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Clinical dental hyg. 2 final exam > FINAL > Flashcards

FINAL Flashcards

1
Q

What do you use to remind a deaf patient of there appointment?

A

Use the state telecommunication relay service to all a deaf patient directly with appointment reminders. This service allows individuals with hearing and speech impairments to place and receive telephone calls.

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2
Q

Always announce absence in the case of a blind person you may also have to

A

fill out paperwork

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3
Q

Legal blindness is defined as having central vision of no more than

A

20/200 in the better eye with correction (glasses) or having peripheral fields side vision of no more than 20 degree diameter.

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4
Q

Although visual modes of communication provide a primary method of communication with most individuals, audible and touch approaches are essential for the person with visual impairment.

A

true

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5
Q

double vision perception of two images of a single object

A

diplopia

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6
Q

The Ada specifies that communications with individuals with hearing and vision impairments need to be as effective as communications with non impaired people, and appropriate —— aids must be provided

A

auxillary

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7
Q

What are reasons for ill fitting dentures in the critically ill?

A

weight loss

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8
Q

What are contraindications for patients with dry mouth.

A

Elderly patients usage of alcohol rinse.

Some patients have to close there mouths more often.

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9
Q

The role of the dental hygienist for a unconscious patient is

A

Evaluate patients oral care needs
plan and conduct an oral health in service program for nursing staff or other care givers
include hands on demonstration and practice in training
motivate the caregiver to provide daily car

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10
Q

When would you use a portable headrest on the back of a wheel chair?

A

When you cannot transfer the patient

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11
Q

How many visits should be scheduled for a homebound difficult patient

A

as many as needed

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12
Q

Objectives of care for a hospice patient for the dental hyg. would be

A

Provide intra oral extra oral screening to triage patients who need treatment by a dentist
assist in preventing further complication of the patients health status by identifying oral infections and other problems
provide routine screening to detect lesions that may be pathological particularly those that may be early cancer
provide treatment and education interventions to prevent dental caries and periodontal infection that require extensive treatment
encourage adequate daily personal oral care whether performed by the patient or caregiver
provide palliative care for the individual with short ended life span

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13
Q

When providing patient care in any situation the rule is

A

know before you go

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14
Q

Before going to a hospice patient

A

provide medical history form in advance for patient to complete and return

monitor medication lists carefully especially when the patient takes multiple prescription or over the counter preparation

telephone before visit to clarify responses or ask questions

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15
Q

Dealing with homebound patient you must consider

A

patients age, chronic medical conditions, medications, disability, or physical limitation.

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16
Q

Where do homebound patients usually reside?

A

Group homes, nursing homes

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17
Q

What mouth rinse should be used after surgery?

A

Salt water

do not rinse for 24 hours after surgery
warm salt water 1/2 teaspoon full in 1/2 cup warm water after toothbrushing and every 2 hours

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18
Q

Platinum mesh is not used

A

for the immobilization of the tooth

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19
Q

A ——- is classified by using a combination of descriptive words for its location direction nature and severity

A

fracture

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20
Q

fractures may be

A

single multiple bilateral or unilateral complete or incomplete

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21
Q

—– has no communication wit outside

A

simple

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22
Q

—— has communication with outside

A

compound

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23
Q

—– is shattered

A

comminuted

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24
Q

“Green stick” fracture has one side of a bone broken and the other side bent.

A

incomplete

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25
Q

incomplete fractures usually occur in

A

incomplete calcified bones (young children usually)

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26
Q

in incomplete fractures the fibers

A

tend to bend rather than break

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27
Q

Mandibular described by location

A 
alveolar process
condyle
angle
body
sympysis
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28
Q

The alveoloar process fracture does not extend to

A

the midline of the palate

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29
Q

The le fort classification is used widely to identify the three general levels of

A

maxillary fractures

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30
Q

A horizontal fracture line that extends above the roots of the teeth above the palate across the maxillary sinus below the zygomatic processand across the pterygoid plates

A

le fort 1

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31
Q

the midface fracture extends over the middle of the nose down the medial wall of the orbits across the infraorbital rims and posteriorly across the pterygoid plates

A

le fort 2

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32
Q

the high level craniofacial fracture exends transversely across the bridge of the nose, across the orbits and the zygomatic arches and across the pterygoid plates

A

le fort 3

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33
Q

a combination of two levels is also possible such as rigt le fort 1 and le fort 2

A

le fort combination

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34
Q

What clinical signs may a patient present with a fractured jaw

A

pain displaced teeth irregular occlusion muscle spasms

35
Q

promotion of healing food wise

A

proteins vitamins particularly vitamin a vitamin c and riboflavin

36
Q

What is a essential for building gingival tissue resistance

A

a varied diet that includes adequate portions of all essential food groups

37
Q

When a patient has not been able to masticate properly the diet employed frequently may have included intake of

A

soft and cariogenic foods
frequent sugary snacks
intake of high sucrose energy beverages

38
Q

fractures are described in four descriptive words

A

location
severeity
nature
direction

39
Q

Intermaxillary fixation would not work for patients who

A

have chronic airway diseases who cough and expectorate
patients who vomit alot
dietary problems patients lose weight with liquid, motonous diet

40
Q

What is an open reduction used for?

