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P&P Final > Final > Flashcards

Final Flashcards

1
Q

Definition of “sub-clinical”

A

Functional or anatomical abnormality detectable only with diagnositcs or indirect measures

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2
Q

Definition of “syndrome”

A

Set of signs or series of events occurring together often caused by single disease or condition (down cow syndrome)

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3
Q

Define “symptom”

A

Perceived by the patient

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4
Q

Define “sign”

A

Found by the examiner

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5
Q

Define “group syndrome”

A

Collection of diseases with common characteristics (lowered calf crop could be caused by lack of cyclicity)

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6
Q

Target vs action goal

A

Target: attainable goals in the production system (health, quality milk, reproduction)
Action: level when intervention must be taken by management

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7
Q

Qualities of ideal vaccine

A 
Prolonged immunity
Free of adverse side effects
Inexpensive
Stable
Response distinguishable from natural infection
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8
Q

When NOT to vaccinate

A

First 3-5 days and first 3-5 weeks because of reduces immune response
Stress (within 1 week of castration, dehorning, weaning, and movement)
Lactation (4 weeks prior and 4-5 weeks post calving, bc immune suppression)

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9
Q

Advantages and disadvantages of modified live vaccine

A

Advantages: strong immunity, effective, less hypersensitivity

Disadvantages: mild reactions, abortion, reversion to virulence, limited shelf life

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10
Q

Advantages and disadvantages of killed vaccines

A

Advantages: unlikely to cause disease, stable storage
Disadvantages: short lived immunity, hypersensitivity, local reactions

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11
Q

Endotoxin load

A

Adults can get max of 3 gram negative antigens

Young can get max of 2 gram negative antigens

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12
Q

Vaccine program for dairies

A 
Major viral diseases: BVDV (types 1 & 2), BHV-1, BRSV, PI3
5 primary Lepto serovars
Major clostridial diseases
Core endotoxin vaccines
Brucellosis
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13
Q

What vaccines should incoming heifers get?

A

IBR/BVD/PI3/BSRV killed
Clostridium 7-way
E. Coli
Pinkeye

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14
Q

Why should you not vaccinate a bull for Brucella?

A

Will test positive and can lead to orchitis

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15
Q

What affects vaccine efficacy?

A

Type of vaccine

Route of administration

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16
Q

What is a classic sign of tetanus?

A

Third eyelid prolapse

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17
Q

What can be used to prevent tetanus?

A

Toxoid vaccine

Tetanus antitoxin for unvaccinated horses or neonates (foal w/o colostrum)

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18
Q

Encephalidities

A

EEE, WEE, VEE, WNV
Lifecycles include birds and mosquitoes
Humans and horses are dead end hosts

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19
Q

Mortality ranking of encephalidities

A

EEE>VEE>WEE>WNV

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20
Q

EEE

A

Sleeping sickness
Neuro signs (behavior change, low grade fever to high grade fever, dementia, seizures)
*In florida - booster EEE/WEE every 4-6 months

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21
Q

What is essential following infection with influenza?

A

Rest

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22
Q

EHV-1

A

Late term abortion

Vax does not prevent disease, but can minimize effects

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23
Q

EHV-4

A

Respiratory disease

Horses can be carriers and stress can cause recrudescence

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24
Q

Strangles

A

Lymph node enlargement
Highly contagious
Shedding of bacteria 1-2 days after onset of pyrexia
Nasal,pharyngeal culture is “gold standard” of diagnosis

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25
Q

When should mares be vaccinated for strangles?

A

30-60 days pre-foaling

Intranasal more effective but cannot cause colostral immunity

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26
Q

“Shaker foal syndrome”

A

Botulism

Vaccine available for type B

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27
Q

Potomac horse fever

A

Neorickettsia risticii

Fresh water snails

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28
Q

Equine viral arteritis

A

Abortion
Transmitted by respiratory and semen
Vaccine can interfere with semen so make sure to report negative status

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29
Q

Most common cause of infectious diarrhea in foals

A

Rotavirus

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30
Q

Equine Infections Anemia

A

Coggins test- AGID control program

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31
Q

1-2-3 rule

A

1 hour to stand
2 hours to nurse
3 hours to pass placenta

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32
Q

Umbilical care of foals

A

Dilute cholohex dip several times per day

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33
Q

Enema of foals

A

Given in first few hours, should not give more than 1

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34
Q

Colostrum for foals

A

Need 2L in first 24 hours (gut closure)

Measure IgG at 12-24 hours (<800 consider transfusion, <400 definite transfusion)

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35
Q

Barrow

A

Castrated male

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36
Q

Fat hog/finisher

A

Pig at finishing weight

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37
Q

All in/all out

A

All come in and leave at same time
Will not eliminate all respiratory disease
Make sure to clean between

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38
Q

Non-productive sow day

A

Not pregnant or lactating

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39
Q

SEW (segregated early weaning)

A

Take away from mom and raise elsewhere

To control disease

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40
Q

Market age and weight for pig

A 
6 months (205 days)
230-280 lbs
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41
Q

Most common type of pig operation today

A

Breeding companies (genetic companies raise grandparent stock with good traits -> good parent stock -> terminal stock)

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42
Q

What are colored pig breeds good for?

