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Neuro Behavior Final > Final > Flashcards

Final Flashcards

1
Q

The outcome of learning is…

A

Memory!

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2
Q

What are the 3 processing stages?

A

Encoding: step 1: acquisition 2: consolidation
Storage
Retrieval

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3
Q

What happens during the Encoding stage?

A

Aquisition and Consolidation

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4
Q

T/F: key to memory is hippocampus which is interconnected with many structures particularly wide regions of the cortex and amygdala

A

True

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5
Q

T/F: How much of medial temporal lobe was lost = degree of amnesia

A

True

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6
Q

T/F: Loss of bilateral hippocampus = light amnesia

A

False. Loss of bilateral hippocampus = severe amnesia

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7
Q

What’s the point of this? HM - temp lobe and hippocampus detached. He can remember everything up to 2 years prior to surgery. He retained normal short term memory and working memory and procedural memory but could not process new long term memory

A

Memory is it’s own function, separate from perception and intellect. Can still learn new motor, procedural and perceptual skills but can’t remember how

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8
Q

T/F: Memory is part of perception and intellect.

A

False. Memory is it’s own function

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9
Q

T/F: If Temp Lobe and Hippocampus is detached, you can’t learn new motor or procedural skills.

A

False. Can still learn new motor, procedural and perceptual skills just can’t remember how.

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10
Q

Name 4 types of memory

A

Sensory memory
Short term memory
Working memory
Long term memory

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11
Q

Shortest term of memory includes echoic (hearing) and iconic (vision) memory

A

Sensory Memory

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12
Q

Indeed, it lasts for such a short time that it is often considered part of the process of perception, but it nevertheless represents an essential step for storing information in short-term memory.

A

Sensory Memory

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13
Q

Combination of ability to retain info over short term (maintenance) and perform mental operations of stored material (manipulation)

A

Working Memory

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14
Q

Baddeley and Hitch propose the phonological loop, visuospatial sketchpad, and central executive

A

Working Memory

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15
Q

Declarative and Nondeclaritive are what kinds of memory?

A

Long Term Memory

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16
Q

Episode and Semantic memory are part of what kind of memory?

A

Declarative Memory

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17
Q

Memory for events and facts we have conscious access to and can be verbally reported. Broken down into episodic and semantic memory (knowing what). This memory system is the system of memory that is perhaps the most familiar.

A

Declarative

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18
Q

A fact like ‘Paris is the capital of France’, or an event like a prior vacation to Paris is an example of what kind of memory?

A

Declarative

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19
Q

Those of personal experiences (think of self as agent) begins age 13 months. memory of autobiographical events (times, places, associated emotions, and other contextual who, what, when, where, why knowledge) that can be explicitly stated. It is the collection of past personal experiences that occurred at a particular time and place.

A

Episodic Memory (part of declarative LTM)

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20
Q

Objective knowledge that is factual in nature; retained but context of learning lost, won’t remember precise moment of learning, refers to a portion of long-term memory that processes ideas and concepts that are not drawn from personal experience. Includes things that are common knowledge, such as the names of colors, the sounds of letters, the capitals of countries and other basic facts acquired over a lifetime.

A

Semantic Memory (part of declarative LTM)

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21
Q

implicit memory, ex. Priming, habituation, sensitization, procedural memory, learning a motor or cognitive skill and not dependent on medial temporal lobe (knowing how) They include the memories for skills and habits (e.g., riding a bicycle, driving a car, playing golf or tennis or a piano),

A

Nondeclarative Memory

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22
Q

What part of brain plays key role in procedural memory?

A

the basal ganglia (KEY!), cerebellum, amygdala, and neocortex.

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23
Q

What model is this? They are: sensory register, short-term memory (STM), and long-term memory (LTM). This model of memory assumes that the processes of moving information from the sensory store to short-term and then long-term memory takes place in discrete stages.

At each stage info may be lost by decay or interference (new info takes its place). Conflict as to how much overlap between short and long term memory systems; double dissociation is questionable

A

Modal Model

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24
Q

T/F: Basal Ganglia is critical to formation of new LTM

A

False. Hippocampus is critical to formation of new LTM

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25
Q

(caused by physical exertion in men, emotional stress in women over 50) can cause sudden transient anterograde amnesia and retrograde amnesia spanning weeks to years and may continually ask “Why am I here” (intense amnesia) - “There he is!” Simple orientation became procedural memory.

A

Transient ischemia/Transient global amnesia (has to do with Medial Temporal Lobe system)

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26
Q

T/F: Hippocampus (can’t process new memories) deteriorates rapidly in those with Alzheimer Disease, those with a thicker hippocampus develop dementia at lesser extent (endurance exercise good for this)

A

True!

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27
Q

T/F: Those with a thicker hippocampus develop dementia at lesser extent (endurance exercise good for this)

A

True

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28
Q

What part of brain key for emotional memory?

A

Amygdala

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29
Q

What part of brain key to encoding and retrieval for episode memory?

A

Hippocampus

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30
Q

T/F: perirhinal cortex stores contextual info while Parahippocampal cortex stores specific items. FMRI studies showed activation only when correct items retrieved

A

False. parahippocampal cortex stores contextual info while perirhinal cortex stores specific items. FMRI studies showed activation only when correct items retrieved

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31
Q

Episodic info that leads to recollection experiences is …

A

Relational Memory. During retrieval, same brain regions activated during perception of pictures reactivated, same for sounds

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32
Q

What part of brain key to relational memory?

A

Hippocampus. Processes all manner of associations and sequences of events that comprise our daily lives, linking these into relational frameworks. According to this perspective, the hippocampus mediates large-scale relational frameworks for, among others, family trees and city layouts, which allow us to make novel detours through our city or make inferences about the relationships between members of our family.

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33
Q

T/F: R frontal cortex involved in encoding; L frontal cortex involved in retrieval

A

False. L frontal cortex involved in encoding; R frontal cortex involved in retrieval (remember the 2 R’s)

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34
Q

T/F: Semantic coding and retrieval both on the L side (Broca’s)

A

True

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35
Q

T/F: Parietal cortex key role in attentioal role in memory unclear

A

True

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36
Q

T/F: Damage to medial temporal lobe (primarily hippocampus) and related structures impedes formation of new declarative memories (anterograde amnesia)

A

True

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37
Q

What stabilizes memory over time?

