FINAL Flashcards
1
Q
The Animal Welfare Act
a. functions to ensure humane care and treatment of pets
b. functions to ensure that animals intended for exhibition purposes are provided humane care
c. does not explicitly to ensure humane care of farm animals raised for food and fiber
d. is enforced by the Humane Society of the United States
A
a, b, c
2
Q
Animal care procedures that protect animals from disease include
a. vaccination against specific pathogens
b. creating stress to stimulate immune function
c. isolating recently acquired animals from others
d. disinfecting boots before entering a new facility
A
a, c, d
3
Q
According to Idaho Statutes, you may not do which of the following to animals
a. impound without food or water
b. change feed without adaptation
c. abandon animals left with a veterinarian
d. exhibit a dog at an obedience or agility event
A
a, c
4
Q
Which 2 factors increase flight zone?
a. sudden movement
b. training of the animal
c. sudden, loud noises
d. radio playing in the background
A
a, c
5
Q
Which term best describes the overall physiological, health, and behavioral state of an animal in addition to social factors such as public expectations?
a. Animal Science
b. Animal by-product
c. Animal welfare
d. Animal well-being
A
c
6
Q
Which 2 factors influence temperament in animals?
a. Genetics
b. Environment
c. Feeding time
d. Age
A
a, b
7
Q
______ women in AVS 209 are not allowed to assist ewes that are lambing at the UI sheep center due to risk of exposure to Coxiella burnetii, which causes Q fever in humans.
A
Pregnant
8
Q
At the University of Idaho, all applications for use of animals are pre-reviewed by _______, before review by the Institutional Animal Care and Use Committee (IACUC). (You may either state the person to the position he is it)
A
The Campus Vet
9
Q
The three R’s that refer to alternatives to animal use include ______ of techniques to reduce pain and distress, ______ of conscious living vertebrates with non-sentient material, and ______ in the number of animals used.
A
refinement
replacement
reduction
10
Q
_____ is an emotion that motivates animals to avoid predators. _____ is a hormone often measured to get an indication of how strongly this emotion is expressed.
A
fear
cortisol
11
Q
_____ were re-introduced into Idaho as an endangered species in the mid-90’s and have re-established population. Animal producers are most affected by this species through _____, a phenomenon where wildlife preys on domestic species like cattle. In addition to animal producers, this predator population impacts environmentalists, wildlife activists, and state governments. Together, these groups can come together to _____ meetings so that all groups can highlight their viewpoints and improve the potential for balanced and informed decision-making.
A
Wolves
depredation
stakeholders
12
Q
In addition to human exposure to allergens, what are two other different kinds of risks that working with animals can expose humans to? For each risk mentioned, explain one way to minimize the risk.
A
physical risk: know the animals you are working with
risk of disease (infection): wear proper clothing when working with the animals
13
Q
Identify 3 good handling practices that apply to large animals.
A
- handle in smaller herds
- apply minimal pressure
- be calm
14
Q
Aquaculture growth is driven primarily by which 2 factors?
a. Global population growth
b. Overfished oceans
c. Improved palatability of fish
d. Animal welfare
A
a, b
15
Q
Which of the followings not an example of an alternate protein source in aquaculture?
a. Yeast
b. Blood meal
c. Feather meal
d. Fish meal
A
d
16
Q
Which breed of dairy cow is most abundant in the US dairy industry?
a. Guernsey
b. Ayrshire
c. Jersey
d. Holstein
A
d
17
Q
Unlike hares, rabbits
a. are relatively small and have small ears
b. are atrial, or born without hair and sight
c. do not have a functional cecum
d. are more variable in color
A
a, b, d
18
Q
With regard to disease prevention
a. host barriers such as skin, hair, and secretions provide an initial line of defense
b. innate immunity includes the initial cell mediated response to an antigen (i. e by macrophages)
c. animals experiencing transportation stress mount a more effective immune response than normal
d. genetic selection is an effective strategy to improve disease resistance
A
a, b, d
19
Q
Vaccines
a. may contain live, modified, or dead organisms
b. may be administered by oral, subcutaneous, intramuscular, or intranasal routes
c. stimulate an initial increase in IgM, and a larger increase in IgG following second exposure
d. stimulate a protective immune response to disease, but do not cure already diseased animals
A
a, b, c, d
20
Q
In terms of annual tonnage produced globally, the largest group of fish is _____.
