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BIOLOGY 150 FINAL > FINAL > Flashcards

FINAL Flashcards

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1
Q 
Which of the following is the correct order of biological organizations from low to high?
A. cells, organs, organelles
B. tissue, cell, organ
C. Community, ecosystems, population
D. Macromolecules, tissues, species
A

D. Macromolecules, tissues, species

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2
Q 
The ability to maintain a constant internal environment is called:
A. adaptation
B. homeostasis
C. development
D. metabolism
A

B. homeostasis

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3
Q

Which of the following statements best describes the continuity of life?
A. life forms have developed varying characteristics to adapt to varied environments
B. DNA is passed from generation to generation
C. All living organisms are made of cells
D. Gene characteristics and functions are conserved in different species

A

B. DNA is passed from generation to generation

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4
Q

A goal of a scientist is to formulate a hypothesis
A. That will never be proven false
B. That is essentially a theory explaining an observation
C. That is just a wild guess
D. That will be tested by experimentation

A

D. that will be tested by experimentation

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5
Q 
What is it called when a scientist uses broad theories to make predictions about a specific experiment?
A. experiment
B. inductive reasoning
C. control
D. deductive reasoning
A

D. deductive reasoning

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6
Q 
A scientist randomly divided a group of 100 lab rats into two groups of 50. One group was fed regular rat chow while the other was fed the same amount of rat chow with added DDT. Both groups were housed in the same room with the same environmental conditions. At the end of the experiment, rats were weighed and the mean differences were calculated.
What is the independent variable?
A. DDT
B. Temperature
C. weight
D. Both DDT and weight
What dependent variable was measured?
A. DDT
B. temperature
C. weight
D. both DDT and weight
A

Independent variable:
A. DDT

Dependent variable:
C. Weight

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7
Q 
How many electrons are present in the 2nd energy level of an O atom (atomic number = 8) ? 
A. 6
B. 8
C. 2
D. 4
A

A. 6

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8
Q 
The following elements are abundant in the human body EXCEPT:
A. N
B. C
C. O 
D. Na
A

D. Na

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9
Q

Which of the following is TRUE about carbonic acid?
A. It is a good biological buffer because it maintains a fairly constant pH
B. It helps cool down body temperature fast.
C. It is a good solvent inside our body.
D. It helps maintain constant body temperature.

A

A. It is a good biological buffer because it maintains a fairly constant pH

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10
Q 
Proteins make up \_\_\_\_ % of the cellular content
A. 2
B. 4
C. 10
D. 15
A

D. 15

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11
Q 
In the basic structure of amino acids shown on the right, the R group is 
A. an amino group
B. a hydrogen
C. a carboxyl group
D. variable
A

D. Variable

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12
Q 
Which of the following is FALSE about triglyceride?
A. It is a lipid
B. It contains glycerol
C. It is a component of  cell membrane
D. it contains 3 fatty acids
A

C. It is a component of cell membrane

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13
Q 
Cell membranes are primarily made of
A. steroid
B. carbohydrates
C. amino acids
D. phospholipids
A

D. phospholipids

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14
Q 
Carbohydrates are loosely defined as molecules that contain the following EXCEPT:
A. carbon
B. nitrogen
C. oxygen
D. hydrogen
A

B. nitrogen

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15
Q 
The chief energy currency of all cells is a molecule
A. ATP
B. glucose
C. NAD+
D. enzyme
A

A. ATP

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16
Q 
When an atom or molecule gains one or more electrons, it
A. is oxidized
B. gains energy
C. breaks the octet rule
D. becomes an enzyme
A

B. gains energy

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17
Q 
Enzymes catalyze reaction by
A. increasing activation energy
B. building covalent bonds with the substrate
C. lowering activation energy
D. releasing heat into the solution
A

C. lowering activation energy

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18
Q

Enzymes are very specific in their choices of substrates because each different enzyme has an active site that
A. has a certain unique amino acid to fit each substrate.
B. is shaped to fit a certain substrate molecule
C. is lined with ATP and NAD+
D. passes electrons from one substrate to another

