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Final Flashcards

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1
Q

________ acid is an end product of the bacterial action that contributes to yogurt’s taste and thick consistency.

a. Hydrochloric
b. Lactic
c. Sulfuric
d. None of the above

A

B

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2
Q

(T/F) Hypotonic conditions occur when the concentration of “free water” is lower outside the cell than inside.

A

F

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3
Q

Organisms that grow at high pH are called

a. Xerophiles
b. Osmophiles
c. Alkaliphiles
d. Acidophiles

A

C

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4
Q

The control quadrants of the salt plates are left uninoculated to check the ____ of the medium.

a. Sterility
b. pH
c. Viability
d. Pressure

A

A

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5
Q

(T/F) It is important that you flame and cool the loop between each transfer so that no acid or base is transferred back into the culture from the medium.

A

T

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6
Q

For the osmotic pressure and pH lab, you will incubate the tubes at

a. 37◦C for 48 hrs
b. 30◦C for 24 hrs
c. 37◦C For 24 hrs
d. 30◦C for 48 hrs

A

D

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7
Q

Yogurt is a thick sour milk product produced by the action of Streptococcus thermophiles and Lactobacillus bulgaricus on the sugar ______ in milk.

a. Glucose
b. Fructose
c. Lactose
d. Sucrose

A

C

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8
Q

Organisms that can tolerate and grow in the presence of high concentration of sdium chloride are referred to as:

a. Osmotolerant
b. Xerotolerant
c. Hypertolerant
d. Halotolerant

A

D

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9
Q

(T/F) Cyanobacteria, algae, and protozoa are all alkaliphiles.

A

T

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10
Q

Fermented milk products are prepared from milk that has undergone a controlled ______ that results in acceptable tastes.

a. Refrigeration
b. Fermentation
c. Condensation
d. Inoculation

A

B

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11
Q

Which of the following microorganism where used to make our yogurt?

a. Bacillus subtilis
b. Enterobacter aerogenes
c. Streptococcus pneumoniae
d. Lactobacillus bulgaricus

A

D

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12
Q

We are evaluating yogurt by:

a. Observing and documenting the pH of the mixture.
b. Serial dilution, spread plating, and counting the viable organisms in the yogurt.
c. Streak plating for isolation the different organisms in the mixture.
d. Determining absorbency using the light spectrometer to determine CFUs of the original yogurt.

A

B

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13
Q

After plating the diluted yogurt, we will:

a. Incubate the plates at 30°C for 24 hours.
b. Refrigerate the plates to prevent spoilage.
c. Light a candle with the plates in a sealed jar prior to incubating at 37°C for 48hrs.
d. Incubate the plates at 37°C for 24hours.

A

C

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14
Q

The original organisms that grew in the yogurt came from:

a. A culture we grew in the previous lab.
b. A spoonful of plain yogurt purchased from the grocery store.
c. Yeast that is used to ferment barley into beer.
d. A packet of organisms purchased off the internet.

A

B

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15
Q

(T / F) You are going to taste the yogurt.

A

T

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16
Q

What is gDNA?

a. Gene DNA
b. Genomic DNA
c. Genre DNA
d. None of the above

A

B

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17
Q

( T / F ) PCR stands for Polymerase Chain Reaction.

A

T

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18
Q

What are the steps of PCR?

a. Dissolving, annealing, and elongation
b. Denaturing, adding, and elongation
c. Denaturing, annealing, and extension
d. Dissolving, adding, and extension.

A

C

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19
Q

The typical yield from PCR is:

a. 1 million to 1 trillion copies
b. 10,000 to 1 million copies
c. 1 billion to 100 billion copies
d. 1 hundred to 10,000 copies

A

A

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20
Q

What DNA stain will be added to the agarose gel that is used in the electrophoresis procedure?

a. Methyl blue
b. Safranin
c. Ethidium Bromide
d. Iodine

A

C

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21
Q

At what wavelength is the absorbance used to determine the DNA concentration?

a. 230 nm
b. 245 nm
c. 360 nm
d. 260 nm

A

D

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22
Q

( T / F ) DNA is visualized after electrophoresis using regular-visible light.

A

F

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23
Q

What area did the Taq (theDNApolymeraseusedforPCR) come from?

a. Antarctica
b. A hot spring
c. Bottom of a lake
d. Soil

A

B

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24
Q

Which of these activities below are okay to do in lab?

a. Mouth pipet
b. Apply makeup
c. Drink & eat
d. Wear opened toe shoes
e. None of the above

A

E

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25
Q

When do you need to wear safety glasses?

a. Working with flames
b. Writing in your lab book
c. Working with liquids
d. Both a & c

A

D

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26
Q

(T/F): Candida albicans is a prokaryote that causes Thrush.

