50% of the time at 4 months 
Nor reaching for objects by 6 months
Not transferring objects by 8 months
Poorly developed pincer at 15 months
Hand dominance earlier than 18 months
53
Q

What are the most common types of developmental disorders?

A

Language delays

54
Q

What are the 3 components of language development?

A

Expressive language
Receptive language
Articulation

55
Q

What are some ways in which a child communicates?

A

Non-verbal: eye gaze, giving, showing, pointing, pulling

Verbal: noises/vowels/consonants, sounds for words, 1-2 words, phrases

56
Q

What are the normal steps to language development?

A
Social smile
Coo 
Babble
Dada non specific
Understands no/gesture games
Dada and mama appropriately 
First word
1 step command without gesture 
2 word phrases
3 word phrases and plurals and possessives
4-5 phrases, tells stories, asks meaning of words
57
Q

What is the rule of 4th of speech?

A

2/4=50% intelligible by 2 years
3/4=75% intelligible by 3 years
4/4=100% intelligible by 4 years

58
Q

What are some risk factors for language delay?

A
Family history
Hearing loss
Medical or developmental conditions
Weak muscles
Lack of stimulation
59
Q

What are some red flags for delayed language development?

A

No cooing responsively by 6m
No babbling by 10-12m
No gesturing by 12m
No attempt at words, understanding of simple commands, or pointing by 18m
Less than 50 words, no 2 word combo, not understanding withou gesture, or <50% intelligible by 2y
Not using short sentences or understanding simple questions by 3
Not able to retell a simple story, song ABCs or having a limited vocabulary by 4
Language not used communicatively, poor intent, poor eye gaze/facial expression, poor response to name, not interested in sharing with others

60
Q

What is a global developmental delay?

A

Delay in 2 or more areas of development in a young child (cognitive testing not possible)

61
Q

What is a global developmental disability or intellectual disability?

A

A disability characterized by significant limitations both in intellectual functioning and in adaptive behaviour, which covers many everyday social and practical skills
Originates before 18

62
Q

Define developmental disability

A

A group of chronic conditions due to an impairment in physical, learning, language, or behaviour areas. Begin during the developmental period and last throughout the lifetime.

63
Q

What are the 3 criteria that must be filled in the DSM5?

A
  1. Deficits in intellectual functioning (reasoning, problem solving, planning, judgement, academic and experimental learning, etc.)
  2. Deficits or impairments in adaptive functioning which limit functioning in 1 or more ADL including communication, social participation, independent living, or social or work functioning.
  3. Limitations occur during the developmental period (childhood or adolescence)
64
Q

What is Cerebral Palsy?

A

A group of permanent disorders of the development of movement and posture, causing activity limitation, that are attributed to non-progressive disturbances that occurred in the developing fetal or infant brain. Often accompanied by disturbances of sensation, perception, cognition, communication, and behaviour.

65
Q

What are the three causes of cerebral palsy?

A

Prenatal: most common, caused by intrauterine infection or stroke
Perinatal: only about 10%
Postnatal: meningitis, stroke, hypoxia

66
Q

What are the different classifications of cerebral palsy?

A
  1. Spastic: most common, reflexes are exaggerated, hemi (one side), diplegia (legs), or quadraparesis (both sides), lesion in pyramidal tract
  2. Dyskinetic/athetoid: rapid/jerky and slow/writhing movements, unusual posturing, lesion in extrapyramidal tracts/basal ganglia
  3. hypotonic/ataxic: problems with balance, tremor, or timing with voluntary movements, cerebellum is affected.
67
Q

What criteria do they use to diagnose cerebral palsy?

A

Delayed motor milestones
Abnormal neurological exam
Persistence of primitive reflexes
Abnormal postural reactions

68
Q

What are some cerebral palsy associated medical conditions?

A

Neurological/cognitive: intellectual disability, learning disability, seizure disorder
Visual: strabismus, myopia, retinopathy, refractive errors, visual impairments
Respiratory: hearing loss, recurrent infections, aspiration pneumonia (due to poor ora-motor function), sleep apnea, drooling
GI: failure to thrive, issue with swallowing, constipation, gastroesophageal reflux disease
Musculoskeletal: scoliosis, contractures/pain, subluxation/dislocation, osteoporosis/fractures

69
Q

What is autism?

A

Neurodevelopmental disorder with complex etiology. Symptoms present in childhood and cause impairments in reciprocal social interaction and communications and repetitive/restrictive behaviours.

70
Q

What are some characteristics of ASD?

A

Vary greatly.
Social interaction: aloof to passive to active but odd
Communication: non-verbal to verbal
Behaviours: intense to mild
Measured intelligence: severe to gifted
Adaptive functioning: low IQ to variable to high in areas

71
Q

What might be responsible for the increasing prevalence of ASD?

A

Significant broadening of diagnosis (younger children and higher functioning kids now diagnosed)
Increased cultural and professional awareness
Increased developmental surveillance
Increased cultural acceptance
Possible true incidence

72
Q

What are some risk factors for ASD?

A
Genetic
Having a sibling on the ASD
Male gender
Older parents
Premature birth
73
Q

What are some red flags for ASD visible at 12 months?

