Final Flashcards

1
Q

what is coronary heart disease

A

occurs when coronary blood circulation fails to adequately supply the heart with blood

primarily caused by athlerosclerosis

risk of developing CHD is directly proportional to the levels of choleserol in the blood

CHD causes 1/3 of deaths in Canada

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2
Q

where is cholesterol synthesized

A

the liver

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3
Q

structure of lipoproteins

A

outer hydrophilic shell made of phospholipids

core is made of lipophilic cholesterol and TGs

have apolipoproteins embedded in the phospholipid shell

used to transport cholesterol and TGs in the blood

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4
Q

apolipiproteins

A

allow recognition of lipoproteins by cells
activate enzymes that metabolize lipoproteins
increase structural stability of lipoproteins

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5
Q

apolipoprotein A-I

A

non-hepatic tissue back to the liver

HDL

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6
Q

apolipoprotein B-100

A

liver to non-hepatic tissues

VLDL
LDL

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7
Q

is protein or lipid more dense

A

protein

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8
Q

VLDL

A

TGs from liver to adipose and muscle
TG-rich core and account for almost all TGs in the blood

some studies suggest that high VLDL contributes to athlerosclerosis

contain one apo B-100

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9
Q

LDL

A

cholesterol to non-hepatic tissue
cholesterol-rich core

one apo B-100

clear link between LDL cholesterol and development of athlerosclerosis, reducing LDL halts or even reverses it

“bad cholesterol”

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10
Q

HDL

A

cholesterol from non-hepatic tissue back to the liver
promote cholesterol removal from the blood
cholesterol is main core lipid

elevated HDL decreases the risk of CHD, protects against athlerosclerosis

A-I, A-II, A-IV

A-I mediates the beneficial effects

“good cholesterol”

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11
Q

athlerosclerosis

A

LDL initiates by moving into the sub-endothelial space of the arterial epithelium

LDL becomes oxidized

oxidation of LDL causes recruitment of monocytes, which are converted to macrophages

macrophages ingest oxidized LDL, become large and vacuolated, called foam cells

foam cells accumulate below the epithelium, a fatty streak appears

then platelets adhere, smooth muscle migrates and collagen synthesis occurs, forming a fibrous cap

end result is an athlerosclerotic lesion with lipid core and tough fibrous cap

cap can rupture and a thrombus can form and partially or completely block blood flow

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12
Q

what kind of process is athlerosclerosis

A

inflammatory

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13
Q

what does LDL do in atherosclerosis?

A

causes mild injury to the arterial endothelium

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14
Q

cholesterol screening

A

males over 40
females over 50 or post-menopausal

also
diabetes
heart disease or family history of it
hypertension 
central obesity 
smoke or recently stopped 
inflammatory or renal disease
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15
Q

how is cardiovascular risk assessed?

A
Framingham Risk Score 
gender
age
total blood cholesterol
smoking status
HDL 
systolic blood pressure

gives 10 year risk

may underestimate youth, women and ppl with metabolic syndrome

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16
Q

metabolic syndrome

A
3 or more of:
central obesity 
elevated TGs
low HDL
hyperglycemia 
hypertension 

gives increased risk for CHD and type 2 DM

1 in 4 canadians

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17
Q

non-drug treatment for LDL

A

first line treatment is lifestyle

diet - less cholesterol and saturated fats, more fiber, plant sterols and stanols

weight control - weight loss lowers LDL and reduces risk of CHD

exercise - CV exercise decreases LDL, insulin resistance, blood pressure and increases HDL

smoking - smoking decreases HDL and increases LDL so should quit (especially important risk factor in ppl under 50)

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18
Q

when is drug treatment given for LDL

A

when targets arent reached through lifestyle intervention

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19
Q

what are the classes of drugs used to treat elevated blood lipids

A
statins 
bile acid sequestrants 
nicotinic acid 
cholesterol absorption inhibitors 
fibric acid derivatives (fibrates)
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20
Q

cholesterol synthesis

A

mevalonic acid pathway

acetyl-CoA (citric acid cycle) is converted to 3-OH-3-methylglutaryl CoA (HMG CoA)

HMG CoA is converted to mevalonic acid by HMG CoA reductase rate limiting step

eventually get cholesterol

synthesis is greatest during the night

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21
Q

how do statins work

A

they inhibit HMG CoA reductase, the rate limiting step of cholesterol synthesis

causes an upregulation of hepatic LDL receptors, so the liver removes more cholesterol from the blood

net effect is decrease in blood LDL levels, increase in HDL and decrease in TGs

are effective in both primary and secondary prevention

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22
Q

primary vs secondary prevention

A

primary = preventing development of disease

secondary = preventing recurrence

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23
Q

highest prescribed statins

A

atorvastatin (lipitor) is highest prescribed drug in Canada

rosuvastatin (crestor) is 4th highest in canada

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24
Q

atorvastatin

A

low oral bioavailability

large fraction of absorbed dose is extracted by the liver (site of action)

distributes primarily to liver, but also spleen, adrenal glands and skeletal muscle

metabolized by CYP3A4

predominantly eliminated in the feces, minimal renal excretion

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25
Q

rosuvastatin

A

low oral bioavailability

large fraction extracted by liver (site of action)

distributes mostly to liver, some to skeletal muscle

not extensively metabolized

eliminated mostly in feces, minimal renal

plasma concentrations are 2 times higher in asian patients compared to caucasians, so initial dose should be lower

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26
Q

adverse effects of statins

A

in general well tolerated

most common adverse effect is myopathy (muscle injury) - get muscle aches and weakness

rhabodomyolysis is rare but more serious - muscle lysis with severe pain, diagnosed by measuring blood levels of creatine kinase, also get hyperkalemia and may get acute kidney failure…treat with IV fluids to preserve kidney function

low incidence of hepatotoxicity - do liver function tests before and throughout

potentially teratogenic bc cholesterol is needed for cell membranes etc

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27
Q

nicotinic acid

A

niacin
LDL drug

inhibits hepatic secretion of VLDL and therefore decreases TGs in the blood

since LDL is a by-product of VLDL it also decreases LDL

increases HDL

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28
Q

side effects of niacin

A
intense facial flushing 
heptotoxicity 
hyperglycemia 
skin rash 
increase in uric acid levels
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29
Q

bile acids

A

negatively charged
produced in the liver from cholesterol
secreted into intestine for absorption of dietary fats and fat soluble vitamins
undergo entero-hepatic recycling (95% reabsorbed)

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30
Q

bile acid sequestrants

A

large and positively charged

attract and bind bile acids so they can’t be reabsorbed

causes an increased demand for bile acid synthesis which requires LDL

increase hepatic LDL receptors and increase uptake

get decreased plasma LDL

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31
Q

adverse effects of bile acid sequestrants

A

not absorbed so no systemic side effects

GI tract, ie constipation and bloating

bind negatively charged molecules so decrease the absorption of some drugs including thiazide diuretics, digoxin, warfarin, some antibiotics

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32
Q

NPC1L1

A

transporter that is responsible for intestinal uptake of the majority of dietary cholesterol

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33
Q

cholesterol absorption inhibitors

A

only one is ezetimibe (Zetia)
inhibits NPC1L1

decreases intestional cholesterol absorption and lowers LDL, however there can be a compensatory increase in hepatic cholesterol synthesis therefore often prescribed in combination with statin

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34
Q

vytorin

A

a new pill that contain simvastatin with ezetimibe

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35
Q

fibric acid derivatives

A

fibrates

most effective for lowering TGs

increase HDL, no effect on LDL though

bind to and activate PPARalpha (nuclear receptor)

1) increases synthesis of LPL to enhance clearance of TG-rich lipoproteins
2) decreases apolipoprotein C-III production, which allows for increases LPL activity
3) increases A-I and A-II levels (this is how it increases HDL)

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36
Q

adverse effects of fibrates

A

increased risk of gallstones

myopathy (need tone especially careful if using with statin, give low dose of statin and monitor)

hepatoxicity

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37
Q

hypertension definition

A

elevated systemic arterial blood pressure

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38
Q

blood pressure

A

the force against the walls of your arteries as blood is pumped through your body

measured with a sphygmomanometer

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39
Q

what should be done to accurately measure BP

A

sit for at least 5 min

no caffeine or nicotine within 30 in

feet touching the ground

arms elevated to heart level

two measurements in each arm 5 min apart

before diagnosing hypertension repeat 3 time at least 2 weeks apart

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40
Q

systole

A

when the heart contracts

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41
Q

diastole

A

period of time when the heart fills after contracting

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42
Q

normal BP

A

sys <120 AND dia <80

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43
Q

prehypertension BP

A

sys 120-139
OR
dia 80-89

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44
Q

stage 1 hypertension BP

A

sys 140-159
OR
90-99

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45
Q

stage 2 hypertension BP

A

sys >160
OR
dia >100

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46
Q

primary hypertension

A

no known cause

most cases

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47
Q

secondary hypertension

A

identifiable cause

fewer cases

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48
Q

causes of secondary hypertension

A
kidney disease 
hyperthyroidism 
pregnancy 
erthropoetin 
pheochromocytoma (tumor on adrenal gland that release a lot of epinephrine) 
sleep apnea 
contraceptive use
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49
Q

factors that influence blood pressure

A

amount of water and salt in your body

condition of kidneys, nervous system and blood vessels

levels of certain hormones in the body

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50
Q

risk factors for hypertension

A
obesity
stress
smoking 
high salt diet
diabetes 
African 
NSAIDs
oral contraceptives
pseudoephedrine
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51
Q

consequences of hypertension

A

myocardial infarction
kidney failure
stroke
renal damage

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52
Q

do you get symptoms as soon as you have hypertension

A

no is a “silent killer”

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53
Q

cardiac output

A

determined by heart rate, heart contractility, blood volume and venous return

increase in any = increase in blood pressure (bc CO increases)

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54
Q

peripheral resistance

A

determined by arteriolar constriction

constriction = rise in BP

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55
Q

what determines BP

A

cardiac output x peripheral resistance

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56
Q

what 3 body systems regulate BP?

