Final Flashcards

1
Q

Physiologic process that provides an individual with a defense against a disease?

A

Immunity

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Immunity obtained from a vaccine?

A

Active Acquired Immunity

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

Immunity present at birth?

A

Innate or natural

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

Ex of type 1 hypersensitivity?

A

Allergies such as bees, foods, pollen and anaphylaxis.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Ex of type 2 hypersensitivity?

A

Blood incompatibility or graft rejection.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

Ex of type 3 hypersensitivity?

A

RA or SLE

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

Ex of type 4 hypersensitivity?

A

Poison oak or TB test.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

Mature neutrophils known as?

A

Segs

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Percentage of mature neutrophils circulating called?

A

ANC

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

Antibody mediated immunity called?

A

Humoral immunity

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

Cells involved in antibody mediated immunity?

A

B Cells

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

Cellular mediated immunity involves what cells?

A

T Cells and NK

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

Type of cell that secretes cytokines that enhances activity of other WBCs and increases overall immune function?

A

Helper T Cells

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

T cells that prevent hypersensitivity on exposure to non-self cells or proteins, inhibiting cell action?

A

Suppressor T cells

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

Type of cell that destroys cells that contain a processed antigens human leukocyte antigen?

A

Cytotoxic T Cell

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

Penicillin allergy patients may have sensitivity to?

A

Cephalosporins, ancef, rocephin, cefepime.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

Main 2 symptoms of GERD?

A

Dyspepsia and regurgitation.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

Most accurate method of diagnosing GERD?

A

pH monitoring exam

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

Most important role of the nurse in the care of GERD patient?

A

Teaching

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

Histamine receptor agonist?

A

Pepcid or Zantac

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

Proton pump inhibitor?

A

Prilosec, protonix, nexium.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

Protrusion of stomach through diaphragm?

A

Hiatal hernia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

Intrinsic factor important for absorption of?

A

B12

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

Ulcer that has pain 30-60 minutes after eating?

A

Gastric

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Duodenal ulcer pain occurs?
1.5-3 hours after eating.
26
Telescoping bowel called?
Intussusception
27
Appendicitis pain location?
RLQ
28
2 most common IBD?
Crohns and UC
29
Hep A spread by?
Fecal oral route
30
Hep B spread by?
Unprotected sex, needles, close contact with cuts and sores.
31
Leading cause of cancer death?
Pancreas
32
Wound healing with delayed closure and higher incidence of infection?
Third intention
33
3 phases of wound healing?
Inflammatory, granulation, maturation.
34
ABCDE?
Asymmetry, Border, Color, Diameter, Evolution.
35
How often should one evaluate the skin?
Monthly
36
Parkland formula?
4ml/kg/% of body burned. Give 1st half in first 8 hours.
37
Ulcer that develops after a burn?
Curling
38
Focus of osteoporosis prevention?
Reduce modifiable risk factors.
39
6 Ps that are part of NV assessment?
Poikilothermia, pain, pulses, pallor, parasthesia, and paralysis.
40
Late signs of compartment syndrome?
Pulselessness, paralysis, and weakness.
41
With compartment syndrome neuromuscular damage can occur?
4-6 hours
42
What distinguishes fat embolism from PE?
Cutaneous petichiae
43
Osteoarthritis is not typically bilateral
RA is typically bilateral.
44
Drug of choice for OA?
Tylenol
45
In OA the distal joint modules are called?
Herberdens
46
ESR elevated in OA?
No
47
Inner layer of eye?
Retina
48
Cranial nerves responsible for eye movement?
3,4,6
49
Farsightedness?
Hyperopia
50
Nearsightedness?
Myopia
51
Pupillary constriction called?
Miosis
52
Pupillary dilation called?
Mydriasis
53
When lower lid relaxes and falls away from eye?
Ectropion
54
Main visual disturbance noted with macular degeneration?
Central vision loss
55
3 features of menieres?
Tinnitus, one sided hearing and vertigo.
56
Changes recommended for Menieres?
Distribute food and fluids through the day, no caffeine, avoid foods high in sodium and MSG, limit alcohol.
57
MS symptoms?
Diplopia, nystagmus, blurred vision, increased DTR, positive babinski, tremors with movement, spastic muscles.
58
Normal PSA?
Values less than 4 normal. Values greater than 10 indicate prostate cancer. No ejaculation for 24 hours before test.
59
Hysterosalpingography
Injects radiation contrast medium to view female reproductive organs. Take laxative night before followed by enema or suppository morning of which reduces gas shadows. Can be painful, medicate! Referred shoulder pain.
60
Mammography care?
No creams, powders or deodorant. Cannot be pregnant.
61
Whipple procedure?
Removes part for pancreas, small intestine, and gallbladder. Done mostly for pancreatic cancer.
62
Fibrocystic breast condition
Occurs mostly in premenopausal women. Symptoms usually resolve after menstruation. Caused by hormonal imbalance. Use analgesics, minimize salt, wear supportive bra, apply ice or heat, oral contraceptives, reduce fat and caffeine intake.
63
Gynecomastia
Breast formation in men.
64
Breast cancer
80% invasive. Age, genetics, breast density, Jewish decent, high estrogen levels, all increase risk.
65
Mammogram age?
At 40 years old and should have one annually. High risk women should have MRI as well.
66
When to do BSE?
1 week after menstrual.
67
Mastectomy care?
Keep HOB elevated to at least 30 degrees. Keep affected arm elevated on pillow to promote lymph fluid return. Exercises can be resumed with affected arm same day.
68
Endometriosis
Uterine tissue implants outside of uterus. Painful, rectal pressure feeling sometimes present, GI symptoms.
69
Menopause
Cessation of menses for 12 months. Short term hormone therapy helps symptoms.
70
Ulcerative colitis
10-20 liquid stools a day. Mucous and blood present. Intestinal lining bleeds and ulcers occur.
71
Crohns
Slowly progressive, unpredictable, thickened bowel wall, strictures, deep ulceration, fistula and fatty stools.
72
BPH
Increased urine stasis, chronic retention causing overflow incontinence, UTI risk, bladder stone formation, backed up urine can cause kidney failure. Hematuria. Enlargement felt not painful. Avoid anticholinergics, antihistamines.
73
Prostate meds 5-ari
1st line drug. Reduces prostate size. End in ASTERIDE. Take as long at 6 months to see improvement. Assess liver.
74
Prostate meds alpha-1
Relax prostate muscles. End in OSIN. Orthostatic hypotension. Assess liver.
75
CAM therapies for BPH?
Saw palmetto. Frequent ejaculation.
76
TURP
Will feel urge to void with urinary catheter in place. Normal for blood tinged urine with small clots. Traction applied to catheter and its taped on abdomen. Don't try to void around cath. Irrigate bladder with NS.
77
Upper GI series
Swallowing barium to produce X-ray images of the upper GI. Withhold food and fluids 8 hours before and drink plenty of fluid to eliminate barium after. Chalky white stool.
78
Colonoscopy
Recommended at age 50. Stay on clear liquid diet day before. Nothing red, orange or purple. Drink Gatorade. NPO 4-6 hours before. No anticoagulants before. Bowel cleanser the day before. Watch for vasovagal response when scope in bowel. Fluids permitted after flatus. No driving for 12 hours after.