A

Growth, lean muscle, size

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43
Q

What are white pig breeds known for?

A

Mothering

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44
Q

Maternal crosses

A

Yorkshire x Landrace

Chester White

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45
Q

What disease will still be present with specific pathogen free (SPF)?

A

Strep suis

46
Q

What are antibiotics not used for anymore?

A

Gain/feed efficiency

47
Q

Sulfa drug withdrawl times

A

Very long

48
Q

What is one of the most important factors for a pig close to market?

A

Drug residues

49
Q

Why are drugs often water soluble?

A

Pigs stop eating before stops drinking

50
Q

Timeline for first 21 days of swine

A

Day 1-3: clip needle teeth, supplement iron, dip navel, dock tail, abx
Day 7: castrate, repeat C&D antitoxin, vaccinate (bordetella, pasturella, erysipelas) creep feed
Day 14-21: iron, wean vax (mycoplasma, PRRSV), parasite control, split weaning

51
Q

What should you always vaccinate piglets for?

A

E. Coli

Erysipelas

52
Q

Colibacillosis (E. Coli) in piglets

A

White scours
Milk cannot be absorbed
Profuse watery diarrhea, dehydration, death
Control by vaccinating sows

53
Q

TGE

A

Morbidity 100%
Vomiting, diarrhea
Thin intestine wall on necropsy, no response to treatment
Treat with fluids and supportive care

54
Q

What two diseases of piglets both have vomiting and diarrhea?

A

TGE

PED

55
Q

What is worse - coronavirus or rotavirus?

A

Coronavirus

Cuts down villi more so takes longer to recover

56
Q

PED (Porcine epidemic diarrhea virus)

A

Profuse watery diarrhea, vomiting

Supportive care

57
Q

Coccidiosis in piglets

A

Sow is not the source (oocysts in piglet environment)

Diarrhea at 4-5 days

58
Q

Clostridial enteritis in piglets

A 
<7 days
Clostridium perfringens type C
100% mortality
Hemorrhagic small intestine (young pigs)
Diphtheric membrane (old pigs)
59
Q

Rotavirus in piglets

A

Only takes tips of villi
7-14days old
Vomiting (also diarrhea, anorexia)
Regeneration of villous tips 7-10days in young and 3-4days in older piglets

60
Q

Timeline of when piglets get diseases

A

1-2 days: E Coli
4-5 days: Coccidiosis
<7 days: Clostridium
7-14 days: Rotavirus

61
Q

What can happen with early weaning?

A

Navel sucking

62
Q

Pasturella

A

Secondary inavder

63
Q

Enteric diseases of weaned pigs

A 
Colibacillosis
Edema disease
Salmonellosis
Serpulina Hyodysenteriae (Brachyspira)
PIA
Gastric Ulcers
64
Q

What causes post weaning diarrhea (PWD)?

A

Colibacillosis

65
Q

What is edema disease caused by?

A

E. Coli

Within 10 days pigs are blind, dull, uncoordinated, death

66
Q

What causes rectal strictures in pigs?

A

Salmonella

Septic form: cyanosis
Enteric form

“Button ulcers”

67
Q

Porcine intestinal adenomatosis (PIA)

A

Aka ileitis
Necroproliferative enteritis
Proliferative hemorrhaic enteropathy (PHE)

Campylobacter or lawsonia
Very thickened ileum

68
Q

Acute and chronic signs of gastric ulcers in pigs

A

Acute - hemorrhage and death

Chronic - anemia, weight loss

69
Q

Always necropsy pigs if only sick for 1 day

A

Yep

70
Q

Porcine respiratory disease complex (PRDC)

A

“18 week wall”

Necropsy everyone

71
Q

Mycoplasma pneumonia

A

No mortality, just sick and coughing
Common
Mycoplasma hyopneumoniae

72
Q

Swine flue

A

Bird transmission
Explosive outbreaks of coughing (100% morbidity) with high fever
Low mortality, typically resolve in 5-7 days