A

sympathetic nervous system
renin-angiotensin-aldosterone system
renal regulation of BP

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57
Q

how does SNS regulate BP

A

through the baroreceptor reflex that keeps BP at a set level

baroreceptors in aortic arch and carotid sinus sense BP and send signal to brain

if too low brainstem sends impulses along SNS neurons to stimulate heart to increase cardiac output and to smooth muscle of arteries to constrict

if too high sympathetic activity is decreased = decreased CO and vasodilation

responds rapidly ie seconds or minutes

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58
Q

how does the activity of baroreceptors oppose drug therapy for BP

A

set point in patients with hypertension is high so tries to get back to that point

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59
Q

what does the RAAS system regulate and what organ does it target

A

BP, blood volume and electrolyte balance

targets kidney and vascular smooth muscle

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60
Q

timing of RAAS

A

hours or days

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61
Q

RAAS how it works

A

when there is decrease in blood volume, blood pressure or stimulate on beta 1 receptors of juxtaglomerular cells renin is released

renin is synthesized and released by juxtaglomerular cells of the kidney (into the blood)

it catalyzes the rate-limiting step, converts angiotensinogen to angiotensin I

angiotensin converting enzyme (ACE) converts angiotensin I to angiotensin II

angiotensin II is a potent vasoconstrictor by binding to AT1 receptors

angiotensin II stimulates aldosterone release from adrenal cortex which acts on kidneys to increase sodium retention and therefore water retention also

angiotensin II acts on the posterior pituitary to release ADH which also causes water retention in the kidneys

so overall get vasoconstriction = increased PR, salt and water retention = increased blood volume and CO
have increased BP

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62
Q

renal regulation of blood pressure

A

if BP is decreased for a long time the kidney retains water

get increased blood volume

causes increased CO and therefore BP

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63
Q

non-drug treatment for hypertension

A

if dia 90-95 or in combination with drug therapy

decreasing body weight 
restricting sodium intake 
exercise 
potassium supplementation 
DASH diet 
stopping smoking 
alcohol restriction
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64
Q

how does obesity cause hypertension

A

direct relationship between obesity and hypertension

obese have increased insulin which causes tubular reabsorption of Na and therefore water = higher blood volume

obese also have increase SNS activity

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65
Q

how does exercising help hypertension

A

regular exercise decreases extracellular fluid volume (i.e. blood volume) and circulating levels of catecholamines

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66
Q

potassium supplementation and hypertension

A

total body K levels are inversely correlated with BP

high K = lower BP

high K diets decrease BP by increasing sodium excretion, decreasing renin release and causing vasodilation

found in fresh fruits and vegetables

no high K diet for ppl on ACEIs

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67
Q

DASH diet

A

dietary approaches to stop hypertension

best results seen in ppl with prehypertension

eat lots of fruits, veggies, low fat dairy, lean meat. whole grains, nuts and legumes
cut out saturated fats, fats overall and cholesterol

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68
Q

smoking and hypertension

A

smoking acutely elevates BP but has not been causally linked to hypertension

stop though bc both smoking and hypertension are risk factors for CVD

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69
Q

alcohol and hypertension

A

excessive alcohol consumption elevates BP

it can also decrease the response to some antihypertensive meds

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70
Q

3 types of diuretics and where they work

A

diuretics block Na and Cl ion reabsorption in the nephron of the kidney and therefore prevent reabsorption of water = decreased CO and decreased BP

loop diuretics - thick ascending limb of loop of Henle (most effective)

thiazide diuretics - distal tubule (medium effective)

K sparing/aldosterone antagonists - collecting duct (least effective)

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71
Q

loop diuretics

A

most effective
thick ascending limb of loop of henle

reserved for situations that need rapid fluid loss
edema
severe hypertension that doesn’t respond to the diuretics
sever renal failure

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72
Q

adverse effects of loop diuretics

A

hypokalemia (can cause fatal dysrhythmias)
hyponatremia
dehydration
hypotension

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73
Q

thiazide diuretics

A

most commonly used for hypertension
block Na and Cl reabsorption in the distal tubule and decrease vascular resistance

max amount of diuresis is much less than loop diuretics
often alone thiazide diuretics can control hypertension

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74
Q

K sparing diuretics/aldosterone antagonists

A

minimal lowering of BP
inhibit aldosterone receptors in the collecting duct, causing increased sodium excretion and potassium retention
usually in combination with loop or thiazide

don’t use with ACEIs

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75
Q

thiazide diuretic adverse effects

A

hypokalemia
hyponatremia
dehydration

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76
Q

K sparing adverse effects

A

hyperkalemia

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77
Q

how do beta blockers work

A

block cardiac beta 1 receptors
-> binding of catecholamines to cardiac beta receptors causes increased CO (so blocking decreases)

block juxtaglomerular beta 1 receptors
-> binding releases renin which activates RAAS causing vasoconstriction (blocking decreases PR)

are antagonists

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78
Q

olol suffix

A

beta blockers

ie propanolol

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79
Q

classes of beta blockers

A

1st generation
non-selective, block beta 1 in heart and juxtaglomerular and beta 2 in the lung

2nd generation
only block beta 1

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80
Q

beta blocker adverse effects

A
2nd gen:
bradycardia (slow HR)
decreased CO
heart failure
rebound hypertension if stopped quickly (taper over 10-14 days)

1st gen:
same as 2nd plus
bronchoconstriction (bad for ppl with asthma or pulmonary diseases)
inhibition of hepatic and muscle glycogenolysis (bad in diabetics if accidentally take too much insulin)

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81
Q

how do ACEIs work

A

decrease production of angiotensin II
-> decreasing it causes vasodilation (bc its a vasoconstrictor)
-> decreasing it also decreases total blood volume
ie decrease CO and PR

also inhibit the breakdown of bradykinin
-> elevated bradykinin causes vasodilation

so get decreased angiotensin II and increased bradykinin

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82
Q

pril suffix

A

ACEIs

ie captopril

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83
Q

adverse effects of ACEIs

A

generally well-tolerated

effects due to decrease angiotensin II

  • 1st dose hypotension (first few should be low)
  • hyperkalemia (bc of decreased aldosterone release)
  • *don’t give K supplements or K sparing diuretics**

effects due to increased bradykinin

  • persistent cough
  • angioedema

Note: use with certain NSAIDs will decrease the effectiveness of ACEIs

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84
Q

how do angiotensin receptor blockers (ARBs) work

A

block binding of angiotensin II to AT1 receptors (vascular smooth muscle)
therefore cause vasodilation

also cause decreased aldosterone release from the adrenal cortex = increased sodium and water retention

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85
Q

sartan suffix

A

ARBs

ie losartan

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86
Q

adverse effects of ARBs

A

don’t give cough like ACEIs bc they don’t affect bradykinin

do not cause hyperkalemia

also have lower incidence of angioedema than ACEIs

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87
Q

how do direct renin inhibitors (DRIs) work

A

bind renin and block the conversion of angiotensinogen to angiotensin I rate-limiting step

decrease plasma renin a lot, but the BP lowering effects are about the same as ARBs and ACEIs

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88
Q

adverse effects of DRIs

A

hyperkalemia
don’t use with ACEIs, K sparing diuretics etc

very low incidence of persistent cough and angioedema

diarrhea

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89
Q

how do claim channel blockers (CCBs) work

A

block the entry of Ca into heart cells and smooth muscle cells, which decreases contraction

