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1
Q

Which term refers to the body being in equilibrium and stationary?

A

Balance

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2
Q

What is the purpose of stretch shortening cycles?

A

To produce the necessary Force to change the direction of an object center of mass efficiently

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3
Q

Which of the following is a small terminal branch of an artery which ends in capillaries

A

Arteriole

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4
Q

Which movements is the gluteus maximus responsible for?

A

Concentrically accelerating hip extension and external rotation

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5
Q

Pronation of the forearm involves the Inward movement of the forearm in which of the following planes?

A

Transverse

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6
Q

A personal trainer observes a clients knees moving in word while performing the overhead squat assessment. Which of the following muscles are probably under active

A

Gluteus medius and gluteus maximus

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7
Q

Ruby performs self myofascial release and static stretching on a client, following which she performs an overhead squat assessment. Which of the following indicates the need for static standing TFL stretch?

A

The clients knees fall inward

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8
Q

The observation of excess forward lean during an overhead squat assessment is most likely caused by which of the following

A

An overactive abdominal complex and gastrocnemius

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9
Q

Which of the following best describes the purpose of the Davies test assessment

A

Assessing upper extremity agility and stabilization

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10
Q

A client is currently training and the hyper trophy phase of the OPT model. Which phase of the flexibility continuum could be the most appropriate?

A

Active

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11
Q

A personal trainer is working with a client in the phase 5 of the OPT model. Which of the following exercises is appropriate

A

Soccer throw

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12
Q

When working with loads exceeding 90% of maximum, a client would not exceed a workout volume of

A

30 reps

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13
Q

A clients increase in bicep strength from performing dumbbell curls is evidence of which fitness principal

A

Specificity

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14
Q

Exercise that involves a dynamic eccentric and concentric movement of the balancing leg through a full range of motion are categorized as which of the following?

A

Balance strength

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15
Q

When performing a phase for work out, how many repetitions per resistance training exercise should be performed?

A

1 to 5

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16
Q

Which exercise should be avoided if a client exhibits arms falling forward?

A

Lat pull downs

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17
Q

A seated cable row is an example of an exercise from which level in the OPT model?

A

strength

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18
Q

James performs a multiplanar at lunch to balance. After first stepping out into the launch, which of the following should he perform as the next step in this exercise?

A

Push off through the front foot through the heel

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19
Q

What is a multi planner step up to balance an example of?

A

Leg stabilization exercise

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20
Q

Dynamic stretching improve soft tissue extensibility by using which of the following

A

Reciprocal inhibition

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21
Q

When performing the static latissimus dorsi ball stretch, which of the following is a correct body position?

A

Posteriorly rotated pelvis

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22
Q

Sam has joined a gym and has set them self a goal of losing 60 pounds in one year after three months he has only lost 3 pounds what is the following action that Sam should take?

A

Adjust his goal to be more realistic

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23
Q

According to the stages of change model of behavior change, which of the following is true of individuals in the action stage

A. They exhibit complete self control
B they are usually stuck in the same stage for a period of two years
C. It is important to anticipate upcoming disruptions

A

It is important to anticipate upcoming distractions

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24
Q

Clients must learn to identify challenging situations and barriers to exercise. Which of the following processes is best tool for this type of learning

A. Self review
B. Reflection
C. Self analysis
D. Self-monitoring

A

Self-monitoring

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25
Q

What is a primary cause of muscular skeletal degeneration in the adult population?

A

Low back pain

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26
Q

During the concentric action of the gluteus maximus what movement is occurring at the joint?

A. Hip flexion and internal rotation
B. Hip abduction and medial rotation
C. Hip abduction and lateral rotation
D. Hip extension and external rotation

A

Hip extension and external rotation

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27
Q

What is the likely cause of an excessive forward lean during the overhead squat assessment

A

Over active hip flexor complex and Soleus

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28
Q

And obese client who has been diagnosed with Peripheral artery disease should be advised to do which of the following?