A
carp
21
Q
_____ is a breed of cow known for its high milk fat, while _____ is a breed of cow known for its high milk production.
A
Jersey
Holstein
22
Q
Idaho is in the top 5 of US states in terms of milk production. Two of the other major dairy producing states are _____ and _____.
A
Wisconsin
California
23
Q
Most of Idaho’s 580,000 cow dairy industry is located in _____ where average herd size is 1300 dairy cows.
A
Southern Idaho
Twin Falls County
Magic Valley
24
Q
Rabbits are classified as _____, because they have two sets of incisors teeth on their upper jaw, They also have open-rooted incisors that grow continuously. A common feed for rabbits is grass, oat, or alfalfa _____. Rabbits derive B-vitamins and _____ (nutrient) by practicing cecotrophy, which refers to consumption of a soft fecal pellet.
A
lagomorphia
hay
protein
25
Rabbits have a gestation period of approximately _____ days, and the term used to describe a rabbit giving birth is _____.
28-30
| kindling
26
In class, we talked about 3 different systems of fish farming. Name 2 of the 3; for each, explain what makes that system unique.
Intensive: human control, we decide what they eat and they don't live in a natural environment
Extensive: completely natural, including living and feeding
Semi-Intensive: they live naturally but we feed them what we want them to eat.
27
Provide one recommended management practice that can reduce overgrown teeth in rabbits.
You can allow them to chew on different things that are reasonably healthy for them
28
Name the 5 major components of milk. Identify which component is most abundant, which is the most valuable, and which is most variable.
```
Water-87%
Lactose-4.9%
Fat-3%
Protein-3%
minerals/vitamins-<1%
Most abundant- Water
Most valuable- lactose
Most variable- lactose
```
29
Name the three components of the disease triad; explain how 1 of the components contributes to the risk of diseases in the population of animals.
Host, Agent, and environment which is known as the disease triad.
The host contributes because it goes into the immunity section of the risk of disease, and if one doesn't have a good immunity then they are more at risk of disease.
30
Institutional Animal Care and Use Committee (s) (ACUC)
a. review all animal use forms
b. approve animal use in AVS 209
c. ensure compliance with humane treatment regulations
d. were established under the Ag Guide
a, b, c
31
The Animal Welfare Act
a. is enforced by APHIS, which is a branch of USDA
b. functions to ensure that animals intended for use in research are provided humane care
c. functions to ensure humane care and treatment of pets
d. functions to ensure humane care of animals during transportation in commerce
a, b, c, d
32
In the US, corn has mainly been used for food and feed purposes. In the past 30 years, a new, and increasingly important, product of corn is:
a. syrup
b. fertilizer
c. propane
d. ethanol
d
33
Which animal used less energy when it's standing than when it's laying down?
a. horse
b. cow
c. donkey
d. dog
a
34
Which country is the world leader in aquaculture?
a. Brazil
b. United States
c. India
d. China
d
35
Which fish is most abundant in aquaculture in terms of total tonnage produced annually?
a. Orange roughy
b. Tuna
c. Salmonids
d. Carp
d
36
Colostrum has a considerably higher protein component than milk. What accounts for the higher protein concentration in colostrum vs. milk?
a. Albumin
b. Whey
c. Casein
d. Antibodies
d
37
Which of the following is the milk producing structure in the mammary gland?
a. Alveolus
b. Teat cistern
c. Duct
d. Streak Canal
a
38
What is the principal reason average daily gain (ADG) is limited in growing heifers?
a. control feed costs
b. prevent over fattening mammary gland
c. reduced environmental impact
d. genetic limitations
b
39
Rabbits
a. live in groups and a warren is a group of burrows
b. are altricial, or born without hair and sight
c. are ruminants
d. have open-rooted teeth that continue growing
a, b, d
40
The term for a baby rabbit is
a. buck
b. doe
c. fryer
d. kit
d
41
With regard to disease prevention
a. the three primary factors to consider are the host, agent, and environment
b. inadequate nutrition or lack of rest may reduce an animal's immune response
c. vaccine stimulate the body's humoral immunity to increase antibody production
d. animals experiencing physical or psychological stress will respond best to vaccines
a, b, c
42
What is the first step disease diagnosis?