73
Q

Pasturella multocida

A

Usually secondary, lives in resp tract of pigs

Sever dyspnea and open-mouth breathing

74
Q

Actinobacillus pleuropneuoniae (APP)

A 
aka hemophilus
High mortality rate
Respiratory infarcts
Acute, subacute, and chronic signs
Diagnose by CS, culture
75
Q

Porcine reproductive respiratory syndrome (PRRS)

A

Mystery pig disease
Reproductive disorders and high piglet mortality
Acute is epizootic, chronic is endemic
Causes immunosuppression

76
Q

Major intestinal parasites of adult horses

A

Small strongyles (most important to manage bc economic loss, significant resistance, live in cecum/colon walls for 4-6 weeks)

Large strongyles (migrate through abdominal tissues, moxidectin and fenbendazole used to treat, winter time)

77
Q

Major intestinal parasites in young horses

A

Anoplocephala perfoliata (tapeworms, ileo-cecal valve, Praziquantel)

Ascarids (Parascaris equorum, live in SI but migrate through lungs, 75 days to produce eggs, resistance, always deworm at 60 days and then every 30-60d until 1 yo, cannot be diagnosed prior to 80days by fecal float)

78
Q

Strongyloides westeri

A

Threadworms
Diarrhea in foals, no dz in mares
Infection spread via milk

79
Q

Refugia

A

Wild type parasites that have not been subjected to anthelmintic pressures, lack resistance genes

80
Q

When to treat strongyles based on fecal egg count

A

<200 epg: dont treat
200-500 epg: may treat
>500 epg: treat

81
Q

Deworming based on climate

A

South: dont deworm in summer
North: dont deworm in winter

82
Q

5 C’s of dairy calf raising

A 
Colostrum
Cleanliness
Comfort
Calories
Consistency
83
Q

When do most dairy calves die?

A

2-14 days

84
Q

Two determinants of success of colostrum

A

Time

Mass of Ig

85
Q

Goal for growth rate for one month old calves

A

1.8lb/day

86
Q

When to dehorn calves

A

1 month old

87
Q

Vaccines of one month old calf

A

Clostridium, IBR/PI3/BVD/BRSV

88
Q

What is the first and most important line of defense against bacteria in mammary gland?

A

Teat cannal

89
Q

Peracute mastitis

A

Most sever form

90
Q

Subacute mastitis

A

Most common clinical form

91
Q

Subclinical mastitis

A

Most common form

92
Q

Primary udder pathogens

A

Staph aureus
Strep agalactia
Mycoplasma
Strep dysgalactia

93
Q

Environmental pathogens for udder

A

Staph uberis

Strep dysgalactia

94
Q

Treatment of Strep agalactiae

A

BLITZ TREATMENT: Treatment of all positive quarters

95
Q

Staph aureus

A

Contagious mastitis

No response to penicillin

96
Q

Mycoplasma (mastitis)

A

Contagious
“Coffee grounds” milk
Mostly respiratory pathogen

97
Q

95% rule for mastitis

A

95% of mastitis due to strep ag, dysgalatia, uberis, staph aureus, coliforms

98
Q

Goal for percentage of cows with clinical mastitis per month

A

<3%

99
Q

What will not differentiate between sick individual or herd?

A

Somatic cell counts of bulk tank

100
Q

Important steps of proper milking

A

Clean and dry teats

Dip all teats post milking

101
Q

Dry Cow therapy

A

All functional quarters of all cows should be treated with long-acting intramammary abx at time of drying off

102
Q

What is an acceptable form of treatment for mastitis?

A

Culling :(

103
Q

Emergency preparation for beef cattle

A

Assess problem potentials
Client education
Have supplies/drugs available
Establish protocols

104
Q

Fed beef vs non-fed beef

A

Fed beef: born and raised for the intention of becoming quality meat
Non-fed beef: cows that were used for other purpose and then become hamburger

105
Q

Most preferred route of drug administration for beef cows

A

SQ

106
Q

Beef production phases

A

Cow-calf phase
Stocker-grower phase
Finishing phase

107
Q

What is an ideal calving interval?

A

365 days

108
Q

Calves devoid of active immunity until what?

A

Passive transfer of immunoglobulins from colostrum

109
Q

Strategy for control of parasites (beef cattle)

A

Minimize pasture contamination
Balance stocking rates
Rotate pastures

110
Q

Using TP, whats the cut off to be considered passive transfer?

A

5.5g/L or better

P&P Final (1 decks)

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