A

Consolidation

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38
Q

What theory is this? (episodic and semantic) memories initially depend on the hippocampus, but eventually become consolidated in their original forms in other brain regions. Memories consolidated through some sort of interaction between medial temporal lobe and the neocortex, but with time, bound info is slowly transferred and replaced by permanent memory trace in neocortex

A

Standard Consolidation Theory

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39
Q

What theory is this? Posits that with each retrieval a hippocampal trace is left solidifying memory
Memories stored as distributed representations throughout the neorcortex. Argues that the hippocampus is always involved in the retrieval and storage of episodic memories

A

Multiple trace theory. Findings indicate that the standard model of memory consolidation, which views the hippocampus as having only a temporary role in memory, is wrong. Instead, the data support the view that for episodic and spatial detail the hippocampal system is always necessary.

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40
Q

What theory is this? Memories are encoded in hippocampal–cortical networks, Memory reactivation leads to the generation of multiple traces in the hippocampus, which are linked to cortical networks, Traces in the hippocampus provide spatial and temporal context, Traces in the cortex are context-free (or semantic) in nature, Retrieval of contextually rich episodic memories always depends on hippocampal–cortical networks, Retrieval of remote semantic memories is possible in the absence of a functional hippocampus.

A

Multiple Trace Theory. Predicts that reactivation should also lead to the generation of new traces within the hippocampus

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41
Q

T/F: Small quantities of cortisol aids learning but chronic stress is detrimental to cognition and memory so chronic is bad on memory

A

True

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42
Q

These neurons appear to be “replaying” the learned tasks during sleep

A

Place cells

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43
Q

What is crucial to consolidation memory but grad students don’t get enough of?

A

Sleep

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44
Q

According to this approach, working memory is a system with several different parts that control the information being processed. This led to the development of new model… This model assumes that each component has a limited capacity and is relatively, not entirely, independent of the others. Baddeley’s original model contained three components, the phonological loop, the visuo-spatial sketchpad, and the central executive. However, the current model also contains the episodic buffer.

A

Allan Baddeley’s Model of Working Memory.

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45
Q

Processes sounds and is responsible for speech based information. This includes sounds that are processed in one’s mind.

A

Phonological loop

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46
Q

Responsible for processing visual and spatial information. It can be fed either directly, through perception, or indirectly, through a visual image. Allows people to store images of objects and their locations. When a person goes from one location to another, this is stimulated. It is also activated in various activities such as puzzles, mazes, and games.

A

visuo-spatial sketchpad

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47
Q

incorporates information from the phonological loop, the visuo-spatial sketchpad, the episodic buffer, and from long-term memory.

A

Central executive

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48
Q

was not a part of Baddley’s original model. It was added to the model 25 years later. It is seen as a place to temporarily integrate information gathered from the phonological loop, visuo-spatial sketchpad, and long-term memory.

A

Episodic Buffer

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49
Q

T/F: Even in short term, there are elements of both memory systems at play

A

True

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50
Q

T/F: Immediate recall involves both STM and LTM components with either phonologic or semantic coding

A

True

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51
Q

storage system: short term (undemanding material, good for rapid, attentionally undemanding verbal material, effective in serial order)

A

Phonological STM

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52
Q

storage system: long term (coding rapid for meaningful sequences, harder to use unrelated words)

A

Semantic Base

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53
Q

What are three assumptions that led to original WM Model?

A 
#1 - assumed holding in STM guaranteed to transfer to LTM
#2- Believed that STM essential to LTM 
#3 - STM believed to be part of WM, so poor STM= poor cognition
These 3 assumptions led to the first model.
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54
Q

What was the original WM model like?

A

Original WM model abandoned assumption that WM is a single unitary store consisting of visuospatial sketch pad, central executive, and phonological loop. Used Shallice attention model that action is controlled in 2 ways

1) Based on well learned habits requiring little attentional demand (System 1)
2) Supervisory attentional system (system 2)

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55
Q

4 primary functions of what?

1) need to be able to focus attention
2) be able to divide attention between 2 important stimulus streams
3) Must be able to switch between tasks
4) Must have capacity to interface with LTM (capacity for 15 words) No strict division from ST AND LTM, there are both things used during task.

A

Central Executive part of WM model

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56
Q

“Act as a buffer store, not only between components of WM but also linking Wm to perception and LTM”, depends heavily on the central executive

A

Episodic Buffer

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57
Q

T/F: Feelings are rooted in events occurring at single-cell level, specifically in the myelinated axons

A

False. Feelings are rooted in events occurring at single-cell level, specifically in the unmyelinated axons

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58
Q

What is this? Thirst, food and air hunger (the urge to breathe), different kinds of pleasure and pain, disgust, fear, sadness and joy, as well as complex social responses such as contempt, shame, compassion, admiration

A

Feelings

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59
Q

What is action programme responsible for?

A

Emotions and drives

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60
Q

T/F: Five senses cause emotions and ensuing feelings but not feelings themselves

A

True

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61
Q

What describes a state of the body in which the condition of viscera (heart, lungs, gut, skin) has key role

A

Feelings

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62
Q

T/F: felt experiences permit more flexible and effective corrective measures than neural mapping alone, especially in the realm of complex behavior

A

True

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63
Q

A set of innate/instinctual physiological actions triggered by changes in the internal or external environments and aimed at maintaining or restoring homeostatic balance

A

Action programmes

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64
Q

What is considered subjective and individual, it is now involved in much of the cognitive processing, influences attention and decision making, bias behavior and actions.

A

Emotion

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65
Q

Action programmes triggered by external stimuli (perceived or recalled) include disgust, fear, anger, sadness, joy, shame, contempt, pride, compassion, admiration. Most agree there’s a phsysiological response too

A

Emotion

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66
Q

action programme aimed at satisfying basic instinctual physiological needs (hunger, thirst, libido, play, care of progeny and attachment to mates)

A

Drive

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67
Q

T/F: emotions are objective and general

A

False. Emotions are subjective and individual

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68
Q

Emotions are involved in which processes?

A

Emotions are involved in cognitive processing, attention and decision making, bias behavior and actions

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69
Q

What is the definition of emotions?

A

Emotions: Action programs largely triggered by external stimuli (perceived or recalled). Examples include disgust, fear, anger, sadness, exploration and play, care of progeny, and attachment to mates.

Most agree it involves a physiological response, a behavioral response, and a feeling

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70
Q

T/F: the orbitofrontal cortex (OFC) is a prefrontal cortex region in the frontal lobes in the brain which is involved in cognitive processing of decision making

A

True

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71
Q

T/F: The limbic system has a large impact on the neural basis of emotions.

A

True. The orbitofrontal cortex and the amygdala involved in the limbic system have been a long time focus of the neural basis of emotion

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72
Q

T/F: The neural systems involved in emotion are very specific, individualized regions.