A

B. is shaped to fit a certain substrate molecule

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19
Q 
Enzymes isolated from a hot spring bacterial strain will function best at
A. 4* C (refrigerator temperature)
B. 25 * C (room temperature)
C. 37* C (our body temperature)
D. 70* C (hot spring temperature)
A

D. 70* C (hot spring temperature)

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20
Q 
Which of the following is NOT a property of life?
A. dividing into two (or reproduce)
B. moving
C. regulating internal conditions
D. consisting of cells
A

B. moving

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21
Q 
Which of the smallest unit of life can survive and reproduce on its own?
A. an atom
B. a cell
C. a population
D. an organ
A

B. a cell

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22
Q 
A hypothesis is a(n) :
A. observation
B. fact
C. conclusion
D. tentative explanation
A

D. tentative explanation

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23
Q

The control group in an experiment
A. makes the experiment valid
B. is an additional replicate for statistical purposes
C. reduces the experimental errors
D. allows a standard of comparison for the experimental group

A

D. allows a standard of comparison for the experimental group

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24
Q 
Which of the following represents the smallest (lowest) level of biological organization?
A. organs
B. tissues
C. organisms
D. communities
A

B. tissues

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25
Q

Which of the following are the proper components of the scientific method?
A. experiment, conclusion, application
B. question, observation, experiment, analysis, prediction
C. observation, question, hypothesis, experiment, results, conclusion
D. observation, question, prediction, conclusion

A

C. observation, question, hypothesis, experiment, results, conclusion

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26
Q 
About 12 to 24 hours after the last meal, a person's blood sugar level normally varies from 60 to 90 milligrams per 100 milliliters of blood, although it may rise to 130 mg per 100 ml after meals high in carbohydrates. That the blood sugar level is maintained within a fairly narrow range, despite uneven intake of sugar, is due to the body's ability to carry out 
A. adaptation
B. homeostasis
C. metabolism
D. inheritance
A

B. homeostasis

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27
Q 
For an atom to be neutral, \_\_\_\_ must have the same number
A. electrons and neutrons
B. electrons and protons
C. neutrons and protons
D. electrons, neutrons, and protons
A

B. electrons and protons

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28
Q 
How many electrons are present in the 3rd energy level of an atom whose atomic number is 11?
A. 1
B. 2
C. 3
D. 4
A

A. 1

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29
Q

Ionic bonds result from
A. the sharing of equal numbers of electrons by two atoms
B. the exchange of equal numbers of electrons by two atoms
C. the transferring of electrons from one atom to the other
D. attraction between oppositely charged atoms

A

C. the transferring of electrons from one atom to the other

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30
Q 
A single carbon atom (atomic number = 6) can form a maximum of \_\_ covalent bonds
A. 2
B. 3
C. 4
D. 5
A

C. 4

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31
Q

The atomic structure of water satisfies the octet rule by
A. filling the hydrogen atoms’ outer energy levels with 8 electrons each
B. having electrons shared between two hydrogen atoms
C. having oxygen form covalent bonds with two hydrogen atoms
D. having each hydrogen atom donate an electron to the oxygen atom to generate ionic bonds

A

C. having oxygen form covalent bonds with two hydrogen atoms

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32
Q 
A chemical bond with unequal sharing of electrons is called
A. ionic
B. nonpolar
C. polar
D. hydrophobic
A

C. polar

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33
Q

Acids are chemicals that release H+ ions and therefore
A. increase the pH of a solution
B. decrease the pH of a solution
C. have no effect on the pH of a solution
D. neutralize a solution

A

B. decrease the pH of a solution

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34
Q

H20 molecules are polar because
A. the O and H share electrons unequally
B. they do not form favorable interactions with water
C. they gain electrons from other molecules
D. they repel lipids