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90
Q

types of CCBs

A

dihydropyridine CCBs

non-dihydropyridine CCBs

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91
Q

dihydropyridine CCBs

A

significantly reduce Ca influx into smooth muscle of arteries

causes vasodilation

at therapeutic doses DO NOT act on the heart

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92
Q

dipine suffix

A

dihydropyridine CCBs

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93
Q

non-dihydropyridine CCBs

A

block Ca influx in both the heart and arterial smooth muscle

vasodilation and decreased CO

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94
Q

adverse effects of dihydropyridine CCBs

A
flushing 
dizziness 
headache 
peripheral edema 
reflex tachycardia 
rash
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95
Q

adverse effects of non-dihydopyridine CCBs

A
constipation 
dizziness 
flushing 
headache 
edema 
may compromise cardiac function **be careful if using in patients with heart failure**
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96
Q

centrally-acting alpha 2 agonists

A

bind to and activate alpha 2 receptors in the brainstem

decreases SNS output to heart and blood vessels

get decreased CO and PR (SNS normally causes increased CO and vasoconstriction)

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97
Q

adverse effects of centrally-acting alpha 2 agonists

A

drowsiness
dry mouth
rebound hypertension if withdrawn abruptly

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98
Q

treatment for prehypertension only

A

lifestyle

if not then thiazide diuretic

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99
Q

treatment for stage 1 hypertension only

A

lifestyle
then thiazide diuretic
if not then thiazide diuretic + ACEI, ARB, BB or CCB

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100
Q

treatment for stage 2 hypertension only

A

lifestyle + thiazide + ACEI, ARB, BB or CCB

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101
Q

treatment for hypertension with moderate renal disease or diabetes

A

lifestyle + thiazide + ACEI or ARB

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102
Q

treatment for hypertension with severe renal disease

A

lifestyle + loop + ACEI or ARB

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103
Q

neuropharmacology

A

study of how drugs affect the CNS

treat the symptoms not the cause rn

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104
Q

resting cell membrane potential

A

-70 mV

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105
Q

signal transmission at synapse

A

action potential reaches pre-synaptic nerve terminal, causes influx of Ca
Ca influx causes vesicles containing neurotransmitters to fuse and release contents
neurotransmitters bind to receptors on post-synaptic nerve terminal

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106
Q

monoamines

A

norepinephrine - depression and anxiety
epinephrine - anxiety
dopamine - parkinson’s and schizophrenia
serotonin - depression and anxiety

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107
Q

amino acids

A

excitatory - glutamate and aspartate (Alzheimer’s)

inhibitory - GABA and glycine (anxiety)

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108
Q

other neurotransmitter

A

acetylcholine - Alzeheimer’s and Parkinson’s

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109
Q

basic mechanisms for CNS drug therapy

A

replacement - NTs that are low

agonist/antagonist - bind to receptors on post-synaptic membrane

inhibiting breakdown - more NT

blocking reuptake - more NT in synapse

nerve stimulation - directly stimulate nerve to release more NT

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110
Q

what happens to the brain in parkinson’s

A

progressive loss of dopaminergic neurons in the substantia nigra (more than with normal aging)

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111
Q

symptoms of parkinson’s

A

tremor (especially extremities i.e. hands, arms, legs, jaw)

rigidity (join stiffness and increased muscle tone)

bradykinesia (especially slow to initiate movements)

masklike face (can’t show facial expression, difficulty blinking, swallowing)

postural instability (difficulty balancing while walking)

dementia (later in disease)

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112
Q

pathophysiology of parkinson’s

A

imbalance between acetylcholine and dopamine in the brain, causes increased BAGA release

decreased dopamine = not enough dopamine to inhibit GABA release

excess acetylcholine = increased GABA release

excess GABA (inhibitory NT) causes the movement disorders seen in PD

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113
Q

aetiology of PD

A

largely idiopathic

drugs - MPTP causes irreversible death of dopaminergic neurons (byproduct of illicit street drug synthesis)

genetics - mutations in alpha synuclein, parkin, UCHL1 and DJ-1 predispose

environmental toxins - some pesticides

brain trauma - increased risk

oxidative stress - ROS are known to cause degeneration of dopaminergic neurones **link between diabetes induced oxidative damage and PD

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114
Q

2 strategies for treating PD

A

increasing dopamine

decreasing acetylcholine

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115
Q

5 agents for increasing dopamine in PD

A
dopamine replacement 
dopamine agonist 
dopamine releaser 
catecholamine-o-methyltransferase inhibitor 
monoamine oxidase-B inhibitor
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116
Q

how does L-DOPA work

A

dopamine replacement
most effective drug for PD
however, beneficial effects decrease over time as disease progresses

crosses the BBB by active transport 
is a prodrug that is converted to dopamine in dopaminergic nerve terminals by decarboxylases in he brain 
vitamin B6 (pyridoxine) speeds up this reaction
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117
Q

why L-DOPA instead of dopamine

A

dopamine won’t cross BBB

dopamine has a very short half life in blood

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118
Q

L-DOPA adverse effects

A

nausea and vomiting - due to dopamine-mediated activation of the chemoreceptor trigger zone in the medulla

dyskinesias (abnormal involuntary movements)

cardiac dysrhythmias - conversion of L-DOPA to dopamine in the periphery can activate cardiac 1 beta receptors

orthostatic hypotension (when you stand up)

psychosis (hallucinatoins, vivid dreams/nightmares, paranoid thoughts)

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119
Q

L-DOPA peripheral metabolism and how we combat this

A

very little L-DOPA reaches the brain
the rest is metabolized in peripheral tissue, mostly the intestine
for this reason L-DOPA is usually given with carbidopa, a decarboxylase inhibitor
this allows a lot more to reach the brain, so you can lower the dose which will decrease the incidence of cardiac dysrhythmias and nausea and vomiting

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120
Q

2 types of loss of effect of L-DOPA

A

wearing off - gradual

on-off - abrupt

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121
Q

wearing off of L-DOPA

A

gradual
normally at the end of the dosing interval, indicates that drug levels may be low

minimized by:

  • shortening dosing interval
  • giving a drug that inhibits L-DOPA metabolism (i.e. a COMT inhibitor)
  • add a dopamine agonist to therapy
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122
Q

on-off on L-DOPA

A

abrupt
can occur even when drug levels are high

minimized by:

  • dividing medication into more doses per day
  • using a controlled release formulation
  • moving protein-containing meals to the evening
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123
Q

how do dopamine agonists work for PD

A

directly activate dopamine receptors on the post-synaptic cell membrane

not as effective as L-DOPA

first line treatment for PD patients with milder symptoms

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124
Q

dopamine agonist adverse effects

A

hallucinations
daytime drowsiness
orthostatic hypertension

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125
Q

how do dopamine releasers work for PD

A

stimulate release of dopamine from dopaminergic neurons AND block dopamine repute into pre-synaptic nerve terminals
AND block NMDA receptors

response is rapid, 2-3 days

not as effective as L-DOPA, given in combination with it or alone for milder symptoms

blockade of NMDA receptors is thought to decrease dyskinesia side effect of L-DOPA

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126
Q

dopamine releaser side effects

A
dizziness
nausea
vomiting
lethargy
anticholinergic side effects (i.e. dry mouth, hallucinations, sedation)
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127
Q

how do catecholamine-o-methyltrasferase inhibitors (COMTs) work for PD

A

COMT adds methyl groups to both dopamine and L-DOPA to inactivate them
inhibit COMT = greater fraction of L-DOPA that is available to be converted to dopamine

only moderately effective for PD, often given in combination with L-DOPA

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128
Q

adverse effects of COMTs

A

similar to L-DOPA

nausea
orthostatic hypotension
vivid dreams and hallucinations

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129
Q

how do monoamine oxidase- B (MAO-B) inhibitors works for PD

A

MAO-B metabolizes dopamine and L-DOPA by oxidizing them, inactivates them
is in both the brain and periphery

inhibit oxidation, more L-DOPA can be converted to dopamine in the brain

inhibition of dopamine metabolism allows more dopamine to remain in nerve terminals and be released

only moderately effective, usually given with L-DOPA

at therapeutic doses does not inhibit MAO-A in the liver, so won’t cause hypertensive crisis with tyramine

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130
Q

what does excessive acetylcholine do in PD?

A

causes diaphoresis (excess sweating), salivation and urinary incontinence

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131
Q

how do anticholinergic drugs work for PD

A

are antagonists, block the binding of acetylcholine to its receptor

may increase the effectiveness of L-DOPA

decrease the incidence of diaphoresis, salivation and incontinence

usually only for younger patients

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132
Q

adverse effects of anticholinergic drugs

A
dry mouth
blurry vision
urinary retention 
constipation 
tachycardia 

elderly patients may experience sever CNS side effects i.e. hallucinations, confusion and delirium, so usually only give to younger patients

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133
Q

is Alzheimer’s more common in men or women

A

women

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134
Q

symptoms of Alzheimer’s

A

memory loss
problems with language, judgement, behaviour and intelligence

early symptoms - confusion, memory loss and difficulty with conducting routine tasks

later on problems with eating, bathing, speaking, controlling bladder and bowel function

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135
Q

pathophysiology of Alzheimer’s

A

degeneration of cholinergic neurons in the hippocampus early in disease

degeneration of neurons in the cerebral cortex later

linked to decreased cholinergic nerve function (have very little function)

have enlarged ventricles and a decreased brain size

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136
Q

how to diagnose Alzheimer’s

A

cannot do until after death and sample brain

hallmarks are neurofibrillary tangles and neuritic plaques

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137
Q

neurofibrillary tangles

A

form inside neurons when MT arrangement is disrupted

cause is abnormal production of tau, a protein that is responsible for forming cross bridges between MTs to keep their structure

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138
Q

neuritic plaques

A

outside of neurons

made mainly of beta amyloid

beta amyloid has been shown to kill hippocampal cells and causes Alzheimer’s like symptoms when injected into monkeys

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139
Q

aetiology of Alzheimer’s

A

mostly unknown

some cases are genetic i.e. DNA mutations

people with 2 copies of ApoE4 are at increased risk - ApE4 promotes formation of neuritic plaques by binding to beta amyloid

also increased incidence in people with mutations in the amyloid precursor gene

head injury is also a risk factor

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140
Q

is drug treatment of Alzheimer’s effective?