a. establish deviation from normal
b. establish what is normal
c. utilize signs, history, and diagnostic tests
d. none of the above
b
43
With climate changing, droughts are becoming more common across the US, which can affect the agriculture industry though _____, _____, and _____
mortality
morbidity
crop production
44
A steroid hormone that is often measured to determine the degree stress can animal experiences is _____.
cortisol
45
While Holland Lop and Mini Rex are popular show rabbits, the _____ is one of the most popular meat breeds. A meat "fryer" would be expected to gain ~0.5 lb per week, with a feed conversion ratio (feed:gain) of ~__:1.
Californian
| 4
46
The process by which milk fat is evenly distributed in liquid milk is _____.
homogenization
47
The time period 6 weeks before and 6 weeks after calving is known as the _____. Another term for calving is _____, which is a general term for giving birth. Immediately after calving, the dam's fat supplies are mobilized to provide energy for milk. During this time, the cow is in a state of _____, which presents a higher risk for metabolic disease. If the dam lacks the necessary body fat stores to provide energy, the dam is at risk for _____ If the dam has an overabundance of body fat stores, the dam is at risk for _____.
```
transition period
parturition
negative energy balance
ketosis
fatty-liver disease
```
48
Rabbits derive B-vitamins and protein by practicing _____, which refers to consumption of a soft fecal pellet.
cecotrophy
49
A respiratory disease caused by Pasteurella bacteria in rabbits results in sneezing and discharge from the nose and eyes. The common name of the disease is _____.
sniffles
50
The U.S. beef industry
a. has a majority of beef cow operations with fewer than 50 cows
b. makes use of feed resources that are not consumable by humans
c. has fewer cattle than India, Brazil, and produces more beef
d. produces beef more efficiently than all countries except Australia, which has abundant grass.
a, b, c
51
Compared with the beef industry in 1977, the current U.S. beef industry
a. has more cows
b. produce more greenhouse gas
c. requires less feed, land, and water to produce more beef
d. produces younger but heavier market cattle
c, d
52
Regarding breeds of cattle
a. Longhorn cattle were the first breed to receive federal support to avoid their extinction in the U.S.
b. Limousin cattle may have a myostatin gene polymorphism that increase their muscularity
c. Hereford cattle are known for their docility and the ability perform well in range conditions
d. Beefmaster, Brangus, and Santa Gertrudis are all more heat tolerant than shorthorn cattle
a, b, c, d
53
Regarding breeds of beef cattle
a. Black Angus are polled and are known for maternal traits and desirable carcass traits
b. Simmental originated as dual-purpose cattle, but have been selected for growth rate in the U.S.
c. Charolais can be horned or polled, and are known for muscularity and growth rate
d. Piedmontese are commonly double muscled and have more dystocia than most other breeds
a, b, c, d
54
Which of the following have higher total energy and protein requirements than a 1300 lb dry (non-lactating) cow in late gestation?
a. 1100 lb dry cow in late gestation
b. 1300 lb dry cow in mid gestation
c. 1450 lb dry cow in late gestation
d. 1300 lb cow producing 10 lbs of milk
c, d
55
In a terminal crossbreeding Program
a. a sire breed with strong maternal traits is most desirable, since replacement female will be kept
b. improvements in weaning weight of at least 8.5% due to heterosis should be obtained
c. a breeding season of 60 days will result in a relatively uniform calf crop, which is desirable
d. a three breed cross will produce more improvement in weaning weight than a two breed cross
b, c, d
56
A two breed rotational crossbreeding system
a. requires two breeding pastures unless A.I. is used
b. is a strategy to maintain two purebred cow herds
c. yields more improvements due to breed complementarity and heterosis than purebred cattle
d. should used two breeds with some maternal ability, since daughters will be kept as replacements
a, c, d
57
To ensure a higher percentage of bred cows and heifers
a. bulls should undergo breeding soundness exams, which include semen tests
b. one should expect yearling bulls to breed fewer cows than mature bulls
c. cows should be in Body Condition Score 5 or 6 instead of 3 or 9
d. heifers should weigh ~65% of their mature weight at a breeding age of ~14 months
a, b, c, d
58
True or False
The Maine-Anjou breed is a common club calf (club) sires, and these cattle are know for their marbling, calving ease, docility, and freedom of genetic defects.