A

A. the O and H share electrons unequally

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35
Q 
Which of the following is an important biological buffer?
A. H20
B. carbonic acid (H2C03)
C. phospholipid
D. glucose
A

B. carbonic acid (H2C03)

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36
Q 
Cellular pH is kept near a value of seven, due to the action of 
A. salts
B. buffers
C. acids
D. bases
A

B. buffers

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37
Q

Water is important to living organisms because
A. of its cohesive properties
B. of its temperature stabilizing effect
C. it has the capacity to dissolve many substance
D. all of the above

A

D. all of the above

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38
Q 
A peptide bond forms between
A. two sugars
B. a phosphate and a sugar
C. two nucleotides
D. two amino acids
A

D. two amino acids

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39
Q 
The final shape of polypeptide is referred to as the \_\_\_\_ structure
A. primary
B. secondary
C. tertiary
D. quaternary
A

C. tertiary

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40
Q

Fatty acids and phospholipids are said to be amphipathic which means
A. both use glycerol as the backbone
B. both have a hydrophobic tail(s) and a hydrophilic head
C. both can dissolve in water
D. both have a positive charge on one end and negative charge on the other end of molecules

A

B. both have a hydrophobic tail(s) and a hydrophilic head

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41
Q 
Phospholipids consist of the following components EXCEPT
A. cholesterol
B. fatty acid
C. glycerol
D. phosphate
A

A. cholesterol

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42
Q 
Which of the following is NOT a lipid?
A. chitin
B. cholesterol
C. unsaturated fat
D. terpene
A

A. chitin

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43
Q 
Carbohydrates are loosely defined as molecules that contain carbon, hydrogen, and oxygen in a \_\_\_\_\_\_ ratio
A.  1 : 1 : 1
B. 1 : 2 : 1
C. 1 : 2 : 3
D. 3 : 2 : 1
A

B. 1 : 2 : 1

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44
Q 
Table sugar is also known as sucrose which is made up with \_\_\_\_\_\_ and \_\_\_\_\_\_\_ 
A. glucose and fatty acid
B. glucose and amino acid
C. glucose and galactose
D. glucose and fructose
A

D. glucose and fructose

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45
Q 
Which of the following carbohydrates primarily serves a structural function in plants?
A. starch
B. glycogen
C. glucose
D. cellulose
A

D. cellulose

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46
Q 
What type of reaction joins monomers together to build polymers?
A. Hydrophobic reaction
B. hydrolysis reaction 
C. dehydration reaction
D. hydrogen bonding
A

C. dehydration reaction

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47
Q 
Which of the following is NOT a component of all cells?
A. plasma membrane
B. DNA
C. cytoplasm
D. nucleus
A

D. nucleus

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48
Q 
Prokaryotes may have
A. flagella
B. mitochondria
C. nuclei
D. all of these
A

A. flagella

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49
Q 
This organelle's appearance has been likened to a stack of pancakes
A. Golgi apparatus
B. endoplasmic reticula
C. mitochondrion
D. lysosome
A

A. Golgi apparatus

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50
Q 
These contain enzymes and are the main organelles of digestion inside the cell
A. nuclei
B. ribosomes
C. endoplasmic reticula
D. lysosomes
A

D. lysosomes

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51
Q 
Which of the following is NOT a type of cytoskeleton element?
A. actin filament
B. intermediate filament
C. microtubule
D. endoplasmic reticulum
A

D. endoplasmic reticulum

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52
Q

ATP is the energy currency of the cells, i.e. it releases energy quickly for the cell to use. Which of these is FALSE about ATP?
A. ATP stands for adenosine triphosphate
B. The energy is released from the C-H covalent bonds of the molecule
C. It contains a 5-carbon sugar
D. When an ATP releases energy, it becomes ADP or AMP

A

B. The energy is released from the C-H covalent bonds of the molecule

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53
Q 
An exergonic reaction is one that
A. requires energy
B. releases energy
C. generates oxygen
D. generates carbon dioxide
A