A

no shows only minimal improvement in the symptoms

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141
Q

classes of drugs for treatment of Alzheimer’s

A

cholinesterase inhibitors

NMDA receptor antagonists

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142
Q

cholinesterase inhibitors of Alzheimer’s

A

inhibit acetylcholinesterase from metabolizing acetylcholine

more acetylcholine stays in the synaptic cleft

can only enhance cholinergic neurotransmission in the remaining healthy neurons

minimal benefit on some measures of memory

only effective in a small proportion of patients

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143
Q

adverse effects of cholinesterase inhibitors

A

nausea and vomiting
diarrhea
insommnia

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144
Q

NMDA receptor antagonists for Alzheimer’s

A

NMDA is a Ca channel that is normally blocked by magnesium, when glutamate binds, Mg dissociates and Ca can enter the post-synaptic neutron

normal Ca influx is needed for learning and memory

in Alzheimer’s there is excess glutamate release so the NMDA receptor remains open and excess Ca enters the cell

  • > this is detrimental to learning and memory
  • > causes degradation of neurons

so antagonists block the calcium influx so that the increased glutamate ant cause prolonged Ca influx

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145
Q

adverse effects of NMDA receptor antagonists

A

well tolerated

no significant adverse effects in clinical trials (i.e. none were more than placebo)

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146
Q

schizophrenia

A

makes it hard to tell the difference between real and unreal experiences, to think logically, to have normal emotional responses and to behave normally in social situations

do not have multiple personalities
are not usually violent

common mental disease, usually begins in adolescence or early adulthood

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147
Q

positive symptoms of schizophrenia

A

exaggerate or distort normal neurological function

delusions 
hallucinations 
agitation 
paranoia 
combativeness 
disorganized speech 
disorganized thinking
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148
Q

negative symptoms of schizophrenia

A

loss of normal neurological function

social withdrawal
poverty of speech 
poor self care 
poor insight 
poor judgement 
emotional withdrawal 
blunted affect 
lack of motivation
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149
Q

etiology of schizophrenia

A

largely unknown

risk factors:

  • family history, more likely if both parents have it
  • drug abuse (crystal meth/methamphetamine, phencyclidine/PCP/angel dust, lysergic acid diethylamide/LSD) are all known to cause it
  • low birth weight
  • low IQ
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150
Q

basal ganglia in schizophrenia

A

involved in movement and emotions

in schizophrenia abnormal activity is thought to play a role in paranoia and hallucinations

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151
Q

frontal lobe in schizophrenia

A

involved in problem solving and insight

schizophrenia - difficulty planning actions and organizing thoughts

152
Q

limbic system in schizophrenia

A

involved with emotions

schizophrenia - contributes to agitation

153
Q

auditory system in schiozphrenia

A

overactivity contributes to hallucinations

154
Q

occipital lobe in schizophrenia

A

processes visual info

schizophrenia - interpreting images, reading emotion on others faces and recognizing motion

155
Q

hippocampus in schizophrenia

A

mediates learning and memory which are decreased in schizophrenia

156
Q

pathophysiology of schizophrenia

A

thought of as a disorder with increased dopaminergic nerve transmission i.e. excess dopamine

drugs that block dopaminergic function decrease some of the positive symptoms

5-HT/serotonin also plays a role, there are decreased 5-HT2A receptors and increased 5-HT1A receptors in the frontal cortex

glutamate binds to and activates NMDA receptors, PCP is a strong antagonist of NMDA and causes many schizophrenia symptoms
patients with schizophrenia have decreased NMDA receptors in some regions of their brain

157
Q

what receptors does dopamine bind to

A

D2

158
Q

how is schizophrenia diagnosed

A

no definitive test

usually made by psychiatrist after interviewing the patient and family

look at changes in function of the patient, developmental background, family history, response to medication and brain scans

schizophrenics generally have enlarged ventricles and decreased frontal lobe activity

159
Q

general stuff about schizophrenia drug treatment

A

want to block dopamine and/or serotonin neurotransmission in the brain

there are conventional and atypical antipsychotics

differ in their mechanism of action an side effect profiles

both are in use today

160
Q

how do conventional antipsychotics work

A

act primarily by blocking the dopamine D2 receptors in the mesolimbic area of the brain

to a lesser degree also block acetylcholine, histamine and norepinephrine receptors

potency of them is directly proportional to their ability to inhibit D2 receptors

more effective at treating the positive symptoms

initial effect may be seen in 1-2 days but substantial improvement takes 2-4 weeks

161
Q

adverse effects of conventional antipsychotics

A
extrapyramidal symptoms
sudden high fever 
anticholinergic effects 
orthostatic hypotension 
sedation 
skin reactions
162
Q

extrapyramidial symptoms

A

resemble symptoms of PD

acute dystonia - involuntary spasm of muscles in the face, tongue, neck or back - usually early in therapy

parkinsonism - bradykinesia, mask like faces, rigidity, stooped posture - can treat with an anticholinergic but L-DOPA must be avoided

akathesia - pacing, squirming, and a desire to continually be in motion - typically occurs early in treatment

tardive dyskinesia - in patients on long-term therapy, is irreversible so early detection is necessary, symptoms include involuntary twisting and writhing of face and tongue along with lip smacking - need to be switched to an atypical antipsychotic

163
Q

atypical antipsychotics

A

block both dopamine D2 receptors and 5-HT1A and 5-HT2A receptors

affinity to D2 receptors is low, therapeutic action is attributed to blockade of 5-HTs

have the same efficacy against positive symptoms

much greater efficacy against negative symptoms

much lower risk of extrapyramidal symptoms, especially tariff dyskinesia (bc of decreased D2 receptor blocking)

164
Q

adverse effects of atypical antipsychotics

A

sedation, anticholinergic effects and orthostatic hypertension (same as conventional)

weight gain (sometimes severe) 
risk of type II DM
165
Q

what is epilepsy

A

neurological disorder that produces brief disturbances in the normal electrical activity in the brain

characterized by brief, sudden seizures (vary from person to person)

166
Q

seizure

A

a sudden alteration of behaviour that is cause by CNS dysfunction

sudden and transient

167
Q

epileptic seizure

A

a seizure that is caused by primary CNS dysfunction

due to excess depolarization and hypersynchronization of neurons

168
Q

non-epileptic seizure

A

a seizure-like episode that is not the result of abnormal electrical activity in the brain

169
Q

epilepsy

A

a tendency for recurrent spontaneous epileptic seizures

170
Q

status epilepticus

A

a single unremitting epileptic seizure of duration longer than 30 min
OR
frequent seizures without recovery of awareness in between

is an emergency

171
Q

focal/partial seizures

A

arise in one area of the brain

can be simple or complex

172
Q

simple partial seizure

A

involve no loss of consciousness
symptoms depend on where the seizure activity is arising from
sudden, transient and brief
contralateral symptoms

173
Q

complex partial seizure

A
loss of consciousness 
may appear to be awake but are not aware of surroundings 
symptoms depend where activity is 
contralateral 
no memory of events post-ictally 
brief
174
Q

generalized seizure

A

bilateral, diffuse onset and seem to arise from all areas of the brain at once

5 types:

  • absence
  • tonic/clonic
  • myoclonic
  • tonic
  • atonic
175
Q

absence seizures

A

petit-mal

loss of consciousness
behavioural arrest
staring

brief, but may occur in clusters

rarely associated with automatism (unusual purposeless movements)

more common in childhood

176
Q

tonic/clonic seizures

A

grand-mal

abrupt loss of consciousness
tonic period (muscles become rigid)
followed by clonic period (involuntary muscle contractions i.e. shaking)

may become incontinent and have tongue biting
post-octal may be drowsy, confused and frequently have headaches

177
Q

myoclonic seizures

A

sudden, brief muscle contractions that can involve any muscle group

usually no loss of consciousness

sometimes associated with later development of generalized tonic/clonic seizures

178
Q

tonic seizures

A

sudden muscle stiffening

impaired consciousness

179
Q

atonic seizures

A

sudden loss of muscle tone
brief
“drop seizures”