A

False. It is a complex interconnected network with different systems processing different emotions

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73
Q

What are the three primary categories of emotions?

A
  1. Basic emotions
  2. Complex Emotions
  3. Dimensions of emotion
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74
Q

What are basic emotions?

A

Basic Emotions: comprise a closed set of emotions with unique characteristics, evolved and reflected through facial expressions. Innate and similar in all humans.

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75
Q

Anger, fear, disgust, sadness, surprise, happiness, pride and shame are examples of?

A

Basic Emotions. They are all innate, universal, and short-lived (not lasting quality)

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76
Q

Combinations of basic emotions, socially or culturally learned that can be identified as long-lasting feelings

A

Complex Emotions

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77
Q

Love and jealousy are examples of what type of emotions…

A

Complex Emotions

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78
Q

Describes emotions that are fundamentally the same but that differ along one or more dimensions such as valence (positive-negative) or arousal (high-low)

A

Dimensions of emotion

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79
Q

T/F: positive valence is associated with withdrawal and negative valence is associated with approach

A

False. Positive valence (e.g., happy) is associated with approach and negative valence (e.g., angry) is associated with withdrawal.

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80
Q

What should you not do when you encounter a bear?

A

Run.

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81
Q

What is the James-Lange Theory?

A

He proposed that the emotions were the perceptual results of somatovisceral feedback from bodily responses to an emotion-provoking stimulus. He used the example of fear associated with spotting a bear. You run because of bodily changes (bear as stimulus causing increased heart rate, sweating) and then fear scared afterwards.

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82
Q

Theory that an emotional stimulus (bear) is processed by the thalamus and sent simultaneously to the neocortex and hypothalamus

A

Cannon-Bard Theory. The cortex interprets dangerous situation and causes fear (fast process) while the hypothalamus stimulates the SNS and causes an emotional reaction of fight/flight (slower process). Occurs simultaneously.

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83
Q

Theory in which emotional processing is an interpretive act

A

Appraisal theory.

E.g., we interpret whether we should be afraid or not

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84
Q

Theory that is a blend of the James-Lange and Appraisal theories that reasoning is required to appraise a stimulus before the emotion can be identified.

A

Singer-Schachter theory. When something happens, we must put a causative agent to it.

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85
Q

What is the adrenaline study?

A

Two different groups of participants received adrenaline injections. Those that were unaware that they had been injected with adrenaline attributed feelings to the environment (placed with angry confederate).

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86
Q

Theories that suggest that emotion emerges from cognition molded by our culture. Emotions are human-made concepts that emerge as we make meaning out of sensory input from the body and world.

A

Constructivist Theories

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87
Q

Perspective that emotions involve coordinated cognitive programs that work together. An emotion is not reducible to any one category of effects.

A

Evolutionary psychology

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88
Q

Theory that emotional response system is separate from conscious feelings of emotion

A

Ledoux’s high road and low road

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89
Q

What are the 3 components of emotions

A
  1. physiological response
  2. behavioral response
  3. subjective feelings
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90
Q

The most connected structure in the forebrain

A

Amygdala

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91
Q

Role of amygdala in fear:

A

Without amygdala, the evolutionary value of fear is lost. Critical for implicit fear-based conditioning and explicit fear-based learning.

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92
Q

T/F: The hippocampus modulates arousal in relation to memory and enhances retention and modulates hippocampal consolidation

A

False. The amygdala modulates arousal in relation to memory and enhances retention and modulates hippocampal consolidation.

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93
Q

He was the first to recognize that emotions are needed to optimize decision making. Without them, we would have no rational for any decisions.

A

Demasio

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94
Q

Study that found that those with orbFC damage lose risk aversion. OrbFC is needed to guide decision making.

A

Devised Iowa Gambling Task devised by Demasio and colleagues.

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95
Q

3 types of emotion that influence decision making:

A
  1. Your current emotional state
  2. Your anticipatory emotions prior to the decision
  3. Emotion you expect to feel after you have made the decision
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96
Q

What does the extinction of conditioned response require?

A

Extinction of a conditioned response (learning there has been a change in reward patterns) requires change in initial perception. Damage to orbFC results in the inability to respond to changing patterns of reward and punishment

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97
Q

Damage to this area leads to inability to assess and make good decisions. Don’t feel regret or anticipate negative consequences to their choices (qualities important for social interaction)

A

Orbital Frontal Cortex. Has distinct regions related to reward and punishment

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98
Q

This patient could identifying facces, but not recognize the expression of fear on a face

A

S.M.

Had amygdala damage. Could recognize fear if instructed to focus on the eyes

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99
Q

What part of brain is increasingly activated by angry faces

A

Orbital Frontal Cortex

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100
Q

What part of brain is active in the categorization of people into groups/racial stereotyping?

A

Amygdala. Activated in white people when seeing unfamiliar black faces, correlated with racial bias. Effect diminished with longer presentations of faces

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101
Q

T/F: emotional regulation is better in those with increased R frontal lobe vs. L frontal lobe activation

A

False. Emotional regulation is better in those with increased L frontal lobe

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102
Q

Is it better to control and regulate emotions or suppress emotions?

A

Not just only 2 emotions. The healthy medium is to suppress but reappraise emotions and reassess as something else.

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103
Q

T/F: reappraisal and suppression will reduce emotion expressive behavior, but suppression boosts SNS activity

A

True. Suppression of emotions takes energy

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104
Q

Regions of the brain involved with the cognitive control of emotions brought on by reappraisel

A

Reappraisal increases PFC/ACC modulating structures like amygdala. They are key to the appraisal and modulation processes.

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105
Q

The trait that the amygdala appears to have a more flexible role in processing the relevance of stimuli depending on a person’s current goal and motivation

A

Affective flexibility. For example, in vegas, if your goal is to not lose money and you do, amygdala kicks in. But, PFC can’t completely eradicate negative stimuli so some negativity bias as well

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106
Q

The rate at which we recover from set-backs or losses

A

Resilience. Left PFC highly connected to the amygdala in those who are most resilient

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107
Q

The capacity to sustain positive emotion over time

A

Outlook

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108
Q

Region of brain linked to outlook

A

The nucleus accumbens located in the ventral striatum (in basal ganglia) are activated when people anticipate a reward. Activity is sustained by PFC

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109
Q

Sensitivity to the emotional state of others (empathy)

A

Social intuition.

Associated with high levels of fusiform gyrus and low levels of amygdala. People puzzled by others have opposite.

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110
Q

T/F: The larger and more active our insula is, the more self-aware we are

A

True. Better self-awareness/interoception, the larger the insula

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111
Q

What are the six dimensions of emotional style?