A

to bring fractured parts together

anatomic reduction
functionally stable fixation
atraumatic surgical technique
active function
prevention of infection
41
Q

How long does it take for a uncomplicated mandibular fracture to heal

A

6 weeks if uncomplicated

max take 4-6 weeks

42
Q

A compound fracture has

A

an exposed bone

43
Q

Greenstick fracture has

A

a fractured cortex or bent cortex

44
Q

There is a simple —- and compound —–

A

comminuted fracture

45
Q

What is preferred way to stop bleeding post surgery at home?

A

bite on a tea bag or pressure gauze

46
Q

Risk factors that cause clefting

A

tobacco use
alch. use
teratagenic agents phenytoin vitamin a corticosteroids drugs of abuse
greaer than 40 years maternal
lack of prenatal care
inadequate diet vitamins def folic acid deficiency

47
Q

incidence of multiple congeinatl anomalies is high wit

A

cleft lip or palate

in more than 300 disorders cleft lip cleft palate or both represent one feature of a syndrome.

48
Q

What weeks does the cleft palate lips form during gestation

A

lips 4-8 weeks

palate 6-12

49
Q

a prosthesis designed to close a congenital or an acquired opening such as a cleft of the hard palate

A

obturator

device allowing them to eat

50
Q

Classes of cleft lip/palate

A

Class 1- cleft of the tip of the uvula
Class 2- cleft of the uvula (bifid uvulua)
Class 3-Cleft of the soft palate
Class 4-cleft of the soft and hard palates
Class 5- cleft of the soft and hard palates that continues throug the alveolar ridge on one side of he premaxilla usually associated with cleft lip on same side
class 6- cleft of the soft and hard palates that continues through the alveolar ridge on both sides leaving a free premaxilla usually associated with bilateral cleft lip
Class 7- submucous cleft in which the muscle union is imperfect across the soft palate . The palate is short the uvula is often bifid a groove is situated at the midline of the soft palate and the closure to the pharynx is incompetent.

51
Q

A cleft lip becomes apparent by the end of te

A

second month in utero

52
Q

if a child has a cleft lip / palate on same side/one side

A

it is a class 5

53
Q

Incomplete fusion of the maxillary process and globular is what causes

A

cleft lip

54
Q

oral manifestations of cleft palate

A

maloclusion
mouth breathing
poorly formed teeth

55
Q

bone grating is associated with

A

alveolar graft/ palatal tissue

56
Q

Best time to start ortho on cleft can be completed when

A

there is mixed dentition, it does not matter what is erupted

routine cleaning and fl.

57
Q

Cleft palate recall in

A

3-4 months

58
Q

steer people away from dietary wise

A

soft foods because they are carbs

59
Q

Shadowing of the bone fracture

A

compound and commuted

60
Q

how many times a day do you clean a unconscious patient

A

3 times

short term pallative care

61
Q

Never give a patient with dry mouth

A

lemon

62
Q

What is used to call a deaf patient directly with appointment reminders This service allows individuals with hearing and speech impairments to place and recieve phone calls

A

telecommunication relay service

63
Q

a cleft palate is evident by the end of the

A

third month

64
Q

Highest rates of cleft lips are in

A

asians and native americans 1 in 500 births

65
Q

the dental hyg may participate in suture removal irrigation of sockets and other postsurgical procedures when the patient returns

A

true

66
Q

is accomplished by applying wires and or elastic bands between the maxillary and mandibular arches

A

IMF intermaxillary fixation

67
Q

Two special bone screws are placed via skin incsions on either side of the fractures . An acrylic bar is molded and while still is pliable is pressed over the threads of the bone screws and locked onto position with the screw nuts

A

External skeletal fixation

68
Q

area freely accessible to all without discrimination on the basis of a disabillity obstacles to passage or communication have been removed

A

barrier free

69
Q

The ada defines an individual with a disability as a person who

A

has a physical or mental impariment that substantially limits one or more major life activities

has a record of such impairments

or is regarded as having such impairment

70
Q

hereditary conditions that manifest symtpoms before age 21

A

developmental

71
Q

cause by chronic disease such as multiple schleroiss acute medical conditions such as stroke or trauma spinal chord injury

A

accquired

72
Q

usually after age 65 and related to a chronic health condition such as arthritis or parkinsons

A

age associated

73
Q

some types of impairment can manifest as a stable condition other may cause progressive disability

A

true

74
Q

an estimated 8 percent of individuals 16-64 and almost 6 percent of children 5-15 are affected by a disability and the number

A

is increasing

75
Q

as life expectancy increases so does the likelihood of

A

acquiring a disability

76
Q

a —- foot wide walkway is needed for wheelchair

A

3

77
Q

additional features are need for other specific disabilities for example

A

braile floor indicators can be installed beside the numbers on elevators or doorways

78
Q

doorways are atleast

A

32 inches wide

79
Q

the dental chair is able to lower

A

19 incches from floor and accessible from both sides

80
Q

Level 0

A

high functioning can do most anything by themselves

81
Q

Level one and two

A

moderate

capable of carrying out a least part of there oral hyg needs but require training

82
Q

level 3

A

low functioning

unable to attend there own care

83
Q

a person who cannot hear as well as someone with normal hearing is referred to as

A

hearing loss

Clinical dental hyg. 2 final exam (1 decks)

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