180
Q

secondary generalized seizure

A

begins in one area of the brain and then spreads to the rest

preliminary focal phase is sometimes called an “aura” - some ppl experience it and know they’re going to have a more serious seizure

181
Q

how do you determine where a focal seizure is occurring

A

from the symptoms

182
Q

frontal lobe focal seizure

A

simple repetitive motor movements involving a localized muscle group are associated with contralateral primary motor cortex

tonic posturing affecting the entire side of the body are associated with contralateral Supplemental Motor Area and other higher level motor structures

very complex behavioural automatism that involve bilateral movement i.e. bicycling are associated with higher areas of the frontal cortex - often also have laughter, vocalizations etc

183
Q

temporal lobe focal seizure

A

emotions i.e. anger, fear, deja vu

auditory hallucinations of buzzing or voices, olfactory hallucinations

visual distortions, paresthesias and autonomic disturbances also hard to distinguish from parietal

184
Q

parietal lobe focal seizure

A

localized parethesias i.e. numbers or pins and needles are associated with contralateral somatosensory cortex

more complex and widespread parethesias is associated with somatosensory association cortex

complex multi-sensory hallucinations and illusions can be higher order sensory association areas hard to distinguisj from temporal

185
Q

occipital lobe focal seizure

A

visual hallucinations ie flashing or a repeated pattern in the environment (not usually objects or faces)

temporary blindness or decreased vision, sensation of eye movement, reflex nystagmus

can be mistaken for migraines

186
Q

how is epilepsy classified

A

symptomatic epilepsy - arising from an identified cause i.e. brain tumour, stroke, infection, injury

idiopathic epilepsy - no identifiable cause, usually have family history and genetics are probably involved

cryptogenic epilepsy - likely to have an underlying cause that hasn’t been identified

187
Q

seizure threshold

A

everyone has a seizure threshold and what it is affects how susceptible you are to seizures

affected by stroke, head injury, drug/alcohol withdrawal, infection, tutor, severe fever, visual stimuli (flashing lights)

188
Q

4 ways anti epileptic drugs work

A

blocking Na channels

blocking voltage-dependent Ca channels

glutamate antagonists

potentiating the actions of GABA

189
Q

blocking Na channels for epilepsy

A

blocking Na channels prolongs the inactivation state so that neurons can’t fire at a high frequency

190
Q

phenytoin

A

most common anti-epileptic drug (AED)

blocks Na channels

useful for all seizures EXCEPT absence seizures

non-linear kinetics

narrow therapeutic range, often undergoes therapeutic drug monitoring

191
Q

adverse effects of phenytoin

A

sedation
gingival hyperplasia
skin rash
teratogenic

192
Q

blocking voltage-dependent Ca channels for epilepsy

A

inhibit Ca channels on presynaptic neuron so that neurotransmitter isn’t released

193
Q

glutamate antagonists for epilepsy

A

glutamate is excitatory therefore block it and you will decrease CNS excitation

do this by either blocking the NMDA or AMPA channels (these are what glutamate binds to)

194
Q

potentiating the actions of GABA for epilepsy

A

GABA is inhibitory, it binds to its receptor and causes CL to come into the cell, hyperpolarizing

potentiate GABA 4 ways:

  • enhance binding of GABA to its receptor
  • stimulate GABA release
  • inhibit GABA reuptake
  • inhibit GABA metabolism
195
Q

which AEDs are traditional vs newer and what is the difference

A

phenytoin and valproic acid are traditional
lamotrigine is newer

effectiveness is similar between them, but newer tend to have fewer side effects and a decreased propensity to induce hepatic drug metabolizing enzymes (i.e. fewer drug-drug interactions)

196
Q

diagnosis of depression

A

at least 5 for at least 2 consecutive weeks:

  • depressed mood most of the day, nearly everyday
  • loss of interest or pleasure in almost all activities
  • significant weight loss or gain
  • insommnia or hyperwsommnia
  • psychomotor agitation or retardation
  • fatigue and energy loss
  • feelings of worthlessness or excessive guilt
  • decreased ability to think, concentrate or excessive indecisiveness
  • recurrent thoughts of death or suicide
197
Q

exogenous depression

A

triggered by external stimuli

pathological grief
adjustment disorder

198
Q

endogenous depression

A

may or may not be related to external events

major, severe, atypical depression 
dysthymia 
SAD
postpartum 
bipolar
199
Q

pathological grief

A

prolonged grieving with excessive guilt

psychotherapy more effective than drugs

200
Q

adjustment disorder

A

prolonged depression following failure i.e. losing job

commonly have hyperwsommnia and hyperphagia

psychotherapy more effective than drugs

201
Q

major depression

A

loss of interest and lack of response to positive stimuli

usually worse in the morning

insommia and weight loss

202
Q

severe depression

A

major depression but added suicidal ideation and psychoses

203
Q

atypical depression

A

major depression but have the atypical symptom of hyperwsommnia and hyperphagia

often obese

204
Q

dysthymia

A

mood is regularly low but symptoms are not as severe as major depression

more noticeable to family/friends

psychotherapy better than drugs

205
Q

SAD

A

mild or moderate symptoms of depression related to lack of sunlight

usually only in the winter

206
Q

postpartum depressoin

A

moderate to severe depression after birth

usually within 3 months of delivery but may be up to a year after birth

207
Q

biopolar disorder

A

alternating periods of elevated or irritable mood and periods of depression

208
Q

monoamine hypothesis

A

suggests that altered monoamine release, receptor sensitivity or post-synaptic function lead to the symptoms of depression

209
Q

mechanisms of antidepressants

A

inhibiting monoamine uptake

inhibiting monoamine metabolism

210
Q

4 classes of antidepressants

A

tricyclic
selective serotonin reuptake inhibitors
selective serotonin/norepinephrine reuptake inhibitors
monoamine oxidase inhibitors

211
Q

tricyclic antidepressants

A

3 ring structure
inhibit repute of serotonin and norepinephrine

effective for major depression

212
Q

adverse effects of tricyclic antidepressants

A
antocholinergic effects 
sedation 
orthostatic hypotension 
decreased seizure threshold 
cardiac toxicity 
weight gain 
sexual dysfunction
213
Q

SSRIs

A

only block serotonin reuptake

similar efficacy to TCAs, but lower incidence of side effects

most commonly used drugs for depression

usually used for major depression

214
Q

SSRI adverse effects

A

weight gain
sexual dysfunction
insommnia
serotonin syndrome

215
Q

serotonin syndrome

A

increased serotonin transmission can result in agitation, confusion, anxiety, hallucinations and incoordination

may appear within 3 days of initial therapy and stop when drug is stopped

216
Q

SNRIs

A

block repute of both serotonin and norepinephrine

for major depression

faster onset of action

217
Q

adverse effects of SNRIs

A

nausea
diastolic hypertension
sexual dysfunction

218
Q

MAOIs

A

MAOs inactivate monoamines
MAO-A - serotonin and norepinephrine
MAO-B - dopamine

MAOIs inhibit both A and B
inhibit the metabolism go monoamines in the pre-synaptic neuron (i.e. there is more there that can be released)

useful for atypical depression and dysthymia

219
Q

MAOI adverse effects

A

CNS excitiation - anxiety, insomnia, agitation
orthostatic hypertension
hypertensive crisis if you eat foods with tyramine

220
Q

biopolar manic phase symptoms

A
irritation 
inflated self-esteem 
little need for sleep 
poor control of anger 
reckless behaviour (i.e. binge drinking, eating, drugs)
easily distracted
221
Q

pattern of bipolar disorder

A

no real pattern may have mostly one with the occasional other

on average have 2 episodes every 5 years

222
Q

3 types of drugs to treat bipolar

A

mood stablizers
antipsychotics
antidepressants

223
Q

mood stabilizers

A

relieve symptoms during manic or depressive episodes

prevent recurrence of manic or depressive episodes

do not worsen symptoms or alter rate of cycling

primary ones are lithium and valproic acid (AED)

224
Q

how does lithium work

A

not understood but thought to alter the uptake and release of glutamate and block binding of serotonin

has narrow therapeutic range, and plasma [ ] can be altered by Na

agents that increase Na loss i.e. diuretics increase Li concentrations and may produce toxicity including GI upset, tremor, sedation and hypotension

225
Q

antipsychotics for bipolar

A

acutely control symptoms during manic episodes and long term help stabilize mood
benefit patients even if they don’t have psychotic symptoms

atypical are preferred bc they have a lower risk of extrapyramidal symptoms

226
Q

antidepressants for bipolar

A

treat depressive episodes
always combined with a mood stabilizer (so you don’t cause a manic episode)

no evidence for which antidepressant works best for bipolar

227
Q

anxiety

A

normal physiological response

a disorder exists when the symptoms create a functional impairment

likely to also have depression

228
Q

generalized anxiety disorder

A

overwhelmed with uncontrollable worrying

unrealistic or excessive worry about several activities that lasts 6 months or longer