B. releases energy

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54
Q 
The most important cofactor for cellular redox reaction is
A. H+
B. H20
C. NAD+
D. phospholipid
A

C. NAD+

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55
Q

Enzymes catalyze biochemical reactions by
A. lowering activation energy
B. providing energy
C. transporting substrates to reaction center
D. donating electrons to substrates

A

A. lowering activation energy

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56
Q

Which of the following is FALSE about enzymes?
A. They form unique three-dimensional shape
B. Enzymes carry out most catalysis in living organisms
C. Enzymes are usually consumed in the reaction
D. Enzymes stabilize a temporary association between substrates

A

C. Enzymes are usually consumed in the reaction

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57
Q 
Substrate generally binds to the \_\_\_\_\_\_ of an enzyme
A. active site
B. outside
C. allosteric site
D. inside
A

A. active site

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58
Q 
Which component of the following reaction is the enzyme?
Sucrose + water ---> glucose + fructose
A. sucrose
B. sucrase
C. water
D. glucose
A

B. sucrase

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59
Q 
A competitive inhibitor typically binds to the \_\_\_\_ of the enzyme
A. active site
B. outside
C. allosteric site
D. inside
A

B. outside

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60
Q 
Which is the correct format for a scientific name?
A. Homo Sapiens
B. Homo sapiens (italicized)
C. homo sapiens
D. homosapiens (italicized)
A

B. Homo sapiens (italicized)

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61
Q 
When the letter "d" is put under a compound microscope, what will it look like?
A. b
B. d
C. p
D. q
A

C. p

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62
Q

While conducting experiments to test the activity of catalase, you found that bubbles were generated in the tube that has been added with phenylthiourea, which removes copper from the solution. YOur conclusion of this result is that
A. copper is a cofactor of catalase
B. copper denatures catalase
C. copper is not required for catalase function
D. copper is catalyzed into bubbles

A

C. copper is not required for catalase function

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63
Q

Number of light positions in a dissection microscope

A

2

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64
Q

Number of light positions in a compound microscope

A

1

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65
Q

Number of objectives in a dissection microscope

A

1

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66
Q

Number of objectives in a compound microscope

A

4

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67
Q

Magnification of eyepiece of dissection microscope

A

10x

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68
Q

Magnification of eyepiece of compound microscope

A

10x

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69
Q

Minimal total magnification of dissection microscope

A

6.3x

70
Q

Minimal total magnification of compound microscope

A

40x

71
Q

Maximal total magnification of dissection microscope

A

30x

72
Q

Maximal total magnification of compound microscope

A

1000x

73
Q

working space of dissection microscope

A

maximal

74
Q

working space of compound microscope

A

minimum

75
Q

sample preparation of dissection microscope

A

in petri dish

76
Q

sample preparation of compound microscope

A

slide w/ cover slip

77
Q

image orientation of dissection microscope

A

same

78
Q

image orientation of compound microscope

A

flipped and reversed

79
Q 
Which color of light is absorbed most by green plants?
A. red
B. green
C. yellow
D. orange
A

A. red

80
Q 
Where in the plant cell is chlorophyll is found?
A. on the rough ER membrane
B. inside the vacuole
C. on the cell membrane
D. on the thylakoid membrane
A

D. on the thylakoid membrane

81
Q 
Which of the following is needed for photosynthesis?
A. H20
B. CO2
C. both H20 and CO2
D. O2
A

C. both H20 and CO2

82
Q 
The flow of what particle across the thylakoid membrane powers the production of ATP?
A. Na + ions
B. H+ ions
C. oxygen
D. carbon dioxide
A

D. carbon dioxide

83
Q 
In the light-dependent reaction, ATP is produced by:
A. chlorophyll a
B. Rubisco
C. carotenoid
D. ATP synthase
A

D. ATP synthase

84
Q 
Glycolysis of aerobic respiration
A. occurs
B. results in the production of pyruvate
C. generates the most amount of ATPs
D. releases CO2
A