False
59
True or False
The cattle industry is the largest single component of agriculture in the U.S., and dairy and beef cattle are the two largest agriculture industries in Idaho in terms of cash receipts.
True
60
True or False
Winter feed costs typically represent 35 to 40% of the gross revenue of cow-calf producers, so maximizing use of inexpensive feedstuffs to exactly meet the cow's needs is important.
True
61
Consumption of lush, rapidly growing alfalfa pasture may lead to formation of a foam or frothy layer on top of the rumen liquid. This blocks the release or gas and causes a condition called _____.
Bloat
62
_____ in beef cattle is usually observed in the spring, when rapidly growing cool-season grasses tend to have low uptake of magnesium. In contrast, white muscle disease typically results from a deficiency in the mineral _____. The best way to prevent the latter is to supplement this mineral year-round, and also ensure adequate vitamin _____.
Grass-tetany
Selenium
E
63
Stocker and backgrounder cattle
a. are often fed crop residues or forage
b. typically gain >3 pounds per day
c. are typically cattle that have recently been weaned
d. commonly exhibit acidosis due to high protein
a, c
64
Feedlot cattle
a. usually take 3 weeks or more to adapt to a finishing ration containing both grain and forage
b. may receive non-protein nitrogen, soybean meal, or canola meal as a protein source
c. will generally exhibit compensatory growth if thin when entering the feedlot
d. will generally produce a lower % Choice carcasses if they acquire respiratory disease
a, b, c, d
65
Desirable characteristics of breeding livestock include
a. adequate flex to the hock and pasterns
b. spring of rib and width through chest
c. above average EPD's for growth and birthing ease
d. long, wide, and level hip structure
a, b, c, d
66
Indicators of muscularity in livestock include
a. fullness of jowl or brisket
b. width of leg placement
c. depth of flank
d. thickness in the forearm and from stifle to stifle
b, d
67
During breeding female selection
a. gilts with blind or inverted nipples should be culled
b. animals with too little angle in their joints should be culled before animals with too much flex
c. an infantile vulva may indicate an under-developed reproductive tract
d. structural correctness is the most important indicator of longevity
a, b, c, d
68
Which of the following have contributed to the declining sheep numbers in the U.S.
a. less demand for wool
b. declining lamb consumption
c. competition for range lands
d. inability of rams to successfully breed ewes
a, b, c
69
Regarding breeds of sheep:
a. Suffolk sheep, a sure breed known for rapid growth and meat quality, are most common in the U.S.
b. Dorset sheep, a white faced meat breed, are known for being "out of season" breeders
c. Rambouillet are a fine wool breed used in development of both Targhee and Columbia breeds
d. East Friesian sheep can produce over 1100 lbs of milk in a 220 day lactation
a, b, c, d
70
Compared with a farm-flock sheep production, range flocks typically
a. are larger
b. have fewer disease outbreaks
c. have larger death losses during lambing
d. have less investment in facilities
a, b, c, d
71
Which are recommended management a few weeks before or shortly after lambing?
a. open teats, or "strip" ewe shortly after lambing
b. vaccinate ewes pre-lambing against Clostridium Perfringens to prevent enterotoxemia in lambs
c. clip the umbilical cord and iodine navel of newborn lambs
d. ensure lambs get colostrum shortly after birth
a, b, c, d
72
True or False
Growth promoting implants are placed in the ears of cattle, and often contain a combination of estrogenic and androgenic steroid hormones. These are commonly used by the U.S. feedlot industry to increase average daily gain and improve efficiency of cattle
True
73
True or False
Lambs raised in a feedlot will typically gain between 0.5 and 1 pound per day, and over 95% of the market lambs produced in the United States will grade Choice or Prime.
True
74
True or False
Sheep's milks sometimes used for cheese production, and since it has ~18% milk solids non-fat, a pound of sheep milk will produce about twice as much cheese as a pound of cow's milk.
True
75
The estrous cycle of a ewe is approximately _____ days. If she becomes pregnant, normal gestation length is ~_____ days. While the average lambing rate is 1.3 lambs per ewe, an ideal rate would be _____ lambs per ewe, because the ewe has _____.