A

F

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27
Q

We don’t immediately dry the bleach off of our workspaces because:

a. Too save paper towels
b. The bleach needs to inactivated before wiping up
c. Contact time is required to sterilize the surfaces
d. Bleach is only effective when exposed to the atmosphere

A

B

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28
Q

E. coli is found in:

a. Soil
b. Your eyes
c. Feathers
d. GI tracts

A

D

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29
Q

TSA stands for:

a. Tryptic soy agar
b. Typical substances agar
c. Trending standard agar
d. T. serratia agar

A

A

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30
Q

Staphylococcus aureus is a prokaryote that causes:

a. Thrush
b. Toxic shock syndrome
c. Cancer
d. Food poisoning
e. Both b & d

A

E

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31
Q

When inoculating test tubes, the test tube lid is:

a. Set on the counter
b. Held in your hand, not touching the edges
c. On it’s side on a kimwipe
d. Held in your partner’s hand

A

B

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32
Q

A colony of a pure culture is

a. a visible aggregate of the progeny of one cell
b. A mixture of microbes
c. Used to help identify an organism
d. Both a & c

A

D

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33
Q

Indicate below whether it’s a prokaryote (P) or eukaryote (E) feature (each is worth 1 point):

a. _ Includes animals, plants, fungi/yeast
b. _ No nuclear membrane
c. _ Includes bacteria
d. _ About 10μm or bigger
e. _ Nuclear membrane
f. _ Usually about 1μm or smaller

A 
E
P
P
E
E
P
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34
Q

Which of the below is a properly formatted scientific name:

a. Escherichia coli
b. Escherichia Coli
c. escherichia Coli
d. Escherichia coli

A

D

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35
Q

(T/F): Report all accidents, no matter how small, to your teaching assistant, immediately.

A

T

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36
Q

(T/F): When there is liquid in the loop you need to quickly evaporate the liquid off
before putting the loop into the flame to prevent aerosol formation.

A

T

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37
Q

(T/F): Kimwipes should be used to remove oil from the 100x objective.

A

F

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38
Q

TSA stands for…

a. Tryptic soy agar
b. Typical substances agar
c. Trending standard agar
d. T. serratia agar

A

A

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39
Q

A ______ broth culture probably has bacterial growth in it.

a. Clear
b. Transparent
c. Turbid
d. Yellow

A

C

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40
Q

We work with cultures near a flame to…

a. Sterilize the surrounding air.
b. Generate positive pressure around our cultures.
c. Provide light for visualizing cultures.
d. Dehydrate aerosols.

A

B

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41
Q

Nosocomial infections are:

a. Nasal diseases
b. Hospital acquired
c. Coma inducing
d. Soil derived

A

B

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42
Q

Where are the fire extinguishers located?

a. By the incubator
b. By the autoclave cart
c. By each door
d. The end of your bench

A

C

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43
Q

Why are open culture tubes held in a horizontal position?

a. To keep microbes in container
b. To prevent contamination from particles falling in the tube
c. To allow particles to come in
d. You don’t hold open culture tubes in a horizontal position.

A

B

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44
Q

Our microscopes have 10X ocular lens, so at what objective do you need to use to get a total magnification of 400X?

a. 4X objective
b. 20X objective
c. 2X objective
d. 40X objective

A

D

45
Q

_____ is a laboratory practice that minimizes contamination.

a. Septic technique
b. Aseptic technique
c. Pure culture technique
d. Isolation technique

A

B

46
Q

What paper should you use to remove the oil from the objective lens on the microscope?

a. Sand paper
b. Kim-wipes
c. Paper towels
d. Lens paper

A

D

47
Q

S. marcescens is a bacteria that causes:

a. Urinary infections
b. Food poisoning
c. Septicemia
d. Both a & c

A

D

48
Q

(T/F): Immersion oil is used to protect the 100X objective lens from being scratched.

A

F

49
Q

Why do we flame the test tube when transferring cultures?

a. To kill off the bacteria
b. To heat up the sample
c. To create positive pressure and prevent contamination
d. All of the above

A

C

50
Q

How do you carry your microscope?

a. Like a football, under your arm.
b. With your partner, holding one side each
c. With one gripping the handle
d. With two hands, one holding the base and the other holding the grip

A

D

51
Q

Broken glass is put in:

a. Biohazard bag
b. Regular trash
c. Sharps containers
d. None of the above

A

C

52
Q

Plates are inverted:

a. To prevent condensation on the agar
b. To prevent growth on the lid
c. So the plates stack nicely in the incubator
d. For no reason at all

A

A

53
Q

(T/F): BAP stands for blood agar plate.

A

T

54
Q

Microbes can be found in:

a. Clothes
b. Hot Springs
c. Doorknobs
d. Water
e. All of the above

A

E

55
Q

(T/F): It is not possible to identify a species based on colony morphology alone.