B. results in the production of pyruvate

85
Q 
How many ATPs can be produced when a NADH molecule passes an electron through the electron transport chain?
A. 2
B. 3
C. 30
D. 38
A

B. 3

86
Q 
Which of the following is NOT a product of the Krebs cycle?
A. FADH
B. pyruvate
C. NADH
D. CO2
A

B. pyruvate

87
Q 
The final electron acceptor in aerobic respiration is:
A. inorganic sulfate
B. CO2
C. NADP+
D. O2
A

D. O2

88
Q 
Anaerobic respiration uses the following electron acceptors EXCEPT:
A. oxygen
B. CO2
C. sulfate
D. pyruvate
A

A. oxygen

89
Q 
In the light reaction of photosynthesis, light energy is absorbed and used to synthesize:
A. ATP
B. glucose
C. carbon dioxide
D. water
A

A. ATP

90
Q

Photosynthesis can be summarized overall by the following equation
A. pyruvate –> glucose
B. glucose + oxygen –> carbon dioxide + water
C. carbon dioxide + water –> glucose + oxygen
D. carbon dioxide + ATP –> glucose + ADP + P

A

C. carbon dioxide + water –> glucose + oxygen

91
Q

Which of the following statements accurately describes the relationship between photosynthesis and cellular respiration?
A. Photosynthesis occurs only in green plants; cellular respiration occurs only in animals
B. The primary function of photosynthesis is to use light energy to synthesize ATP; the primary function of cellular respiration is to break down ATP to release energy
C. Photosynthesis involves the breakdown of glucose; respiration involves the breakdown of carbon dioxide
D. Photosynthesis uses light energy to synthesize organic molecules; cellular respiration breaks down these organic molecules to synthesize ATP

A

D. Photosynthesis uses light energy to synthesize organic molecules; cellular respiration breaks down these organic molecules to synthesize ATP

92
Q

Glycolysis
A. occurs in cytoplasm and results in the production of pyruvate
B. occurs in the mitochondrial matrix and produces CO2
C. occurs in the intermembrane space of mitochondria and produces O2
D. is the first step of aerobic respiration and generates the most energy

A

A. occurs in cytoplasm and results in the production of pyruvate

93
Q

Which of the following is FALSE about the Calvin cycle?
A. it takes place on the thylakoid membrane
B. the key enzyme of Calvin cycle is called rubisco
C. It fixes CO2 into organic molecule
D. It does not require sunlight

A

A. it takes place on the thylakoid membrane

94
Q

CAM photosynthesis provides a temporal solution to those plants living in hot and dry environment. Which of the following is FALSE about CAM photosynthesis?
A. The plants keep the stomata close during the day
B. The plants fix CO2 during the night
C. The plants carry out photosynthesis during the day
D. The photosynthesis skips Calvin cycle

A

D. The photosynthesis skips Calvin cycle

95
Q 
The final electron acceptor in the electron transport system of aerobic respiration is 
A. glucose
B. NAD+
C. oxygen
D. carbon dioxide
A

C. oxygen

96
Q 
The oxygen utilized in cellular respiration finally shows up as
A. CO2
B. ATP
C. NADH
D. H2O
A

D. H2O

97
Q 
Theoretically, how many ATPs can be produced in a eukaryotic cell when a molecule of glucose is catabolized?
A. 38
B. 20
C. 10
D. 3
A

A. 38

98
Q 
When oxygen is limiting, during heavy exercise, cells revert to:
A. alcohol
B. yeast
C. aerobic
D. lactic acid
A

D. lactic acid

99
Q 
Yeast cells under anaerobic conditions
A. die
B. produce ethyl alcohol (ethanol)
C. produce oxygen
D. produce vinegar
A