229
Q

panic disorder

A

sense of impending doom unrelated to stressors

panic attacks - sudden in onset, heart palpitations, chest pain, shortness of breath, dizziness

often confused for a heart attack

230
Q

agoraphobia

A

patient feels judged or a situational anxiety where escaping would be difficult or embarrassing

231
Q

OCD

A

persistent obsession and compulsions that interfere with daily life i.e. hand washing, checking locks

232
Q

social anxiety disorder

A

anxiety in social situations

may not be able to talk or eat in front of others, use public washrooms

233
Q

PTSD

A

anxiety that occurs after experiencing a traumatic events

re-experience the event and have severe insomnia

234
Q

simple phobia

A

related to a specific fear i.e. spiders, elevators

235
Q

classes of drugs for anxiety

A

benzodiazepines
buspirone
antidepressants

236
Q

benzodiazepines

A

first line therapy for anxiety

potentiate the actions of GABA at the GABA receptor
are NOT GABA agonists, they bind to a different site and cause increased GABA binding

when GABA binds it causes chloride ions to move into the cell and causes CNS depression

amplify the actions of endogenous GABA so are limited in how much CNS depression they produce - therefore are safer than agonists i.e. barbiturates

used for anxiety, seizures, insomnia, alcohol withdrawal, muscle spasms
different dosages i.e. higher for insomnia than anxiety

effective for generalized anxiety disorder and social anxiety disorder

237
Q

adverse effects of benzodiazepines

A

CNS depression - drowsiness, difficulty concentrating

anterograde amnesia - impairment of memory of events that occur following dosing

respiratory depression - especially if combined with alcohol

teratogenic

tolerance - only for seizures

withdrawal - need to taper off slowly

238
Q

buspirone

A

not a CNS depressant, it appears to modulate serotonin/dopamine neurotransmission

useful in ppl who drink alcohol since it is not a CNS depressant

only effective for generalized anxiety disorder

no tolerance or physical dependence

effects are slow though, ineffective for immediate relief

well-tolerated, non-sedating

dizziness, lightheadedness and excitement

239
Q

antidepressants for generalized anxiety disorder

A

SSRIs and SNRIs, but are slow like buspirone

240
Q

antidepressants for panic disorder and agoraphobia

A

SSRIs, TCAs and MAOIs, but take 6-12 weeks to appear

SSRIs are preferred bc they are better tolerated

241
Q

antidepressants for OCD

A

SSRIs are first line

also require behavioural therapy

242
Q

antidepressants for social anxiety

A

SSRIs are first line, benzodiapenes may be used

benzodiazapenes provide immediate relief, SSRIs take longer

243
Q

drug treatment for PTSD

A

there is none

244
Q

classic symptoms of diabetes

A

polyuria, polyphagia, polydipsia and weight loss

245
Q

what does insulin do

A

causes glucose uptake in the muscle, liver and fat cells

in liver make glycogen, decrease gluconeogenesis
in muscle use for energy and make protein, make glycogen
also causes uptake of AAs into muscle
in fat make fatty acids and TGs

246
Q

how is extracellular K associated with insulin

A

it helps drive glucose into the cell

247
Q

risk factors for T2DM

A
age 
exercise
heart disease
obesity 
native or african
248
Q

diabetic retinopathy

A

most common cause of blindness in people under age 65

hyperglycemia damages retinal capillaries

tightly controlling blood sugar minimizes risk

should have eye exam once a year

249
Q

diabetic nephropathy

A

proteinuria is the earliest sign

have decreased glomerular filtration and increased blood pressure

leading cause of morbidity and mortality it T1DM patients

tight control of blood glucose delays and reduces severity

ACEIs and ARBs are useful in preventing it, regardless of blood pressure T1DM should take

250
Q

CVD and diabetes

A

CVD including heart attack and stroke are the #1 for mortality and morbidity in T2DM

atherosclerosis develops in diabetics earlier

CVD in diabetes results from a combination of hyperglycaemia and altered lipid metabolism

statins should be taken to reduce risk regardless of LDL levels

251
Q

diabetic foot ulcers

A

most common cause of hospitalization for diabetics

half of all lower limb amputations

should have regular foot exams

252
Q

other diabetic foot complications

A

nerve damage - can’t feel pain etc

decreased blood flow - can’t heal and fight infection

nerves tha control moisture can get damaged, can’t remain moist get dry and cracked skin

skin can become thick or thin

toes can become bent (hammer toes)

253
Q

FPG

A

fast for 8 hours
> 7 mmol/L = diabetes

*preferred test

254
Q

CPG

A

anytime
> 11.1 mmol/L and have polydipsia, polyuria, weight loss = diabetes

if this suggests diabetes usually do FPG to confirm

255
Q

OGTT

A

used when the others can’t definitively diagnose

give 75 g oral glucose then measure blood glucose 2 hours later
> 11.1 mmol/L = diabetes

256
Q

glycosylated hemoglobin

A

high glucose, get glycosylated HbA1C

poor diagnostic, but good for average over 2-3 months
i.e. can look at how well responding to therapy

< 7% is target

257
Q

besides tight control of BG what is the goal of diabetes treatment?

A

keeping blood pressure low
proper lipid levels
maintaining kidney function

258
Q

T1DM lifestyle modifications

A

maintain weight
split food throughout the day every 4-5 hours
exercise because this increases the response to insulin and increases glucose tolerance
need to be careful about strenuous exercise
take insulin
measure BG 3+ times a day

259
Q

T2DM lifestyle modifications

A

caloric restriction will often normalize insulin release and decrease insulin resistance
weight loss bc usually obese
exercise to stimulate glucose uptake

260
Q

is insulin anabolic or catabolic

A

anabolic

promotes energy storage and conservation

261
Q

catabolic effects of insulin deficiency

A

glycogenolysis
gluconeogenesis
decreased glucose utilization

all raise BG

262
Q

short duration rapid acting insulin

A

insulin lispro
insulin aspart
insulni glulisine

with meal for post-prandial rise in glucose
subcutaneous, can be IV if necessary
all are clear solution

263
Q

short duration slower acting insulin

A

unmodified human insulin

injected before meals to control post-prandial rises or infused to provide basal control of BG

subcutaneous or IM (rare)
following subcutaneous injection the molecules form small aggregates which slows the absorption

clear solution

264
Q

intermediate duration insulin

A

neutral protamine hormone (NPH) insulin
insulin detemir

onset is delayed so not used for meals
injected once or twice daily to control BG between meals and in the evening

both are subcutaneous
NPH is cloudy suspension
insulin detemir is clear solution

265
Q

why does NPH insulin have delayed action?

A

conjugated to a large protein called protamine, makes it less soluble and decreases absorption

266
Q

why does insulin deter have delayed action?

A

molecules bind to each other which delays absorption

267
Q

long acting insulin

A

insulin glargine

SC injection at bedtime once daily

long duration of action bc it has a low solubility at physiological pH
when injected it from micro precipitates that slowly dissolve and so its releases in small amounts over time

clear solution

268
Q

mixing insulins

A

so that you only have to take one injection
only NPH insulin can be mixed with short acting ones
short acting should be drawn into syringe first
mixtures are stable

269
Q

complications of insulin therapy

A

hypoglycemia

overdose causing rapid decrease in BG will activate SNS and cause tachycardia, palpitations, sweating, nervousness

more gradual CNS symptoms ie headache, confusion, drowsiness, fatigue occur

v severe can get coma, convulsions, death

270
Q

managing hypoglycemia

A

needs to be treated rapidly to prevent irreversible brain damage

conscious, give fast acting oral glucose i.e. tablets, juice, honey

unconscious IV glucose may be required

keep glucagon just in case

oral glucose is preferred, then IV glucose then glucagon, but depends on the situation
give oral glucose when patient regains consciousness

glucagon won’t work in malnourished or starving patients (no glycogen)

271
Q

classes of oral anti diabetic drugs for T2DM

A
biguanides 
sulfonylureas
meglitinides 
thiazolidinediones (glitazones) 
alpha-glucosidase inhibitors 
gliptins
272
Q

biguanides

A

usually the drug of choice for T2DM

increase sensitivity and number of insulin receptors
decreases hepatic gluconeogenesis
reduces intestinal glucose absorption

don’t increase insulin levels so no risk of hypoglycaemia

273
Q

adverse effects of biguanides

A
nausea
decreased appetite 
diarrhea
decreased absorption of vitamin B12 and folic acid 
lactic acidosis (rare but serious)
**no hypoglycemia**
274
Q

sulfonylureas

A

stimulate insulin release from pancreas
also inhibit glycogenolysis
1st and 2nd generation
2nd are more potent and cause fewer drug interactions

275
Q

adverse effects of sulfonylureas

A

hypoglycemia

prolonged use may cause pancreatic burnout

276
Q

meglitinides

A

same mechanism as sulfonureas i.e. stimulate insulin release from the pancreas

shorter half life though so they are effective for postprandial
less likely to cause hypoglycemia
less likely to cause pancreatic burnout