A
  1. Resilience
  2. Outlook
  3. Social intuition
  4. self-awareness
  5. sensitivity to context
  6. Attention
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112
Q

What region of the brain is associated with sensitivity to context (awareness of the social environment and sensitivity to the rules of social engagement)?

A

The hippocampus. High activity in hippocampus with healthy, plentiful network is key

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113
Q

What brain region is key in attention?

A

PFC

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114
Q

What brain region is correlated with interoception (perception of bodily states, vital for homeostasis and well-being)?

A

Insula. is key to experiencing emotions both at the physical and emotional level; the junction for integration of cognitive and emotional info.

The insula is also associated with risk aversion and perception of positive emotoins

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115
Q

T/F: the amygdala is critical for arousal related to negative/fearful stimuli as well as positive stimuli

A

False. The amygdala is critical for arousal related to negative/fearful stimuli, but not positive stimuli

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116
Q

What area of the brain is linked to disgust, happiness, and love?

A

The insula. Mirror neurons activate in viewers appearing to stimulate the experience. This implies a role for emotion in empathy and theory of mind

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117
Q

T/F: love is extremely complex and multifaceted in highly distributed networks

A

True

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118
Q

According to Damasio, why did feelings originate?

A

To maintain homeostasis. A felt experience facilitates ways to maintain homeostasis and avoid future adverse conditions. Relevant to depression, drug addiction, pain.

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119
Q

T/F: feelings and body states are rarely connected

A

False. Feelings have always tended to reference body states and thus provide a window into the processes of life regulation-core of homeostasis.

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120
Q

What do neural maps provide?

A

Maps allow for monitoring to guide correction. They may have preceded felt experiences, but feelings provide additional benefit to regulation. We have both interoceptive and exteroceptive neural maps.

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121
Q

What are the two action programs key to maintaining homeostasis?

A
  1. Drives
  2. Emotions
    They are both an emotion (set of programmed actions triggered by a fear inducing stimulus) and a feelings (conscious experience of fear)
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122
Q

They satisfy basic instinctual needs (hunger, thirst, libido, care and attachment, exploration and play)

A

Drives

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123
Q

Disgust, fear, anger, sadness, joy, compassion, shame

A

Emotions

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124
Q

Where are neural substrates of feeling found?

A

In regions of the brain that exhibit topographically organized somatic maps. Structures in the subcortical grey (amygdala, ventral striatum, basal ganglia) are critical to homeostatic actions. No maps so no direct role in feelings, but . shape state of body.

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125
Q

What are the two distinct phylogenic levels that the neural substrates of feelings are found in?

A
  1. The primitive levels of the brainstem

2. The more recently evolved cerebral complex

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126
Q

The two most prominent interoceptive pathways

A
  1. The lamina I spinothalamocortical pathway which conveys sensory info from most tissues
  2. The vagus nerve which conducts information from the viscera
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127
Q

What structure is key to visual attention and has a key role in processes of mind and self

A

SC. The interoceptive information connects to brainstem structures and reticular formation and this info forms a map that has a crucial role in life regulation and provides neural basis for feeling states

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128
Q

T/F: the Insula is required in order to have feelings

A

False. The insula is not required, but often engaged in processing of feelings and appears to have a key role in modulation of body states.

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129
Q

What does damage to the posterior half of the brainstem lead to?

A

Coma and vegetative state: feelings and sentience abolished

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130
Q

What does damage to the upper half of the brainstem lead to?

A

Locked in syndrome

131
Q

This structure is essential for the introduction of the connection between cognition and feeling.

A

The insula. Without this, simpler behavioral patterns would be dominated by feeling states

132
Q

T/F: Humans are the only species that display behaviors consistent with emotions and feelings

A

False. Feelings are not just in humans. Although, our complex cerebral cortex contribute to more refined feeling states.

133
Q

T/F: The interoceptive pathways are very high levels of myelination

A

False. Interoceptive pathways have very low levels of myelination. The vagus nerve is predominantly devoid of myelin (80%), which is highly unusual for a cranial nerve.

134
Q

What are the 3 theories why the interoceptive pathways are mostly unmyelinated?

A
  1. Myelin is metabolically/energetically expensive
  2. Conduction speed is unnecessary.
  3. Myelin has widespread effects, thus advantageous for some applications but not others
135
Q

What processes would be hindered by myelin?

A

Processes hindered by ionic exchanges would be hindered by myelin. Enhaptic transmission (passage of one neural impulse to another) is allowed by unmelinated axons.

136
Q

Why is it important that the nervous system be unmyelinated?

A

Myelin blocks the binding of ligands in interoceptive fibers. Unmyelinated fibers are more important in pathways involved in interoception and feelings.

137
Q

Where is enhaptic transmission thought to occur?

A

In the mammalian olfactory nerve, vagus nerve, peripheral nerves, spinal cord, and certain cortical areas

138
Q

T/F: There has been a great amount of work done on Depression, substance abuse and pain centered on pathologies of feeling and mechanism for these pathologies

A

False-poorly understood.

139
Q

What are they talking about here? Goal is to focus on “what’s strong” as opposed to “what’s wrong”

A

Positive Psychology!

140
Q

What has proved scientifically effective: to identify and fight negative thoughts?

A

CBT

141
Q

T/F: Positive is just the absence of negative.

A

False! Positive is not just the absence of negative!

142
Q

T/F: Simple relief of suffering does not equal well-being

A

True

143
Q

According to Seligman, what are the key elements to authentic happiness? (3 things)

A

Positive emotion (pleasure), engagement, and meaning.

144
Q

According to Seligman, what are the key elements to well being? (5 things)

A 
Positive emotion
Engagement
Meaning
Accomplishment
Positive Relationships
145
Q

T/F: Positive emotions can reverse negative feelings

A

True

146
Q

What is the dirty little secret about treatment for depression?

A

All treatments for depression have a large placebo success rate!

147
Q

What are some evidence based interventions for depression/positivity?

A 
Gratitude Journaling (write 3 good things, use strength in different ways)
5 acts of kindness in a day
148
Q

What is Pennebaker theory?

A

Essentially writing therapy, make sense of problem/ venting.

149
Q

Theory that positive emotions allow for broadening thought/action repertoires with higher level connections, flexibility and problem solving building personal resources such as mindfulness, resilience, and physical health

A

Broaden and Build Theory (similar to upward spiral)

150
Q

Tipping point for individuals and business

A

3:1 ratio

151
Q

Ratio for flourishing marriages

A

5:1

152
Q

Average ratio?