A. Focus on resistance training so leg pain will not limit exercise
B. Avoid aerobic exercise for lower extremity’s
C. Substitute self myofascial release for static stretching
D. Strive for 20 to 30 minutes of continuous aerobic exercise daily

A

Strive for 20 to 30 minutes of continuous aerobic exercise daily

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29
Q 
Which of the following assessments would be most appropriate to determine athletes maximal strength capabilities of the upper body pressing musculature
A. Pushing assessment
B. Push-up test
C. Davies test
D. Benchpress one RM test
A

Benchpress one RM test

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30
Q

Which of the following is true for the upper extremity strength assessment?

A. For the greatest degree of accuracy perform 8 to 10 repetitions
B. Perform this assessment for clients with weight loss goals
C. Rest intervals between attend should be 45 minutes
D. Client should warm up with 8 to 10 repetitions using light resistance

A

Client should warm up with 8 to 10 repetitions using light resistance

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31
Q

During static pastoral assessment a personal trainer observes that client has protracted shoulders and forward head. Which of the following muscles is most likely to be shortened
A. Teres minor and posterior deltoid
B. Lower trapezius and rhomboid
C. Sternocleidomastoid and pectoralis major
D. Serratus anterior and infraspinatus

A

Sternocleidomastoid and pectoralis major

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32
Q 
Maximal strength adaptations during resistance training program or best achieved with which of the following rest periods?
A. 3 to 5 minutes
B. 0 to 60 seconds
C.  1 to 2 minutes
D. 0 to 90 seconds
A

3 to 5 Minutes

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33
Q 
Exercises that involve dynamic eccentric and concentric movement of the balance like through a full range of motion are categorized as which of the following?
A. Leg stabilization
B. Balance strength
C. Leg strength
D. Balance stabilization
A

Balance strength

34
Q

Which of the following is specifically employed any resistance training workout in order to develop muscular endurance of the legs?
A. Low loads high velocity contractions performed in a plyometric Manor
B. Exercise that involves Hilow it’s and long rest periods between sets
C. Exercise that involves low repetitions and high loads
D. Exercise involves light weights in high repetitions

A

Exercise that involves lightweights and high repetitions

35
Q

A fitness professional is training a beginner client who is never tried resistance training. How many exercises per body part is most appropriate?

A

1 to 2

36
Q 
Which of the following is the appropriate rest interval when training in the maximal strength phase?
A. 30 seconds
B. Three minutes
C. Six minutes
D. 60 seconds
A

Three minutes

37
Q 
Which of the following percentages of ATP in PC recovery result from a rest interval of 40 seconds between sets of resistance exercises?
A. 50%
B. 25%
C. 75%
D.  100%
A

75%

38
Q 
Resistance should be positioned to resist scapular depression and retraction during which one of the following exercises?
A. Dumbbell chest press
B. Standing cable row
C.  Standing tricep extension
D.Bicep curl
A

Standing cable row

39
Q 
Dynamic stretching and proves soft tissue extensibility by using which of the following?
A. Davis’s law
B. Reciprocal inhibition
C. Wolfes law
D.  Autogenic inhibition
A

Reciprocal inhibition

40
Q 
Multiplanar single leg box hop up with stabilization is categorized as an exercise in which of the following?
A. Leg power
B.  Balance stabilization
C. Leg stabilization
D.  Balance power
A

Balance power

41
Q 
For which exercise is a single leg position a progression?
A. Kneeling cable rotation
B. Medicine ball chest pass
C.  Back extension
D.  Floor crunch
A

Medicine ball chest pass

42
Q 
In order to properly stretch the hamstrings during the active supine Bicep femoris stretch, the client will need to contract which of the following during the extension?
A. Gastrocnemius
B.  Quadriceps
C.  Adductors
D.  Gluteus maximus
A

Quadriceps

43
Q 
Resistance should be positioned to resist shoulder horizontal adduction during which of the following exercises?
A. Standing cable crunch
B.  Standing triceps extension
C. Standing cable row
D.  Standing cable chest press
A