A

Atypical eye contact, hard to engage, poor response to name. No back and forth gestures such as pointing, showing, reaching, or waving. No babbling, unusual tone, repeating words, spontaneous use

74
Q

What are some red flags for ASD at preschool age?

A

Sticky or rigid behaviours and unusual sensory interest. Easily reactive with poor regulation, repetitive motor behaviours. Reduced joint attention (not interested in sharing things interesting to them, not turning to a point with verbal cue, not pointing to objects). Lack of imaginary play. Distinct temperament (marked irritability or passivity, intolerance of intrusions, prone to distress, difficulties with regulation of state.

75
Q

What are some other red flags for ASD?

A

Strong desire for sameness
Intense desire to touch, smell, lick, or mouth objects
Intense hyper (or hypo) sensitivity to touch, doors, tastes, sounds, or light
Selective deafness especially to own name
Self injurious behaviours
Splinter skills
Toe walking

76
Q

How do they diagnose ASD?

A

Must have social communication and social interaction present (deficits in social-emotional reciprocity, deficits in nonverbal communication, deficits in developing and maintaining relationships) and at least 2 of the restricted, repetitive behaviours (Stereotyped or repetitive behaviours, instance on sameness/rituals, restricted interests, sensory aberrations)

77
Q

What are some challenging behaviours of ASD?

A
Hyperactivity/inattentiveness/inpulsiveness
Agitation
Aggressiveness
Self injurious behaviour
Perseveration/obsessions/compulsions
Mood lability/depression
Anxiety
78
Q

What were the primary objectives of the maternal experiences survey?

A

Document women’s perceptions, practices, and experiences before and during pregnancy, labour and birth, and the early months of parenthood
To provide info on selected sub-groups believed to be a increased risk for adverse pregnancy outcome
Identifying areas of strength and areas that can be improved within the Canadian public health and health care systems

79
Q

How is FAS defined and diagnosed?

A

Constellation of effects that are held to result from prenatal alcohol exposure

80
Q

What is prototypical FAS?

A

Includes facial dysmorphology as well as CNS effects (structural and functional) as well as growth restriction

81
Q

What is dysmorphology?

A

Changes in the form of external structures or internal structures that are noted at birth

82
Q

What are some examples of dysmorphology seen in FAS?

A

External: eyes far apart (hypertelorism), low set ears, extra digits of the hands and feet (polydactyly)
Internal: cardiac birth defects, renal anagenesis

83
Q

What is considered partial FAS?

A

Falls shy of having all the features needed for the diagnosis of FAS
Most systems have a category of cognitive or neurobehavioral effects without dysmorphology

84
Q

What are some facial features attributed to FAS?

A
  1. Small palpebral fissures (space between the eyelids = small eyes)
  2. Smooth philtrum (space between the nose and upper lip)
  3. Thin vermillion border of upper lip
85
Q

What is the dominant view of drinking and FAS?

A

There is no known safe level. FAS may represent the severe end of the spectrum by lower levels may be associated with milder forms of defects such as ARND (alcohol related neurological disorder) or ARBD (alcohol related birth defect)

86
Q

What is the other view of drinking and FAS?

A

FAS is associated with intermittent high levels of exposure at specific times and that this alone does not cause FAS but there are other cofactors such as malnutrition, smoking, stress.

87
Q

What are the major (permissive) risk factors for FAS?

A

Alcohol intake pattern, low SES, smoking behaviour

88
Q

What are the provocative factors for FAS?

A

High BAL, inadequate diet/poor nutrition, exposure to environmental pollutants, psychological stress, other toxin exposures (nicotine), high parity

89
Q

What is teratogenicity?

A

Notion that a substance that can cross the placenta and to which a fetus is exposed may be toxic to specific groups of cells developing at that specific time

90
Q

What is a critical period?

A

Time of vulnerability in which exposure may cause damage

Specific cells effected depend on their specific response to the toxin and synchronous development

91
Q

What occurs differently in the tissue formation of the upper lip during FAS?

A

Tissue that should form the philtre is deficient and the more lateral tissues contribute to the centre of the upper lip

92
Q

What are the different possible mediators of tissue damage in FAS?

A

Hypoxia
Free radical damage ( can initiate a chain of responses)
Actions on morphogens/gradients
Increased glutamate release in CNS

93
Q

Define physical activity

A

Any bodily movement produced by skeletal muscles that expends energy beyond resting level

94
Q

Compare physical activity and exercise

A

Exercise is planned, structures, and repetitive actions

95
Q

What the the components of the FITT principle of physical activity?

A

Frequency
Intensity
Time (duration)
Type

96
Q

What contributes to your total daily energy expenditure?

A

BMR: basal metabolic rate - the energy needed to maintain the body at rest (60-70%)
TEF: Thermic effect of food - the energy required to digest food (5-10%)
Physical activity energy cost (20-35%)

97
Q

What is NEAT?

A

Nonactive exercise expenditure

Calories burned through non-exercise activities through out the day

98
Q

What is sedentary behaviour?