277
Q

thiazolidinediones (guitarrones)

A

increase insulin sensitivity and decrease hepatic gluconeogenesis

activate PPARgaama (intracellular receptor)
turns on genes that regulate carb metabolism
get increased GLUT transporters and therefore increased insulin sensitivity

also increase HDL and decrease TGs via activation of PPARalpha

278
Q

adverse effects of glitazones

A

fluid retention/edema (shouldn’t use in heart failure)
headache
myalgia (muscle pain)

279
Q

alpha glucosidase inhibitors

A

delay carb absorption in the intestine by blocking alpha glycosides from metabolizing them

reduces post-prandial rise in glucose

280
Q

adverse effects of alpha glucosidase inhibitors

A

poorly absorbed, so its just intestine

flatulence
cramps
abdominal distention 
diarrhea 
decreased iron absorption
281
Q

gliptins

A

inhibit dipeptidyl peptidase 4 (DPP-4) which breaks down the uncertain hormones GLP-1 and GIP

GLP-1 and GIP are released from the GI tract after a meal and cause increased release of insulin and decreased release of glucagon

inhibit DPP-4, have more GLP-1 and GIP to reach pancreas = more insulin and less glucagon

no known major adverse effects

282
Q

incretin mimetics

A

synthetic uncertain analogs that mimic the actions on incretins

cause increased insulin release and decreased glucagon release

given by subcutaneous injection
used along with biguanides or sulfonylureas

283
Q

adverse effects of uncertain mimetic

A

hypoglycemia

pancreatitis

284
Q

virulence factors for bacteria

A

fimbriae and pilli
flagella
secretion of toxins and enzymes
invasion

285
Q

fimbriae and pilli

A

hair-like structures that project from the surface of bacterial cells

allow bacteria to attach to certain sites in the body so they aren’t washed away

286
Q

flagella

A

bacteria live in aqueous environments and need to be able to move to survive
flagella allow them to “swim” to the sites where they may survive

287
Q

toxins and enzymes

A

some bacteria secrete toxins and enzymes

secreted toxins can cause nausea, vomiting, diarrhea, cramps, pain, fever, paralysis

toxins produced outside our body can mediate toxic reactions if they gain entry i.e. food poisoning

enzymes released can degrade tissue or breakdown Abs

288
Q

invasion

A

some bacteria can enter our cells

289
Q

gram staining

A

gram positive = purple because they have a thick peptidoglycan
gram negative = pink, thin peptidoglycan

290
Q

gram positive vs gram negative

A

gram positive
thick peptidoglycan
techoic acids (rigidity, major surface antigen)
have surface proteins

gram negative
thin peptidoglycan
lipopolysaccharides (LPS, structural, major surface antigen)
outer membrane that protects from bile salts and detergents
have porins

note: peptidoglycan = cell wall

291
Q

signs of infection

A

fever, malaise, local redness, swelling

increased respiratory rate and tachycardia

some patients won’t have a fever i.e. newborns (immature hypothalamus) or elder (decreased hypothalamic function)

other location-specific signs

292
Q

selective toxicity

A

destroy bacteria instead of harming the host

  • > disrupt bacterial cell wall
  • > targeting enzymes that are unique to bacteria
  • > disrupting bacterial protein synthesis
293
Q

identifying bacteria

A

gram stain for structural features

culturing to properly identify is best

sometimes can’t i.e. ear infections, hard to get cultures

294
Q

bacteriostatic

A

stop the growth and replication and then the immune system takes care of them

295
Q

bactericidal

A

kill the bacteria

296
Q

MIC

A

minimum inhibitory concentration

297
Q

MBC

A

minimum bactericidal concentration

usually higher than MIC

298
Q

infections that are hard to get to

A
meningitis
UTI
osteomyelitis 
abscesses 
otitis media
299
Q

meningitis

A

meninges, cover the brain and spinal cord
bacterial is worse than viral

need to find antibiotic that will penetrate meninges

300
Q

UTIs

A

any part of urinary system, bladder most common, often during catheterization

need antibiotic that will get to the urinary system in its active form

301
Q

osteomyelitis

A

infection of the bone

few antibiotics will penetrate bone

302
Q

abscesses

A

pus and other injected material collect under the skin

hard to treat bc they don’t have a blood supply

303
Q

otitis media

A

infection of the middle ear

more common in children

hard to get antibiotics to the inner ear

304
Q

how does immunological state of a patient affect antibiotic selection

A

can only use bactericidal in immune compromised ppl

i.e. people who have AIDS, organ transplant, cancer chemotherapy and the elderly

305
Q

what is antibiotic resistance

A

when bacteria did respond to an antibiotic and have lost sensitivity over time

306
Q

how do bacteria reduce drug at the site of the target to develop resistance

A

decrease uptake of drug or increase the expression of efflux pumps

307
Q

how do bacteria increase drug inactivation

A

evolve to produce increased amounts of enzymes that inactivate antibiotics i.e. beta lactase that degrades all antibiotics with beta lactic ring

308
Q

how do bacteria alter targets to acquire resistance

A

evolve mutations in the target i.e. mutate ribosome so antibiotic is ineffective at binding it

309
Q

how to prevent antibiotic resistance

A

prevent infection (vaccinate etc)
diagnose and treat effectively
use antibiotics wisely
prevent transmission

310
Q

antibiotic allergy

A

most commonly penicillin

can be anaphylactic 
urticaria (hives)
anxiety 
swelling of hands, feet, throat
difficulty breathing 
hypotension 

usually within 20 min so monitor

most reaction sie vomiting, diarrhea and non-specific rash are not true allergic reactions

if having an allergic reaction stop antibiotic and monitor vital signs
may need to give diphenhydramine (antihistamine) or an epipen

311
Q

serum sickness

A

takes 1-3 weeks to develop after antibiotic exposure

immune system improperly identifies drug or drug-protein complexes as harmful

get inflammation, fever, hives, rash, joint pain, itching, angioedema, enlarged lymph nodes

treat with antihistamine for itch, analgesics for pain and corticosteroids for inflammation
(plus stop the drug)

312
Q

superinfection

A

special type of resistance
new infection that develops during the course of antibiotic therapy

broad spectrum ABs kill good and bad bacteria, destruction of normal flora can allow new bacteria to flourish
superinfection are caused by drug resistant bacteria so they are difficult to treat

313
Q

how can destruction of normal flora affect you other than superinfection

A

intestinal bacteria synthesize vitamin K, need it if you are taking anticoagulant warfarin or have increased risk of bleeding side effects

intestinal bacteria also contribute to first pass metabolism, can get increased blood drug levels and toxicity

also involved in enterohepatic recycling, get decreased recycling, drug won’t be as effective i.e. contraceptives

314
Q

bone marrow toxicity

A

rare but serious complication of AB therapy

aplastic anemia
thromocytopenia
agranulocytosis
leukopenia

teach patients to look for sore throat, bruising, fatigue

315
Q

transpeptidases

A

form cross bridges between peptidoglycan strands to make the cell wall strong

316
Q

autolysins

A

degrade peptidoglycan cell wall

317
Q

penicillin binding proteins (PBPs)

A

transpeptidases and autolysins

318
Q

how do penicillins work

A

inhibit transpeptidases and activate autolysis

disrupt cell wall synthesis and promote cell wall destruction
bacteria take up water and die

bactericidal
only effective against bacteria that are actively growing and dividing

more effective against gram positive because they don’t have an outer membrane

319
Q

penicillin resistance

A

inability to reach target
inactivation
mutation in PBPs

predominantly done through inactivation using beta lactamases
(we now have beta lactase inhibitors)

320
Q

narrow spectrum penicillins

A

gram positive
need to be IV or IM bc they get destroyed by gastric acid

pneumonia and meningitis

generally considered safe, allergy is the primary adverse effect

321
Q

narrow spectrum penicillinase resistant penicillins

A

altered side chain so they aren’t susceptible to beta lactamases

gram positive

Staphylococci
less effective vs non-penicillinase producing bacteria
not effective for abscesses or bone

some are resistant MRSA

322
Q

broad spectrum penicillins

A

gram positiv and negative
able to penetrate outer membrane of gram negative

readily inactivated by beta lactamases

323
Q

extended spectrum penicillins

A

gram negative and positive
also effective against Pseudomonas aeruginosa, which is resistant to all other penicillins

susceptible to degradation by beta lactamases

324
Q

cephalosporins

A

inhibit transpeptidases and activate autolysis (like penicillins)

bactericidal

1st, 2nd, 3rd, 4th generations
each one increases activity against gram negative, resistance to destruction by beta lactamases and ability to penetrate cerebrospinal fluid

allergy is most common adverse effect

suitable for ppl with penicillin allergy

325
Q

vancomycin

A

potentially toxic drug used only for serious infections caused by MRSA including osteomyelitis, meningitis, pneumonia septicaemia

inhibits cell wall synthesis by binding to precursors of cell wall synthesis and blocking transglycosylation step in making cross bridges

may cause ototoxicity
rapid infusion may cause red person syndrome - flushing, rash, itching, hypotension