17
147
2
the ewe has 2 teats, 2:2
76
Prior to breeding, the common practice of increasing the ewe's plane of nutrition to stimulate estrus and increase ovulation rate is known as _____. Provide a scenario when a producer may not be motivated to use this management practice: _____.
Flushing
| If the ewe is already having triplets
77
_____ feeding provides an area where young nursing animals can have access to high quality starter feeds, while their mother's do not have access to this feed. This may be a practical way to increase lamb weight gains, especially when forage is _____ (limiting or plentiful).
creep
| limiting
78
Compared to when beef cow numbers were highest in the U.S., the current U.S. beef industry
a. produces less total manure and methane
b. has larger, more productive cattle
c. produces more total beef
d. requires less total feed, water, and land
a, b, c, d
79
Regarding breeds of beef cattle
a. Red Angus may be either horned or polled
b. Brangus are more heat tolerant than Angus
c. Shorthorn originated as dual-purpose cattle
d. Charolais bulls should be muscular and growthy
b, c, d
80
Black Angus cattle
a. are noted for being maternal and producing high quality beef
b. are commonly crossed with Hereford to produce black-baldies
c. originated in France
d. are polled
a, b, d
81
A three breed rotational crossbreeding system
a. increase benefits from heterosis compared with two breed crosses
b. is a strategy to maintain three purebred cow herds
c. should produce more improvement in weaning weight than two breed rotational cross breeding
d. generally requires more cows and breeding pastures than two breed systems
a, c, d
82
Regarding beef cow Body Condition Scores (BCS)
a. a BCS 1 cow is emaciated and weak, and BCS 5 or 6 are ideal
b. BCS 8 or 9 costs less to maintain that BCS 4 cows because they are "easy keepers"
c. BCS 3 cows generally have lower conception rates and lower calf vigor than BCS 5 cows
d. BCS 9 cows have the highest pregnancy rates and lowest incidence of dystocia
a, c
83
Which of the following have lower total energy and protein requirements than a 1300 lb dry (non-lactating) cow in late gestation?
a. 1100 lb dry cow in late gestation
b. 1300 lb dry cow in mid gestation
c. 1300 lb postpartum cow producing 10 lbs or milk
d. 1400 lb postpartum cow in late gestation
a, b
84
Stocker and backgrounder cattle
a. are often fed crop residues or forage
b. rarely exhibit acidosis because they have limited concentrate (grain) in the ration
c. use primarily human-inedible feed and frequently gain 1.5 to 2.5 pounds per day
d. are typically more valuable in early spring than fall due to favorable market conditions
a, b, c, d
85
Prior to being shipped to a feedlot, weaned calves should be preconditioned by being
a. adapted to feed bunk and waterer
b. castrated, dehorned, and healed
c. vaccinated and treated parasites
d. provided colostrum to improve immune function
a, b, c
86
Feedlot cattle
a. should have >6% forage in their ration to stimulate rumination and salivation, and optimize health
b. can be fed less wheat than corn or barley, because wheat is more rapidly fermentable
c. will eat less if they are in a muddy pen or if the environmental temperature is >95 degrees F
d. typically will eat between 2 and 3% of their body weight as dry feed daily
a, b, c, d
87
Feedlot Steers
a. gain weight faster than heifers
b. typically gain >3.5 lbs per day
c. require more feed per pound of gain than heifers
d. are easier to manage than bulls
a, b, d
88
During breeding gilt selection
a. females with blind or inverted nipples should be culled
b. seven functional nipples on each side would be considered desirable
c. a gilt with an infantile vulva likely has an underdeveloped reproductive tract and should be culled
d. structural correctness is the most important indicator of longevity
a, b, c, d
89
With regard to sheep production
a. grass-fed lamb production is common in the U.S., and most will produce Choice carcass
b. lamb supply in the U.S has increased from domestic production in the last two decades
c. sheep numbers in the U.S have declined from ~56 million to <6 million since 1941
d. Idaho is among the top 10 sheep producing states in the U.S., and Texas is the top producer
a, c, d
90
Regarding breeds of sheep:
a. Romney and Lincoln have long, coarse wool
b. Dorper are classified as medium wool sheep
c. Rambouillet and Merino are fine wool breeds
d. Boer are the most common meat sheep
a, c
91
Wool has more value and/or utility if it
a. has smaller fiber diameter and more crimp
b. has no black fibers
c. is from healthy sheep fed >8% protein
d. is from the neck vs the breech and belly
a, b, c, d
92
Which of the following statements are true about goat breeds?