A

2:1

153
Q

T/F: Downward spirals partially mediated by brain plasticity

A

False. Upward spirals partially mediated by brain plasticity

154
Q

Often summed up as “bad is stronger than good” implies that to overcome the sheer potency of negative emotions, positive emotions would need to outnumber them. They suggest that above the 3-to-1 ratio, people experience the broaden-and-build effects of positive emotions in doses sufficient to spark flourishing dynamics

A

Negativity bias

155
Q

reflects that the modal human experience is a mild positive affect and indeed, normal functioning has been characterized by positivity ratios of about 2-to-1

A

Positivity offset

156
Q

reciprocal causality between vagal tone and psychosocial well-being

A

“upward spiral” Vagal tone VT as a durable personal resource that moderates the degree to which people experience positive emotions in daily life, and that, over time, experienced positivity bolsters and builds a variety of enduring personal resources

157
Q

an index of autonomic flexibility, is linked to social and psychological well-being

A

vagal tone

158
Q

Core principle of the what theory is that repeated instances of positive emotions accrue into upward spirals of sustained well-being?

A

Core principle of the “broaden-and-build theory” is that repeated instances of positive emotions accrue into upward spirals of sustained well-being.

159
Q

What is impaired during psychopathological anxiety states, leading to amplified threat perception?

A

PFC-Amygdala circuitry

160
Q

T/F: Those with schizophrenia do not potentiate the upward spirals and longer-term “build effects” of positive emotions

A

True

161
Q

Mindfulness meditation aligns with what theory?

A

broaden-and-build theory, the state of mindfulness is a form of broadened cognition. Thus, to the extent that the practice of mindfulness leads to broadened awareness, by virtue of the reciprocal links between emotions and cognition

162
Q

a related concentration practice in which people intentionally cultivate warm and caring feelings in both mind and body, and direct them toward themselves and others

A

Loving Kindness Meditation (LKM)

163
Q

What is this known as? …who at first react with symptoms of depression and anxiety but within a month or so are, by physical and psychological measures, back where they were before the trauma

A

Resilience

164
Q

What is this known as? They, too, first experience depression and anxiety, often exhibiting full-blown PTSD, but within a year they are better off than they were before the trauma.

A

Post traumatic growth

165
Q

What are the building blocks of resilience and growth?

A 
PERMA
Positive emotions
Engagement
Relationships
Meaning
Accomplishment
166
Q

It is a 20-minute questionnaire that focuses on strengths rather than weaknesses and is designed to measure four things: emotional, family, social, and spiritual fitness.

A

GAT (global assessment tool)

167
Q

T/F: Larger R PFC more emotionally resilient than L PFC

A

False. Larger L PFC more emotionally resilient than R PFC

168
Q

What brain circuit is crucial to emotional regulation?

A

PFC-Amygdala circuit

169
Q

Where does dopamine release?

A

Striatum.

170
Q

L PFC activation is boosted by what kind of meditation?

A

Loving Kindness Meditation

171
Q

Meditation increased thickness in which 3 parts of the brain?

A

Insula, OFC, Hippocampus

172
Q

What are interventions that raise positivity? There are 6!

A
  • a. by decreasing/decentering negative emotions
  • b. facilitating positive reappraisals of stressful life events
  • c. triggering release of neurochemicals associated with reward and pleasure
  • d. triggering positive emotions through imagery, aspirations, or memories
  • e. biasing attention to positive experiences
  • f. promoting behaviors associated with positive emotions
173
Q

a form of broadened cognition and may trigger positive emotions; supported by several studies

A

Mindfulness meditation

174
Q

T/F: Mindfulness meditation Increases L PFC and may elevate serotonin!

A

True

175
Q

What could be used in conjunction with CBT to augment cognitive restructuring?

A

Mindfulness Meditation

176
Q

Positive imagery reflected in increased activity in what region of brain?

A

Positive imagery reflected in increased activity in the ACC and OFC

177
Q

What reduces anger, guilt, shame in PTSD, decreases depression in the depressed, found boosted positivity, may be useful in treating schizophrenia?

A

Loving Kindness Meditation

178
Q
  • “Involves training one’s emotions toward warm and tender feelings in an open-hearted way” (p. 858) focusing feelings first on oneself and then to a widening circle of others
  • May “reprogram” deeply ingrained negative beliefs
A

Loving Kindness Meditation

179
Q

What’s the answer to building resilience? Hint: Starts with an O…

A

Optimism!

180
Q

What are the keys to PERMA? (4 things)

A

emotional, family, social, spiritual

181
Q

teaches soldiers how to amplify positive emotions and how to recognize when negative ones, such as sadness and anger, are out of proportion to the reality of the threat they face.

A

Emotional Fitness Module

182
Q

designed to help soldiers foster trust, manage conflict, create shared meaning, and recover from betrayal

A

Family Fitness Module

183
Q

teaches empathy to soldiers by explaining mirror neurons in the brain. When you see another person in pain, your brain activity is similar but not identical to what it is when you yourself are in pain. The module then asks soldiers to practice identifying emotions in others, with an emphasis on racial and cultural diversity.

A

Social Fitness Module

184
Q

build a spiritual core with self-awareness, agency, self-regulation and motivation; about belonging to something bigger than oneself

A

Spiritual Fitness Module

185
Q

What are the 4 fitness module according to Seligman?

A

Family, emotional, social, spiritual

186
Q

initiates with wisdom that transformation comes from renewed sense of the value of one’s life with enhanced personal strength

A

Post traumatic growth

187
Q

What are the 5 elements known to contribute to post traumatic growth?

A
  1. Understanding the response to trauma (read “failure”), which includes shattered beliefs about the self, others, and the future. This is a normal response, not a symptom of PTSD or a character defect.
  2. Reducing anxiety through techniques for controlling intrusive thoughts and images.
  3. Engaging in constructive self-disclosure.
  4. Creating a narrative in which the trauma is seen as a fork in the road that enhances the appreciation of paradox—loss and gain, grief and gratitude, vulnerability and strength.
  5. Articulating life principles. These encompass new ways to be altruistic, crafting a new identity,
188
Q

Engaging in constructive self-disclosure is one of the five elements of what…?

A

Post traumatic growth

189
Q

What are the 3 parts of master resilience training?

A
  1. Building mental toughness
  2. building signature strengths
  3. building strong relationships/communication
190
Q

What are steps to building mental toughness?

A

It starts with Albert Ellis’s ABCD model, then focus on thinking traps (such as overgeneralizing or judging someone’s worth based on single action) and finally deal with how to minimize catastrophic thinking by considering worst case, best case, and most likely outcome

191
Q

What is Albert Elli’s ABCD model?????