A

T

56
Q

(T/F): Ubiquitous means microorganisms are found virtually everywhere.

A

T

57
Q

(T/F): S. marcescens is a gram-negative rod found in the environment and GI tract of rodents and insects.

A

T

58
Q

(T/F): B. subtilis is a gram-positive rod that is a spore forming bacteria found in the soil.

A

T

59
Q

Our microscopes are parfocal which means:

a. The lens stays in focus when the objectives/magnification are changed.
b. Have multiple objectives
c. Have a y-axis knob and an x-axis knob
d. None of the above

A

A

60
Q

(T/F): Once you sterilize your inoculating loop, you can set it down on the lab bench without re-contaminating it.

A

F

61
Q

The term microbiota refers to:

a. A disease acquired in a hospital
b. The concentration and distribution of microorganisms
c. The microorganisms that cover your body
d. A type of plate used for inoculation

A

C

62
Q

(T/F): Streak Dilution is done to obtain isolated colonies.

A

T

63
Q

An individual cell, well separated from its neighbors on an agar surface, will give rise to a/an

a. ) Mixed culture
b. ) Isolated colony
c. ) Normal Flora
d. ) None of the above

A

B

64
Q

The skin, mucosal surfaces, and the intestines of the human body support large numbers of microorganisms that comprise the

a. ) Genome
b. ) Pure culture
c. ) Microbiota
d. ) Mixed culture

A

C

65
Q

(T/F): TSA stands for Telluric Soy Agar.

A

F

66
Q

A Bacterial colony is

a. ) A visible mass of cells
b. ) A single bacteria
c. ) A type of media
d. ) None of the above

A

A

67
Q

(T/F) You should be worried about the large number of organisms that were found in your mouth.

A

F

68
Q

The purpose of streaking for isolation is

a. ) Get a layer of growing cells to cover the full surface of the plate
b. ) Make a mixed culture
c. ) Obtain isolated cells
d. ) Determine the number of colony forming units

A

C

69
Q

(T/F) Disinfection is a sterilization method.

A

F

70
Q

(T/F) It is not necessary to wear safety glasses when working with liquids and flames.

A

F

71
Q

Normal mouth flora includes

a. ) Neisseria
b. ) Streptococci
c. ) Fungi
d. ) All of the above

A

D

72
Q

Most bacteria have a rigid cell wall of ________ that is responsible for maintaining the bacterial shape under a variety of osmotic conditions.

a. ) ribonucleic acid
b. ) peptidoglycan
c. ) anions
d. ) aniline

A

B

73
Q

Label below the correct order of the gram staining process. This question is worth 4 points.

a. ) Iodine
b. ) Alcohol
c. ) Crystal violet
d. ) Safranin

A

2
3
1
4

74
Q

(T/F): Gram-negative cells have a thin peptidoglycan layer that, upon exposure to alcohol, is not thick enough to retain the crystal violet-iodine complex.

A

T

75
Q

During a Gram stain, what causes the Crystal violet to stay inside the cell wall?

a. ) The negative change of the ribosomes in the cell wall.
b. ) The positive charge of the ribosomes in the cell wall.
c. ) Its complex with iodine is too large to escape the thick peptidoglycan cell wall.
d. ) Crystal violet is not made to stay inside the cell wall. That is why you must be cautious when decolonizing.

A

C

76
Q

When visualizing a microorganism after Gram stain, you will be able to differentiate Gram- positives, which are ___________, from Gram-negatives, which are ____________.

a. ) Pink(Red), Purple(Blue)
b. ) Purple(Blue), Pink(Red)
c. ) Pink(Red) with purple centers, purple(blue) with pink centers
d. ) Purple(Blue), Green

A

B

77
Q

What
is the advantage of the Gram stain over simple stain?
a.) A simple stain just accents (colors) microorganisms, whereas a Gram stain will differentiate microorganisms.
b.) Simple stains utilize anions and Gram stains utilize cations.
c.) Simple stains will bind well with the thick peptidoglycan to identify Gram-negative prokaryotes
d.) There is no difference between simple stains and Gram stains

A

A

78
Q

If you examined a Gram stained sample at 1000x in a microscope and saw that all the cells’ morphology (shape) are the same, but you are seeing both purple(blue) and pink(red) stained cells, you may have:

a. ) Decolorized for too long a time
b. ) Decolorized for too short a time
c. ) Have a mix of Gram-positive and Gram-negative cells d.) Any of the above

A

D

79
Q

(T/F): Bacterial cells contain an abundance of positively charged ribonucleic acid in their ribosomes.