a. the saanen is the largest Swiss breed, with the highest milk production
b. the Lamancha was developed in the U.S., and is known for "elf" or "gopher" ears
c. the Nubian is an African breed known for long ears and milk with high butterfat
d. the Toggenburg are used to produce mohair in cool climates
a, b, c
93
Goats
a. tend to breed only in the late summer and fall
b. average ~one kid per kidding
c. have more reproductive problems (hermaphrodism) in polled vs. horned females
d. produce an average of ~1,800 lbs of milk in a 10 month lactation
a, c, d
94
Grazing goats
a. tend to avoid wet areas, which is advantages over cattle
b. compact the soil more than cattle
c. eat browse and complement cattle grazing
d. can help control weeds and invasive plants
a, c, d
95
True or False
Growth promoting implants are placed in the ears of cattle, and these often contain growth hormone (somatotropin), which is an ionophore used to increase average daily gain and improve efficiency of cattle.
False
96
True or False
Winter feed costs can represent approximately 35 to 40% of the gross revenue of cow-calf producers, and this may increase if cows calve in the winter months.
True
97
True or False
The largest proportion of cow inventory is on ranches with 100 to 499 cows, but the largest proportion of beef cow operations have less than 50 cows.
True
98
True or False
| A yearling bull or ram should be able to service more cows or ewes, respectively, than a mature bull or ram.
False
99
True or False
The cattle industry is the largest livestock component of agriculture in the United States, and the U.S. is the most efficient beef producing country due to application of technology and feedlot finishing.
True
100
True or False
Vaccination of cows, ewes, and does 3 to 4 weeks prior to parturition protects the offspring from disease, and consumption of colostrum by the offspring is not necessary due to placental transfer of antibodies in these species.
False
101
True or False
In a terminal crossbreeding program, all offspring are intended for use as meat-producing animals, so emphasis in sire selection should be on growth rate and carcass traits.
True
102
True or False
Caprine Arthritis Encephalitis (CAE) is a bacterial disease that is only spread via intrauterine transmission and is very easily treated and cured.
False
103
True or False
Boer and Kiko are meat goat breeds, and the demand for goat meat (chevon) in the U.S. currently exceeds domestic production.
True
104
True or False
| Goats with myotonia congenita actually faint and lose consciousness when startled
False
105
True or False
| Absorption of IgG from colostrum is more than five times better at 3 hours than 24 hours after birth of a calf
True
106
Barbados Blackberry and St. Croix breeds are classified as _____ sheep, and are not typically sheared.
hair
107
Castrated male sheep and goats are referred to as _____.
wethers
108
If phosphorous exceeds _____ (mineral) in the diet, cattle may get hard mineral salt aggregation in the kidney, bladder or urethra. This is known as urinary calculi and it can be fatal.
calcium
109
Grass tetany is usually observed in the _____ (season), and results from a _____ deficiency in beef cows.
Spring
| magnesium
110
_____ glands are located at the base of the horns of a goat, and these are frequently removed from milking goats because _____. (state concern if not removed)
Scent
| they can make the milk taste similar to the odor
111
Sheep are typically bred in _____ (what month or months of the year). A meat breed of sheep known for "out-of-season" breeding is the _____, although the use of reproductive technology now allows other breeds to be fertile "out-of-season". Ewes are also typically provided higher plane of nutrition for a couple of weeks prior to breeding to increase ovulation rate, and this practice is referred to as _____.
October & November
Dorset
Flushing
112
Frame size is a term used to describe _____ of an animal at a given age, but a small framed animal may exhibit high volume if it's body is long, _____, and _____.
?
wide
deep
113
During the production cycle, a ewe will typically lose body weight from _____ until _____.
Parturition
| Dry period/ Weaning
114
The natural oil extracted from sheep's wool is _____, and this is used to manufacture ointments and cosmetics.
Linolin
115
In addition to meat and milk, goats also produce mohair and _____. The latter has an average fiber diameter that must not exceed 19 microns, which would be similar to fine wool. _____ (country) is the largest producer of this material, and is also the largest producer of sheep.