B. produce ethyl alcohol (ethanol)

100
Q

One difference between DNA and RNA is that DNA
A. is found in all living cells but RNA is not
B. is double stranded but RNA is not
C. contains 5 carbon sugars but RNA has 6 carbon sugars
D. is composed of nucleotides but RNA composed of amino acids

A

B. is double stranded but RNA is not

101
Q 
In DNA, complementary base pairing occurs between
A. cytosine (C) and uracil (U)
B. adenine (A) and guanine (G)
C. adenine (A) and thymine (T)
D. adenine (A) and uracil (U)
A

C. adenine (A) and thymine (T)

102
Q 
Mendel referred to the trait that was expressed in the hybrid, F1 generation as 
A. recessive
B. dominant
C. codominant
D. independent
A

B. dominant

103
Q

Two inbred plants with purple and white colors of flower breed to generate offspring (F1) with all purple flowers. Which of the following is FALSE about this cross?
A. the white color is called a recessive trait
B. All the F1 plants are true breeding flowers
C. F1 self cross will result in F2 plants of which 75% have purple and 25% have white
D. The purple color is a dominant trait

A

B. All the F1 plants are true breeding flowers

104
Q 
A cross between two heterozygotes, i.e. monohybrid cross, typically results in a \_\_\_\_\_\_ phenotypic ratio
A. 1 : 1 : 1
B. 1 : 2 : 1
C. 1 : 1
D. 3 : 1
A

D. 3 : 1

105
Q

These questions are based on Mendel’s 5-element model stated below.
Element 1: parents transmit discrete factors to the next generation
Element 2: Each individual receives one copy of a gene from each parent
Element 3: Not all copies of a gene are identical
Element 4: Alleles remain discrete
Element 5: Presence of allele doesn’t guarantee expression

1. In element 1, the discrete factors are known as
A. genes
B. proteins
C. gametes
D. growth hormones
2. In element 3, the copies of a gene are now known as:
A. genes
B. alleles
C. genotypes
D. phenotypes
3. Element 5 infers that a recessive allele (a) doesn't always express. It will be expressed when
A. it is homozygous (aa)
B. it is heterozygous (Aa)
C. it is mutated
D. it is replicated
A
  1. A
  2. B
  3. A
106
Q 
Which of the following is NOT involved in transcription?
A. DNA
B. RNA polymerase
C. mRNA
D. ATP synthase
A

D.

107
Q 
The \_\_\_\_ subunit of bacterial RNA polymerase binds the promoter
A. α
B. β
C. β'
D. σ
A

D.

108
Q 
rRNAs are transcribed by \_\_\_\_\_\_\_ in eukaryotic cells
A. RNA polymerase I
B. RNA polymerase II
C. RNA polymerase III
D. DNA polymerase
A

A.

109
Q 
The universal genetic code for the 1st amino acid (i.e. start codon) of peptides is 
A. UAG
B. AUG
C. UAA
D. AAA
A

B.

110
Q 
Translation stops at \_\_\_\_\_\_ codon
A. AUG
B. AAA
C. UAG
D. UUU
A

C.

111
Q 
Which of the following molecule carries the genetic codes for translation?
A. mRNA
B. tRNA
C. rRNA
D. ribosome
A

A.

112
Q 
To prepare for translation, specific amino acid is attached to tRNA by \_\_\_\_\_\_\_ enzyme.
A. DNA polymerase
B. aminoacyl-tRNA synthetase
C. peptidyl transferase
D. ATP synthase
A

B.

113
Q 
The enzyme that builds peptide bond between amino acids during translation is called
A. RNA polymerase
B. aminoacyl-tRNA synthetase
C. peptidyl transferase
D. ATP synthase
A

C.

114
Q 
Which of the following molecule binds to the stop codon to terminate translation?
A. rRNA
B. ribosome
C. tRNA
D. release factor
A

D.

115
Q

Genetic code redundancy means:
A. one amino acid uses several codes
B. one gene makes several different proteins
C. one genetic code is used for several amino acids
D. one mRNA is used to translate several different proteins.