A

F

80
Q

Which dilution had the lowest absorption/optical density recording on the spectrophotometer?

a) Undiluted
b) 1:2
c) 1:4
d) 1:8
e) 1:16

A

E

81
Q

Why is the safranin counterstain used?

a. ) To “lock in” the crystal violet into the Gram-negative cell wall.
b. ) To prevent over-decolonization.
c. ) To stain the Gram-negative cells after the decolorization step.
d. ) To initially stain the Gram-positive cells as a first step.

A

C

82
Q

(T/F) Optical density is also known as absorption.

A

T

83
Q

When we used the spectrophotometer, a blank was used to calibrate the machine. What did we use as a blank?

a. ) Water
b. ) An empty spectrometer tube
c. ) An undiluted sample
d. ) Sterile media

A

D

84
Q

(T/F) CFU stands for colony factoring units.

A

F

85
Q

The range of colonies on a plate for a viable cell count is: a.) 5 to 25

b. ) 25 to 250
c. ) 1000 to 1500
d. ) 250 to 350

A

B

86
Q

To find the viable cells per milliliter (CFU/ml) we use:

a. ) (average colony count) (1/dilution factor)
b. ) (1/average cell count)(dilution factor)
c. ) (average cell count) (dilution factor)
d. ) None of the above

A

C

87
Q

(T/F) The two most common techniques used to determine cell counts are viable cell count and optical density.

A

T

88
Q

What temperature does the agar solidify at?

a. ) 100°C
b. ) 45°C
c. ) 15°C
d. ) 0°C

A

B

89
Q

Why would a viable cell count vary from the number of colony forming units?

a. ) Dead cells
b. ) Overgrowth
c. ) Cells stuck to one another
d. ) A and C

A

C

90
Q

We used Optical Density to measure the concentration of cells. What was the wavelength used?

a. ) 450 nm
b. ) 375 nm
c. ) 600 nm
d. ) 260 nm

A

C

91
Q

(T/F): The word ‘sterile’ means that no living organisms are present.

A

T

92
Q

(T/F): The fast(gravity) cycle can be used for liquids.

A

F

93
Q

What are the standard conditions for sterilization in an autoclave?

a. ) 121°F for 60 minutes
b. ) 100°F for 15 minutes
c. ) 121°C for 15 minutes
d. ) 100°C for 60 minutes

A

C

94
Q

Heat kills microorganisms:

a. ) By burning them up
b. ) By coagulating proteins
c. ) A & B
d. ) Heat can kill microorganisms because of endospores.

A

B

95
Q

(T/F): Moist heat penetrates more effectively than dry heat.

A

T

96
Q

Match whether the below chemicals are antiseptic (A) or disinfectant (D). This question is worth 7 points.

a. ) Mouthwash
b. ) 100% ethanol
c. ) Betadine
d. ) Lysol
e. ) Hydrogen peroxide
f. ) 5% bleach
g. ) 70% ethanol

A 
A
A
A
D
A
D
A
97
Q

Mannitol salt agar (MSA):

a. ) Is selective for Staphylococcus
b. ) Inhibit the growth of many Gram-negative organisms
c. ) Is differential for mannitol fermenters
d. ) All of the above

A

D

98
Q

Violet red bile agar (VRB):

a. ) Is a selective media
b. ) Is a differential media
c. ) A & B
d. ) None of the above

A

C

99
Q

(T/F): Plate count agar (PCA) is both a selective and differential media.

A

F

100
Q

Which of the factors below can affect the ability of a particular chemical to kill a particular pathogen?

a. ) Time
b. ) Temperature
c. ) pH
d. ) All of the above

A

D

101
Q

(T/F): Our microbiota is an important mechanism for limiting pathogenic microorganisms on our bodies.

A

T

102
Q

To test whether the autoclaving was successful in sterilizing material, we place an envelope of _____ in with a load that is being autoclaved.

a. ) A plate of very concentrated Bacillus stearothermophilus cells
b. ) Bacillus stearothermophilus vegetative (growing) cells
c. ) Bacillus stearothermophilus toxins
d. ) Bacillus stearothermophilus endospores

A

D

103
Q

Coliforms

a. ) Are Gram-positive
b. ) Are facultative anaerobic rod-shaped bacteria
c. ) Will appear as deep purple colonies on a VRB media d.) B & C

A

D

104
Q

(T/F): A chemical used on a living object, such as tissue of a human body, for disinfection is called a antiseptic.

A

T

105
Q

(T/F): Autoclaves routinely sterilize medium, and biohazardous garbage under 15-23 psi (pounds per square inch).

A

T

106
Q

(T/F): Dry heat ovens do not need longer times or longer temperatures to achieve sterilization.

A

F

107
Q

(T/F): Members of the genus Bacillus are capable of forming endospores.

A

T

108
Q

Which section of lab do you belong in? This question is worth one point.

a. ) 01
b. ) 02
c. ) 03
d. ) 04
e. ) 05

A

E

Biology 155 Lab (2 decks)

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