A

C (emotional consequences) stem not directly from A (adversity) but from B (one’s beliefs about adversity). The sergeants work through a series of A’s (falling out of a three-mile run, for example) and learn to separate B’s—heat-of-the-moment thoughts about the situation (“I’m a failure”)—from C’s, the emotions generated by those thoughts (such as feeling down for the rest of the day and thus performing poorly in the next training exercise). They then learn D—how to quickly and effectively dispel unrealistic beliefs about adversity.

192
Q

What is key to building strengths?

A

Problem solving

193
Q

What is key to building strong relationships?

A

Constructive Responding

194
Q

4 styles of responding?

A
  1. active constructive (authentic, enthusiastic support) ex. that’s great. when do you start your new job?
  2. passive constructive (laconic support) ex. that’s nice
  3. passive destructive (ignoring the event) ex. I got an email from my son… Are you going home soon?
  4. active destructive (pointing out negative aspects of the event) ex) There’s no extra pay when you get a promotion.
195
Q

“That’s nice.” is example of what response?

A

Passive constructive

196
Q

T/F: Those with higher VT show increased cognitive flexibility, working memory, directed attention, and better able to modify arousal

A

True

197
Q

This back and forth reverberation of positive energy sustains itself—and can even grow stronger—until the momentary connection wanes…

A

Positive Resonance

198
Q

When individuals listened to story while in fMRI, what did they find?

A

widespread synchrony demonstrating the sound of a voice offers a powerful sensory and temporal connection because our voices convey so much emotion. This mirror neuron activation that leads to synching is particularly potent during emotionally charged story elements

199
Q

What is mind blindness and what disorder is it commonly found in?

A
  • impaired capacity to reason about another person’s mental state
  • Autism spectrum disorder
200
Q

What is the self-reference effect and what brain structure is activated in this effect?

A
  • we better remember information if processed in relation to ourselves
  • mPFC
201
Q

When is the mPFC activity/consumption highest?

A
  • most active when tasks direct our attention away from external stimuli and we are inwardly focused
  • when we are engaged in self-reflective thought and judgement assessments that depend of social and emotional content
  • deactivated when performing active tasks like learning a new skill
202
Q

OFC damage leads to what?

A

inappropriate behaviors

203
Q

What brain structure is key to simulation theory (using perception of ourselves to perceive others)?

A

-MPFC

204
Q

What is the difference between sympathy and empathy?

A

Sympathy is feeling compassion, sorrow, pity, hardships that another person encounters. Empathy is actually putting yourself in their shoes.

205
Q

What happened in the case of Phineas Gage?

A
  • damage to orbitofrontal cortex

- despite intact speech, language, memory, problem solving, unable to function because of a lack of emotional control

206
Q

PFC, OFC,mPFC ACC, ANS, HPA, endocrine system, temporal lobes, amygdala, STS, TPJ and mirror neurons are anatomical substrates for what?

A

-Social cognition

207
Q

Is the default network activated in autistic individuals?

A

the default network in autistic individuals shows no change in activation between rest an doing an active task

  • it isn’t deactivated when engaged in the task like normal people
  • low metabolic rates in MPFC
208
Q

The default network is there to ensure that we always have some idea of what is going on around us. This is the _____ hypothesis.

A

Sentinel

209
Q

What brain structure is activated when looking into the future?

A

VMPFC

210
Q

TOM develops at what age?

A

4

211
Q

Those with higher empathy scores show greater activation in ____ and ____

A

insula and ACC

212
Q

___is the key to difference between feelings of self vs. other.

A

the ACC

213
Q

What percentage of Autistic individuals are adept in non-social visuospatial domains?

A

-10% have one skill at savant level

214
Q

What is the key to understanding social interaction( learning and applying social knowledge)

A

the OFC

215
Q

the OFC is a part of the VMPFC. T/F

A

T

216
Q

Prosocial acts that are intrinsically rewarding activate what brain structure?

A

the OFC

217
Q

What are the 2 key elements of social networks?

A
  1. human beings

2. connections between them

218
Q

What are the ways social networks are shaped?

A
  1. How many people we connect to
  2. how interconnected are our friends and family
  3. How central are we?
219
Q

Social contagion theory found that ties within __ degrees of separation can have an social influence?

A

3

  • friends
  • friend’s friend
  • Friends’ friends’ friends!
220
Q

What are possible confounders to Social Contagion theory?

A
  1. Homophily
    2 Contemporaneous exposures
  2. subjects can be influenced by other contacts
221
Q

In social contagion theory, is geographical/physical distance a factor in obesity?

A

-no, social distance is the key, not physical distance

222
Q

Does having obese same sex friends or obese opposite sex friends increase your chance for obesity? (according to Social contagion theory)

A

-same sex increases 71%

223
Q

What is associated with diminished memory capacity?

A

High levels of cortisol due to stress (ex: situations when you’re a prisoner…etc)

224
Q

T or F: Emotions are not critical for cognitive control.

A

False, they are critical for cognitive control.

225
Q

What does executive function allow us to do?

A

Allows us to use perceptions, knowledge, and goals to bias the selection of action and thoughts from a multitude of possibilities

226
Q

Which part of the brain is key for executive function?

A

Prefrontal Cortex

227
Q

What happened to the patient W.R.?

A

Astrocytoma, driven young man who then “lost his ego”

228
Q

T or F: Prefrontal cortex constitutes half of the frontal lobes in humans.

A

True

229
Q

What parts of the brain make up the Prefrontal cortex?

A
  • lateral prefrontal cortex (LPFC),
  • frontal polar region (FP),
  • Orbitofrontal cortex (OFC)
  • medial frontal cortex (MFC)
230
Q

T or F: The prefrontal cortex is related to the emergence of complex cognitive capacities.

A

True

231
Q

When does the prefrontal cortex fully develop?

A

~25 years; self-control develops over time

232
Q

What commonly occurs when there is damage to the frontal lobe?

A

Perseveration (fixated on something), apathy (lose drive), and impulsivity as common problems. Poor planning, decision making, lack of consideration of consequences, poor self-organization and social awareness (pay attention and attend to social cues)

233
Q

T or F: Behavior is not stimulus driven and without goal orientation.

A

False, behavior IS stimulus driven and without goal orientation.

234
Q

T or F: PFC is critical for associative memory but not working memory.

A

False, PFC is critical for WORKING MEMORY but not associative memory.

235
Q

What are Goal Oriented actions are based on?

A

They are based on a causal relationship between action and reward.

236
Q

Which parts of the brain is value related to?