Cashmere
| China
116
Excess Clostridium perfringens type C and D can cause _____ in young sheep, cattle, goats, and lamoids. This disease can most effectively be prevented by immunizing _____ (animals at what stages of life) against the organism.
Enterotoxemia
| the mother 3-4 weeks before giving birth
117
What characteristic distinguishes feedstuffs from nutrients?
a. tangibility
b. digestibility
c. palatability
d. affordability
a
118
Corn is not processed as which of the following feedstuff categories?
a. protein supplement
b. hay
c. energy feed
d. silage
b
119
Which of the following are categories of both feedstuffs and nutrients?
a. water
b. energy
c. vitamins
d. minerals
c, d
120
A feedstuff that is mechanically harvested, dried, and ensiled is
a. silage
b. hay
c. green chop
d. haylage
d
121
Which 2 of the following are dependent on anaerobic fermentation for storage?
a. Hay
b. Silage
c. haylage
d. straw
b, c
122
Which 2 classes of plants are usually used for protein supplements?
a. pulse
b. cereal
c. grass
d. oilseed
a, d
123
CP is the _____ of the diet, which is determined by measuring the N content and multiplying it by _____. When an animal uses CP, it eventually generates N-containing waste products, the principle of which is _____.
Crude protein
6.25
urea
124
To measure fiber content of the feed, beef and dairy industry has moved past the crude fiber system and commonly uses a system consisting of _____ and _____. These fiber fractions contain _____, which is an undigestible fiber and greatly decreases the value of feedstuffs because animals cannot extract energy from it.
Neutral detergent Fiber
Acid detergent Fiber
lignin
125
Animals will consume either a maximum fraction of their body weight (typically in the 2-5% range) or to the point of meeting energy need, whichever comes first. In high _____ diets, animals typically consume a maximum fraction of their body weight, while in high _____ diets, animals typically consume to meet energy needs.
forage
| energy
126
TDN stands for _____, and is typically used in high _____ diets.
```
Total Digestable Nutrients
High forage (carb)
```
127
Animals can synthesize may amino acids, albeit, that amino acid is considered a(n) _____ amino acid. One common example is _____.
essential
| lysine
128
One of the energy fractions of a diet is NFC, which stands for _____. This fraction is high in glucose and starch; one example of a feed high in NFC is _____.
Non-Fiber carbohydrates
| corn & barley
129
What happens to environmental temperature requirements as pigs age?
a. required temp increases
b. required temp stays the same
c. required temp decreases
d. don't pick this one
c
130
Most of the hogs in the US swine industry are found in operations the house
a. 1-99 hogs
b. 100-499 hogs
c. 1000-1999 hogs
d. 5000+ hogs
d
131
Which of the following has the shortest period to sexual maturity
a. guinea pigs
b. cat
c. dog
d. all are approximately equal
a
132
Which group of companion animal is the most abundant in total number owned
a. Dogs
b. birds
c. cats
d. fish
d
133
Which is not a major use of horses in the US today
a. draft
b. showing
c. recreation
d. racing
a
134
Horse height measurement makes use of "hands", which is equal to
a. 20 inches
b. 2 inches
c. 12 inches
d. 4 inches
d
135
In swine, a _____ is an intact male while a castrated male is a _____.
boar
| barrow
136
One popular swine breed is the _____ known primarily for its good maternal qualities.
Yorkshire
137
One popular meat breed in swine is _____.
Duroc
138
A group of dogs are known as _____ while a group of cats are known as _____
pack
| clowder
139
In feline nutrition, 2 amino acids are essential that usually not essential in other species. One of the amino acids is _____.
taurine, arginine, linoleic acid, arachidonic acid
140
Dogs and cats should be examined by a veterinarian at least once per year. One disease/pathogen the veterinarian will look/inoculate for is _____
rabies,
141
In horses, a male is _____ whereas a female is a _____. Unless horses are involved in showing or racing, their reproductive life usually begin at _____ years
stallion
mare
3
142
Horses are considered mature when they are _____ years or older
5
143
Horse breeds trace their origins to 3 major ancestral breeds, which are _____, _____, and _____
Arabian
Turkmere
Barb horse