Standing cable chest press

44
Q

During sprinting, backside mechanics include which of the following motions?
A. Ankle inversion knee abduction and hip external rotation
B. Ankle plantar flexion knee extension and hip extension
C. Ankle eversion knee addiction and hip internal rotation
D. Ankle Dorsiflexion knee flexion and hip flexion

A

Ankle plantar flexion knee extension and hip extension

45
Q 
What is a multiplanar single leg box hop up with stabilization an example of?
A. Balance stabilization exercise
B. Balance power exercise
C. Balance strength exercise
D. Balance modification exercise
A

Balance power exercise

46
Q 
What are influences that involve cohesion in an exercise setting
A. Exercise group
B.  Parental
C. Family
D. Exercise leader
A

Exercise group

47
Q

In the context of the stages of change model which of the following corresponds to a stage where people do not exercise but are thinking of becoming more active in the next six

A

Contemplation

48
Q

The resting length of a muscle and the tension in the muscle can produce at this resting length

A

Length Tension relationship

49
Q

Muscle groups moving together to produce movement around a joint

A

Force couple relationship

50
Q

Simultaneous contraction of one muscle and the relaxation of its antagonist to allow movement to take place

A

Reciprocal inhibition

51
Q

The concept of muscle inhibition caused by a tight agonist which inhibits it’s functional Antagonist

A

Altered reciprocal inhibition

52
Q

The neuromuscular phenomenon that occurs when inappropriate muscle take over the function of a weam or inhibited prime mover

A

Synergistic dominance

53
Q

What phase of the OPT model in proves muscle and balances, stabilization of the core musculature, prevents tissue overload by preparing muscles tendons ligaments and joints for upcoming demands of training, improves overall cardio respiratory and neuromuscular condition, establishes proper movement patterns and exercise techniques, increases stability increases muscular endurance increases neuromuscular efficiency of the core musculature

A

Stabilization

54
Q

What phase of the OPT model entails the use of superset techniques which a more stable exercise is immediately followed with a stabilization exercise with similar biomechanical motions?

A

Strength endurance

55
Q

What phase of the OPT model focuses on increasing the load placed on the tissues of the body

A

Maximal strength

56
Q

What phase of the OPT model and Hanses neuromuscular efficiency, prime mover strength, Rita force production, focuses on both hi for us and velocity to increase power?

A

Power

57
Q

What type of flexibility uses SMR And dynamic stretching? It also requires integrated multiplanar soft tissue extensibility with optimal neuromuscular control through a full range of motion or essentially movement without compensation’s

A

Functional flexibility

58
Q

What type of flexibility is designed to improve the extensibility of soft tissue and increase neuromuscular efficiency by using reciprocal inhibition?

A

Active flexibility

59
Q

What type of flexibility is designed to increase joint range of motion improved muscle and balances and correct altered joint motion?

A

Corrective flexibility

60
Q

The rate of force production relates to the ability of muscles to do which of the following?
A. Decrease the reaction time of the muscle action spectrum
B. Exert maximal force output in a minimal amount of time
C. Release energy in a controlled manner
D. React to a stimulant without hesitation.

A

Exert maximal force output in a minimal amount of time.

61
Q

Excess intake if vitamin D can lead to which of the following?

A.Bone and joint pain
B. Calcification of the arteries
C. Loss of hair
D. Osteopenia

A

Calcification of the arteries

62
Q

As the velocity of muscle contraction increases, the ability to produce force decreases for which part of the muscle action spectrum?

A

Concentric

63
Q

What refers to a position on the same side of the body?

A. Ipsilateral
B. Anterior
C. Proximal
D. Medial

A

Ipsilateral

64
Q

Which method of cardio should be avoided for a client who demonstrates low back arching as a movement compensation?

A. Group exercise class
B. Bicycle
C. Treadmill
D. Elliptical trainer

A

Bicycle

65
Q

Which of the following most accurately describes and individual with a bmi of 29?