A

Value related to the ACC (self-control), LPFC (bias/risk aversion), OFC (learning/ risk aversion)

237
Q

Which part of the brain is the key for value representation?

A

OFC key for value representation

238
Q

T or F: LPFC important for modulatory control and for good measure

A

True

239
Q

What type of memory would a prefrontal lesion impair?

A

Prefrontal lesions impair SPATIAL, not symbolic or associative memory

240
Q

What is the anterior- posterior gradient?

A

It varies in abstraction (higher cognitive function) from most to least – more ancient in the back to recent in the front

241
Q

What is the lateral-medial gradient?

A

It varies from environment to self-related information (laterally – more environmentally focused; medially – self; self-control)

242
Q

What do normative decision theories describe? And, is there a problem with it?

A

How people ought to make decisions to yield the optimal choice;
Yes, these theories fail to predict what people actually do)

243
Q

What do descriptive decision theories describe?

A

Describe what people actually do.

244
Q

Dopamine is a _________ ________, and over time when does it spike?

A

Dopamine is a prediction error (PE) and that over time dopamine spikes with the conditioned stimulus not the reward

245
Q

When would the general advantage of rapidly selecting task relevant responses not be optimal?

A

In atypical situations (hence those with LPFC damage did better)

246
Q

Which part of the brain is key for goal planning?

A

PFC

247
Q

Which parts of the brain get relevant information and filter the irrelevant?

A
  • LPFC: “highlighting its role in working memory and attention” but we really shouldn’t forget its role in emotional regulation and risk aversion as well
  • PFC is a dynamic filtering mechanism, back to attention and bias
248
Q

What is task switching?

A

Task Switching constitutes a disruption in relation to maintaining focus on the goal.

249
Q

T or F: Multitasking is just rapidly switching.

A

True, Can only pay attention to one; just very rapidly switching –> autopilot

250
Q

T or F: PFC modulates sound but not visual processing.

A

False, PFC modulates sound AND visual processing.

251
Q

Freud describing repression, what happens when you’re not thinking about something?

A

Not thinking about something takes PFC activation and required energy

252
Q

What happened to the Cocaine users’ working memory when they were craving?

A

Cocaine users showed lower activation in MFC, when craving working memory is taxed and inhibition becomes even more difficult

253
Q

What is the key to monitoring the Supervisory Attention System (SAS)?

A

Key to this monitoring system: The MFC and ACC

254
Q

What does the Supervisory Attention System (SAS) do? and which system is it most like?

A

Assures behavior is flexible by allowing us to override automatic behavior; more like system 2

255
Q

Divided attention requires a high level of attentional system and key point of activation?

A

ACC

256
Q

What brain areas are engaged when response conflict is high?

A

MFC and ACC engaged when response conflict is high (relates back to impulse control?) Stroop test shows boosted activation of the MFC

257
Q

According to the Colberg article, what is T2 diabetes associated with? And because of this risk of what disorder increases?

A

associated with decreased cognitive function; Increases risk of dementia 2 -3 fold due to both vascular and neurodegernerative processes

258
Q

According to the Colberg article, what does physical activity do?

A

Physical activity decreases insulin resistance, reduces dementia risk, slows cognitive decline and vascular dementia in AD

259
Q

What were Seligman et al.’s main point cognition/free will?

A

They suggest that the old, backward-looking framework is no longer productive and that the new, forward looking framework has much brighter prospects. The authors speculate that prospection casts new light on why subjectivity is part of consciousness, what is “free” and “willing” in “free will,” and on mental disorders and their treatment. A wide range of evidence suggests that prospection (representation of possible futures) is a central organizing feature of perception, cognition, affect, memory, motivation, and action.

260
Q

What were the results of Colberg’s article in regards to MMSE and Slums scores?

A

MMSE and Slums scores associated with physical activity measures: increased scores with light exercise (week) moderate exercise (weekend) and decreased scores with sitting (weekend)

261
Q

In Colberg’s article, what did physical activity increase?

A

Physical activity concluded that exercise training increases “not only fitness and physical function, but also cognitive function and positive behavior in people with dementia and related cognitive impairments”

262
Q

What was the conclusion of Colberg’s article?

A

Diabetes “appears to be a significant risk factor for lower cognitive function scores… and certain types of physical activity participation may prevent some of the potential decline in cognition”

263
Q

Why did we concludes that no one is responsible for their actions and should not be punished for actions that are antisocial? Why did we have this determinism view of no free will?

A

Because what we think and do is result of interaction of cells, matter that is subject to physical laws and interactions in which we no conscious control over our behavior. However this is not true since we know brain is complex system of multiple levels of organization, ranging from level of neurons to mental states to brains interacting with other brains.

264
Q

According to Dong’s article, what does cognitive impairment in visuo-executive function predict?

A

Cognitive impairment in visuo-executive function predicts poor survival after stroke

265
Q

T or F: According to Dong’s article, MMSE better at detecting deficits in ex. Function, attention and delayed recall.

A

False, MoCA better at detecting deficits in ex. Function, attention and delayed recall

266
Q

Conscious mind depends on what 4 brain structures?

A

brainstem, hypothalamus, thalamus, and cerebral cortex

267
Q

T/F: Core consciousness depends on functions of cerebral cortex. It occurs when organism is alive, awake, alert, and solely aware of current moment and place.

A

False. Core consciousness depends on functions of brainstem and thalamus.

268
Q

According to Raichle and Petersen, how do we gain access to consciousness?

A

ability to move from conscious to unconscious (automatic processing) involves scaffolding to storage framework: use conscious processes while developing skills (mastery), once learned the process changes (but of course this is gradual, not sudden)

269
Q

This perspective states mind and brain are 2 distinct phenomena, conscious is nonphysical and beyond scope of physical sciences - ignore biological findings

A

Dualism

270
Q

This perspective asserts that mind and body are physical mediums, understanding physical workings of both and knowing mind will follow - overlooks reality of subjective experience

A

Materialism

271
Q

What is qualia?

A

Also known as sentience - subjective experience, phenomenal awareness, raw emotions, first person viewpoint

272
Q

T/F: Unlearned, conscious processing uses much different network of brain regions than does learned, unconscious processing

A

True

273
Q

These are mental constructs that allow us to engage in goal directed behavior and free us from reflexive, stimulus-driven behavior

A

Beliefs

274
Q

Which hemisphere can’t make inferences, has limited awareness, deals with raw experience, monitors the world.?

A

Right.

275
Q

Which hemisphere mostly reflexive, label experiences, make inferences as to cause, carry out a host of cognitive activities, busy differentiating the world?

A

Left.