A

Any walking activity characterized by an energy expenditure less than 1.5 metabolic equivalents in a sitting or reclining posture

99
Q

What are the different components of the SITT principle?

A

Sedentary behaviour frequency: number of bouts of a certain duration
Interruptions (breaks)
Time (Duration of sitting)
Type (mode)

100
Q

What are the components of sedentary behaviour?

A

Patterns of sedentary behaviour
Overall volume of sedentary behaviour
Types of sedentary behaviour

101
Q

Define Sleep

A

A condition of body and mind such as that which typically recurs for several hours every night in which the CNS is relatively inactive, the eyes closed, the postural muscles relaxed, and consciousness practically suspended

102
Q

What are the different components of sleep?

A
Quantity
Quality (efficiency of staying asleep)
Timing
Architecture (sleep stages0
Consistency (day-to-day variability)
Continuity (variability in sleep duration within the same night)
103
Q

What are some favrouable associations with physical activity and health between 0-4 years?

A

Motor development
Psychosocial health
Cognitive development
Cardiometabolic health

104
Q

What were some unfavourable associations between sedentary behaviours and health between 0-4 years?

A

Screen-based SD: adiposity, motor development, cognitive development, psychosocial health
Reading/story telling: cognitive development (favourable)

105
Q

What occurs with shorter sleep duration in young children?

A
Higher adiposity
Poorer emotional regulation
Impaired growth
More screen time
High risk of injuries
Mixed/null associations: cognitive/motor development, physical activity, quality of life
106
Q

What are some alternative approaches to health?

A
  1. Nature prescription
  2. Social prescription
  3. Emotional Support Animal prescription
107
Q

What is social prescription?

A

A means of enabling primary care services to refer patients with social, emotional, or practical needs to a range of local, non-clinical services, often provided by the voluntary and community sector

108
Q

What is emotional support animal prescription?

A

Prescribing a companion animal that provides benefit for an individual who suffer from an emotional or mental difficulties

109
Q

What are some plans for public health initiatives for children’s health?

A

Guideline
Report card and global matrix
Partimipaction campaigns: 150 playlist, bring back play, make room for play
Outdoor Play Canada

110
Q

What is the protection paradox?

A

Overprotection, trying to keep them safe, has become keeping them indoors and away from anything considered dangerous play, which has set them up to be less mobile and physically active and at a higher chance for more chronic illness, essentially making them less safe

111
Q

What was the London Transport Workers Study?

A

1949-1952: compared the heart disease rates in bus drivers vs. ticket takers in london. Provided a homogenous group. Found that drivers had a significantly higher incidence and ticket takers had more mild form of heart disease. They then confirmed this in other occupations.

112
Q

Why is physical activity beneficial?

A

It is a stressor. The body adapts to the stress imposed upon it and is challenges most of the systems of the body. The adaptation confers protection against future stressors and you are ablest withstand more stress/perform more physical activity
Ex. Pig from Madame. Zerroni in holes (as the pig grows larger you will grow stronger)

113
Q

What is physical fitness?

A

An individual capacity to dynamically move about their environment and the ability of the cardiovascular, respiratory, and muscular systems to sustain physical activity over a prolonged period of time.

114
Q

Compare prolonger and breaker.

A

Both have the same amount of time.
Prolonger accumulate bigger chunks of sedentary time where as the breaker accumulates smaller but more chunks. Breaker is more healthy.

115
Q

What is a higher cardiorespiratory fitness level associated with?

A
Body composition
Cardiovascular health
Metabolic profile
Cognitive function
Mental health
116
Q

What are the benefits of physical activity as medicine for chronic disease?

A
Improves symptoms/severity
Greater functional capacity (independence and autonomy)
Mental health benefits
Social interactions
Reduces risk of long-term health issues
117
Q

How does CRF effect cognitive function?

A

Children with higher CRF have better cognitive function: memory, attention, self-control (inhibition), decision making abilities
Kids with higher CRF preform better academically

118
Q

Why is sedentary lifestyle so bad?

A

Effectively unloading/destressing most of the bodies systems
Body adapts to new stressor (breakdown of system)
Functionally able to handle less stress

119
Q

What is CRF?

A

Cardiorespiratory fitness
VO2max
Reflects the function of most systems in the body and is a strong predictor of current and future health. Stronger predictor of mortality than smoking, hypertension, or diabetes.

120
Q

What is the fat but fit paradox?

A

Can have a person with a higher weight but are more physical fit versus someone of normal weight. Increase in CRF decreases disease risk regardless of weight.

121
Q

Compare morbidity and mortality

A

Morbidity refers to the state of being diseased or unhealthy within a population, the incidence of ill heath in a population.
Mortality is the term used for the number of people who died within a population, the incidence of death in a population.

122
Q

How common are developmental delays?

A

5-15% o all children have some developmental delays

Common in kids with chronic multi system illness.

123
Q

If you were to repeat the maternal health survey, what would be useful to add or change?

A

??

124
Q

What are some additional guidelines for special populations?

A

Adults with spinal cord injury
Adults with parkinson’s disease
Adults with multiple sclerosis
Physical activity during pregnancy