A. Overweight
B. Underweight
C. Normal
D. Obese

A

Overweight

66
Q

What measurement needs to be taken before client does the Rockport walk test?

A

Weight

67
Q

In a client with lower crossed syndrome, which muscle is lengthened?

A.erector spinae
B. Soleus
C. Glute max
D. Gastrocnemius

A

Glute max

68
Q

Which of the following exercises is also a dynamic stretch?

A. Active latissimus Doris ball stretch
B. Step up to balance
C. Single leg squat touchdown
D. Static 90/90 hamstring stretch

A

Single leg squat touchdown.

69
Q

Which of the following is specifically employed in a resistance training workout in order to develop muscular endurance of the legs?

a. Exercises that involve light weights and high repetitions.
b. Exercises that involve high loads and long rest periods between sets.
c. Low-load, high-velocity contractions performed in a plyometric manner.
d. Exercises that involve low repetitions and high loads.

A

Exercises that involve light weights and low repetitions

70
Q

Exercises that involve dynamic eccentric and concentric movement of the balance leg through a full range of motion are categorized as which of the following?

a. Leg-stabilization
b. Balance-strength
c. Balance-stabilization
d. Leg-strength

A

Balance strength

71
Q

When performing an active kneeling hip flexor stretch, internally rotating the rear leg will place a greater stretch on which of the following muscles?

a. Tensor fascia latae
b. Adductor brevis
c. Psoas
d. Pectineus

A

Psoas

72
Q 
Resistance should be positioned to resist scapular depression and retraction during which of the following exercises?
Select one:
a. Biceps curl
b. Standing cable row
c. Standing triceps extension
d. Dumbbell chest press
A

Standing cable row

73
Q 
What is a multiplanar single-leg box hop-up with stabilization an example of?
Select one:
a. Balance-power exercise
b. Balance-strength exercise
c. Balance-stabilization exercise 
d. Balance-modification exercise
A

Balance power exercise

74
Q

Which of the following is the most appropriate spotting technique for a dumbbell chest press?
Select one:
a. Place the hands close to the client’s wrists.
b. Place hands just under the client’s triceps.
c. Place the hands just under the client’s elbows.
d. Place the hands just under the client’s dumbbells.

A

Place the hands close to the clients wrist

75
Q 
What is a multiplanar step-up to balance an example of?
Select one:
a. Balance-modification exercise
b. Leg-stabilization exercise
c. Balance-power exercise
d. Balance-stabilization exercise
A

Leg stabilization exercise

76
Q 
Which of the following is a strategy used in Maximal Strength training?
Select one:
a. Low loads
b. Longer rest periods
c. High repetitions
d. Low volume
A

Longer rest periods

77
Q 
What type of support is tangible and practial to help a person adhere to exercise or achieve their goals?
Select one:
a. Instrumental support
b. Companionship support
c. Emotional support 
d. Informational support
A

Instrumental support

78
Q

Which of the following is a SMART goal?
Select one:

a. “Now that I have a gym membership, I will lose 10 pounds by exercising every day.”
b. “I will lose 20 pounds by reducing my calories to 1,200 per day and hiring a personal trainer.”
c. “I will reduce my body weight by exercising as much as I can five days per week and eating a reduced-calorie diet.”
d. “I will lose 10 pounds in eight weeks by exercising 50 minutes a day, three days per week.”

A

I will lose 10 pounds in 8 weeks by exercising 50 min a day, three days per week

79
Q 
A client exercises occasionally and plans to regularly participate in a structured exercise program next month. In which of the following sections of the stages of change model is this client?
Select one:
a. Action 
b. Preparation
c. Maintenance
d. Contemplation
A

Preparation

80
Q

Which of the following is an acceptable form of continuing education?
Select one:
a. Completion of an apprenticeship at a qualified institution
b. Speaking at a conference on a topic related to health and fitness
c. Documentation of hands-on work experience
d. An online CPR and AED certification that is at least 2 hours in duration

A

Speaking at a conference on a topic related to health and fitness

Nasm Final (1 decks)

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