326
Q

tetracyclines

A

protein synthesis inhibitors
bind to ribosome
broad spectrum
bacteriostatic

adverse effects
GI irritation
photosensitivty (stay out of UV and wear sunscreen)
susceptibility to superinfection

327
Q

macrolide antibiotics

A

protein synthesis inhibitors
bind to ribosome
broad spectrum
bacteriostatic

GI upset
QT interval prolongation

328
Q

oxazolidinones

A

protein synthesis inhibitors
bind to ribosome
narrow spectrum - gram positive only
bacteriostatic

effective in treating MRSA and vancomycin resistant enterococci so only used for these 2

may cause reversible myelosupression

329
Q

aminoglycosides

A

protein synthesis inhibitors
bind to ribosome
narrow spectrum - gram negative only
bactericidal

rapidly lethal to bacteria

cause irreversible ototoxicity and reversible nephrotoxicity

330
Q

sulfonamides and trimethoprim

A

given together

inhibit different stages of folic acid synthesis in bacteria

bactericidal

used for UTIs

sulfonamides inhibit diphydropteroate synthase
trimerthoprim inhibits dihydrofolate reductase

primary adverse effect is hypersensitivity reactions i.e. fever and photosensitivity
small risk of severe hypersensitivity reaction called Stevens-Johnson Syndrome

331
Q

fluoroquinolones

A

inhibit DNA replication by inhibitings DNA gyros and topoisomerase IV

bactericidal
broad spectrum

adverse effects = GI symptoms i.e. nausea, vomiting, diarrhea

332
Q

isoniazid

A
drug NAME, not class 
primary treatment for tuberculosis 

inhibits mycelia acid synthesis, a component unique to the cell wall of bacteria that cause tuberculosis

only works for M tuberculosis

adverse effects = peripheral neuropathy and hepatotoxicity

333
Q

top cancers men

A

prostate, lung, colon, rectum

334
Q

top cancers women

A

breast, lung, colon, rectum

335
Q

neoplastic

A

abnormal and uncontrollable cell growth

336
Q

characteristics of cancer cells

A
persistent uncontrollable cell proliferation
invasive 
metastatic 
immortal 
angiogenesis
337
Q

treatment modalities for cancer

A

surger
radiation
chemotherapy

338
Q

where does most toxicity to normal cells occur in chemotherapy

A

to cells with a high growth fraction
growth fraction is the ratio of proliferating to G0 cells

ie in bone marrow, GI epithelium, hair follicles, germinal epithelium of testes all have high growth fractions

339
Q

do we have good tests to determine if 100% of cancer cells have been killed?

A

no

340
Q

kinetics of chemotherapy

A

first-order

ie constant percentage at given dose

341
Q

importance of early detection of cancer

A

almost always significantly progressed when diagnosed

better prognosis when treatment is started earlier
good way to do it is surgery and then chemo if possible

342
Q

breast cancer screening

A

clinical exam

343
Q

cervical cancer screening

A

pap smear

344
Q

colorectal cancer screening

A

fecal occult blood test

high risk, colonoscopy

345
Q

prostate cancer screening

A

digital rectal exam

prostate specific antigen blood test

346
Q

skin cancer screening

A

self check for changes in skin marks/growths, sores that don’t heal properly

347
Q

testicular cancer screening

A

self examination

348
Q

how do solid tumors respond to chemotherapy

A

poorly because they have a large proportion of cells in the resting (G0) state (chemo drugs usually target proliferating cells)

349
Q

mechanisms of resistance to chemotherapeutics

A

decreased uptake
increased efflux (P-glycoprotein)
decreased activation of prodrug (due to change in metabolizing enzymes)
reduced target sensitivity or increased cellular repair
decreased apoptosis

350
Q

intermittent chemotherapy

A

trying to achieve max benefit

give intermittently to allow normal cells to recover, but kill cancer cells

only works if the normal cells grow back quicker than the cancer cells

351
Q

why is combination chemotherapy useful

A

decreased resistance - won’t likely become resistance to all the drugs you’re using

increased cancer cell kill - different mechanisms can attack in different ways at the same time

decreased injury to normal cells - using drugs that don’t have overlapping toxicities can get greater anti-cancer effects safer than using one drug alone

352
Q

common chemotherapeutic toxicities

A

bone marrow suppression
digestive tract injury
nausea and vomiting

353
Q

bone marrow suppression

A

very high growth fraction

can result in neutropenia, thrombocytopenia, anemia

354
Q

digestive tract injury during chemotherapy

A

stomatitis - inflammation of the oral mucosa
if severe can cause ulcer

diarrhea may occur secondary to damaging the lining - loss of electrolytes

355
Q

nausea and vomiting in chemotherapy

A

give anti-emetic drugs, prevent dehydration and prevention malnutrition when this is occurring

356
Q

types of cytotoxic anti-cancer agents

A
alkylating agents 
platinum compounds 
antimetabolites 
antitumor antibiotics 
mitotic inhibitors
357
Q

cell-phase non-specific drugs

A

effective at any stage, however more effective in proliferating cells than G0 cells

358
Q

alkylating agents

A

cell cycle phase non-specific

transfer an alkyl to N atoms on G residues in DNA and form crossbridges

get miscoding, breaking of DNA and possibly inhibition of DNA synthesis

359
Q

cyclophosphamide

A

most common alkylating agent
prodrug, activated in the liver
therefore its onset of effect is often delayed

360
Q

platinum compounds

A

cell cycle phase non-specific
contain platinum
cross-link DNA and inhibit DNA replication
bind to guanines similarly to alkylating agents

361
Q

cisplatin

A

most common platinum compound

is extrememly nephrotoxic, ototoxic and emetogenic

362
Q

antimetabolites

A

structurally similar to natural compounds the body uses for synthesizing cellular constituents or incorporating into DNA

inhibit particular enzymes to prevent DNA replication

phase-specific, most act during S-phase

1) folic acid analogs - block conversion of folate to its active form
2) purine analogs
3) pyrimidine analogs

363
Q

antitumor antibiotics

A

kill cells by intercalating DNA
causes a change in structure of DNA, can’t be used as a template by DNAP

very poorly absorbed so are given IV

364
Q

anthracyclines

A

type of antitumor antibiotic
effective and widely used
cause severe bone marrow suppression and are cardiotoxic

365
Q

mitotic inhibitors

A

cell cycle phase specific
inhibit mitosis
vinca alkaloids and taxanes

366
Q

vinca alkaloids

A
mitotic inhibitors
derived from periwinkle plant 
blocks mitosis during metaphase 
binds to tubulin, major component of MTs
disrupts organization of MTs and leads to inappropriate distribution of chromosomes and eventually cell death
367
Q

taxanes

A

mitotic inhibitors
act in late G2, just before mitosis
stabilize MT bundles and prevent cell division

368
Q

glucocorticoids for cancer

A

used in combination with other chemotherapeutic agents in cancers derived from lymphoid tissue

beneficial bc they are directly toxic to lymphoid tissue

side effects from long term use: osteoporosis, adrenal insufficiency, susceptibility to infection, GI ulceration, electrolyte disturbance and growth retardation

also helpful for complications of other chemo drugs including reduction in nausea, vomiting, pain and improved appetite

369
Q

what is prostate tissue dependent on

A

androgens

370
Q

how can androgen deprivation be achieved

A

gonadotropin releasing hormone agonist or surgically by castration
GnRH agonists cause transient increase in testosterone production in the testes (symptoms may worsen) but then cause decreased GnRH release through desensitization and negative feedback

net effect = less testosterone synthesis and release

can also use androgen receptor antagonists (block androgen receptors in cancer cells)

usually these 2 are given together

371
Q

how is breast cancer treated

A

depriving breast cancer cells of estrogen

in combination with surgery and radiation

372
Q

types of breast cancer drugs

A

anti-estrogens
aromatase inhibitors
trastuzumab

373
Q

anti-estrogens

A

block estrogen receptors

tamoxifen is the most common one
is a partial agonist, minimally activates, but blocks endogenous estrogen for binding

374
Q

aromatase inhibitors

A

aromatase converts androgens to estrogen
inhibit conversion = less estrogen available to breast cancer cells

do not block ovarian estrogen synthesis, so only are useful in post-menopausal women

375
Q

trastuzumab

A

also called herceptin
monoclonal Ab that binds to HER2 receptors and prevents cell proliferation
(some cancers have increased HER2 receptors, they are especially aggressive tumors)

must be given IV bc it is an Ab

causes cardiotoxicity

376
Q

tyrosine kinase inhibitors

A

imatinib is the prototype
is effective for chronic myelogenous leukaemia and gastrointestinal stromal tumours
causes complete inhibition of cellular proliferation and cause cell death via apoptosis

binds to bcr-abl fusion protein

primary toxicities are nausea, vomiting, edema, muscle cramps