276
Q

T/F: People who believe in free will behave better; those that not are more aggressive and less helpful toward others

A

True

277
Q

BLANK relates to the power of groups—like lifestyle redesign—Think about your own life and how people in it influence you and vice versa

A

Social Contagion

278
Q

What is Core consciousness?

A

Awareness. Depends on functions of brainstem and thalamus. It occurs when organism is alive, awake, alert, and solely aware of current moment and place

279
Q

Are we wired to fairness and reciprocity?

A

Yes. More fair if we are around other people. But we become more focused on punishment (striatum activated when we punish because it feels good)

280
Q

what most people have in mind when discussing consciousness?

A

self knowledge

281
Q

how do we gain access to consciousness?

A

Scaffolding to storage: use conscious processes while developing skills (mastery), once learned the process changes (but of course this is gradual, not sudden)

282
Q

This type of processing is brain state in which stimulus driven activity is strong enough to generate significant sensory processing, but in the absence of top down attention to amplify signal, it does not reach threshold of awareness

A

Preconscious processing

283
Q

This type of processing occurs when stimulus salience is strong and signals are amplified by goal driven attention such that they exceed threshold for awareness

A

Conscious processing

284
Q

defined as brain activity evoked by a stimulus that is below threshold for awareness.

A

Subliminal processing

285
Q

What is backward referral hypothesis?

A

Awareness of an event is delayed 500 ms from the onset of stimulation
. Libet observed increasing brain activity related to an action as many as 300 ms before the conscious intention to act

286
Q

T/F: There isn’t one spot that higher spot consciousness resides but in network of cortical structures mixed in with older structures

A

True

287
Q

Can Mental states affect brain processing?

A

Yes. People behave better if they think they have free will. People prime for believing in free will they behave more fairly. Those that weren’t prime for free will behave more violently

288
Q

T/F: Schizophrenia does lead to criminal behavior

A

False. Schizophrenia does not lead to criminal behavior

289
Q

offender must make things whole again is example of what kind of justice?

A

Restorative justice

290
Q

Looking forward, rehabilitation, incapacitation is what kind of justice?

A

Unitarian justice

291
Q

What is at core of free will?

A

Prospection

292
Q

Are we wired to fairness and reciprocity?

A

Yes. More fair if we are around other people.

293
Q

What does Seligman suggest about the past?

A

Seligman et. al (2013) suggest that the past is instead a resource from which we extract information to make decisions about future prospects.

294
Q

Teleology largely has been shunned, replaced by determinism. Why?

A

Old frameworks looked at final causes that fit everyday observation. But Galileo and scientific advance produced findings at odds with observations

295
Q

Why did behaviorism shunned?

A

Excluded mental events, and ultimately failed even to explain lab rats who developed cognitive maps that allowed for goal directed behavior that was unprecedented. Ex) Once they became steady jumpers, no more shock, so once no more shock Pavlovian thinkers assumed that the animals would stop jumping; cognitive theorists assumed they keep jumping, and sure enough, they keep jumping

296
Q

What is key process in seeking information about possibilities that can then be exploited in the future?

A

Exploration

297
Q

4 benefits of learning systems?

A

(1) learning from experience
(2) diminishing influence of initial expectations
(3) expectation will converge with actual frequencies in the environment
(4) allows flexibility when predictability is unstable

298
Q

This provides teleology for human action and is a common source of drama and conflict in narratives, core of motivation.

A

Desire.

299
Q

What are the 4 kinds of mental stimulation?

A
  1. is literally navigational; moving mentally in space/time
  2. is social, prospection relating to other minds
  3. is intellectual; mental activity related to the present
  4. is memorial; recollection of the past
300
Q

What parts of brain are engaged during retrospection and prospection?

A

Default network, hippocampus, frontopolar cortex

301
Q

What is key to understanding our place in the social world?

A

Prospection

302
Q

What is key to social behavior?

A

Mirror neurons and simulation of feelings

303
Q

What allows for better prospection or looking into the future?

A

Consciousness

304
Q

Which facial expressions activate the amygdala?

A

fearful and happy

305
Q

which structure is active in the categorization of people into groups and racial stereotyping?

A

amygdala

306
Q

T/F Controlling emotions improves physical health

A

False. It is psychologically healthier to control emotions, but physically unhealthy to control emotions.

307
Q

T/F Emotional regulation better in those with decreased L frontal lobe vs R frontal lobe activation

A

False. Emotional regulation is better with increased L frontal lobe activation…

308
Q

Loss-sadness-rumination-withdrawal-isolation-depression?

A

Downward spiral

309
Q

positive experiences-broaden cognition-positive coping strategies-social openness-reciprocity

A

Upward spiral

310
Q

Self generating positive emotions in the face of adversity experience the BLANK with quicker cardiovascular recovery

A

Self generating positive emotions in the face of adversity experience the “undo effect” with quicker cardiovascular recovery

311
Q

Anterograde amnesia is loss of memory that occurs ____ the lesion

A

AFTER

312
Q

Retrograde amnesia is loss of memory that occurs ____ the lesion

A

BEFORE

313
Q

T/F: Anterograde amnesia may be temporally limited

A

False, retrograde may be temporally limited

314
Q

Loss of what is related to the degree of amnesia?

A

medial temporal lobe (note* this is where the hippocampus is located)

315
Q

Loss of what results in SEVERE amnesia?

A

bitateral hippocampus since hippocampus is key for memory

316
Q

Priming involves what system..

A

Perceptual representation system (PRS)

317
Q

T/F: Damage to regions of the temporal lobe OUTSIDE the hippocampus has minimal effect on memory

A

False; this can produce dense retrograde amnesia though new memories can be formed

318
Q

Memories are stored as what throughout the neocortex

A

distrubuted representations

319
Q

ECT produces what close to the time of treatment?

A

retrograde amnesia (don’t remember what happens before the treatment)– may also occur w/ head trauma

320
Q

2 assumptions of M-WM Model

A

1) limited capacity system allowing for temporary storage and manipulation needed for a wide range of cognitive activities
2) split into an executive component and at least 2 separate storage systems, one concerning speech and the other is visuospatial

321
Q

“spoken material gains obligatory access to the phonological store- written materials must be subvocalized”

A

articulatory suppression

322
Q

This is key to vocabulary acquisition and linked to reading skills

A

working memory

323
Q

Baddeley’s Final Model of Working Memory

A

http://4.bp.blogspot.com/-9041fZVxQGQ/UUxsqbzqLpI/AAAAAAAAAbw/Kr0HheoWwsY/s1600/02-03.jpg

Neuro Behavior Final (1 decks)

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