A

A.

116
Q

To breed zebrafish (& other aquatic species), adult fish are usually incubated in a small breeding tank overnight. The purpose of this incubation is to:
A. let fish have enough rest
B. stimulate the sexual maturation by the hormone from the opposite sex
C. let fish have enough time to develop romantic relationship
D. starve the fish so they can concentrate on mating

A

B.

117
Q 
In the zebrafish embryo lab, you observed the cell number in embryo increased from 32 to 128 within an hour. How many times had each cell divided during the hour (assuming every cell divides)?
A. once
B. 2 times
C. 3 times
D. 4 times
A

B.

118
Q

Staphylococcus aureus is a type of bacterium that is frequently found in the human respiratory tract and on the skin. The name of this bacterium indicates that
A. the cells are rounded
B. the cells usually aggregate in chains
C. the cells cannot live in the presence of oxygen
D. the cells will form a purple colony

A

A.

119
Q 
In the bacteria lab, the original water sample was diluted to lower the bacteria concentration (shown on exam 2 question 34) In the dilution 3 tube, the bacteria concentration of the original water sample will be dilluted
A. 10 times
B. 100 times
C. 1000 times
D. 10,000 times
A

C.

120
Q 
After mixing 1ml of each diluted water sample with nutrition agar, the bacteria grow in and on the plates. Using the standard plate count technique, you found 1000 colonies grow from the dilution 1 sample. What would be the bacterial concentration (i.e. colony forming unit/ml) of the original water sample?
A. 1000 CFU/ml
B. 10,000 CFU/ml
C. 100,000 CFU/ml
D. 1,000,000 CFU/ml
A

B.

121
Q

In the spectrophotometer lab, an absorbance profile is
A. a dot to dot graph of the absorbance by α-fluorohydrin of different concentrations
B. a best fit line of the absorbance by α-fluorohydrin of different concentrations
C. used to determine the toxicity of an unknown sample
D. a bell curve based on the absorbance by α-fluorohydrin at different wavelength

A

D.

122
Q 
In the spectrophotometer lab, a standard curve of α-fluorohydrin was shown (exam 2 question 37) What is the concentration of α-fluorohydrin in an unknown sample that has an absorbance of 0.5?
A. ~2 μg/ ml
B. ~4 μg/ml
C. ~ 6 μg/ml
D. ~8μg/ml
A

C.

123
Q 
In the genetics lab, when you and your partner toss two coins at the same time, what is the probability that one of two coins will land head up while the other lands tail up?
A. 3/8
B. 1/8
C. 1/4
D. 1/2
A

D.

124
Q 
In the genetics lab, a child with the XcbY genotype is likely to be a 
A. male with colorblindness
B. female with normal vision
C. male with albino
D. male with Huntington's disease
A

A.

125
Q 
Which of the following is NOT required for a PCR reaction?
A. helicase
B. Taq DNA polymerase
C. primers
D. dNTPs (mix of A, T, G, C)
A

A.

126
Q

Restriction enzymes typically recognize palindromic sequences. Which of the following could be a restriction enzyme site?
A. 5’GAATTTC3’
3’CTTAAAG5’

B. 5’ GAAATTTC3’
3’CTTTAAAG5’

C. 5’GAATTG3’
CTTAAC5’

D. 5’GAAGGTTC3’
3’CTTCCAAG5’

A

B.

127
Q 
A plasmid vector should have the following components EXCEPT:
A. DNA polymerase gene
B. antibiotic resistant gene
C. replication origin
D. multiple cloning sites (MCS)
A

A.

128
Q 
Which of the following is NOT a necessary step of genetic engineering?
A. Cleave DNAs with restriction enzyme
B. Ligation
C. Screening
D. PCR (polymerase chain reaction)
A

D.

129
Q 
\_\_\_\_\_ joins DNA fragments to make recombinant DNA
A. DNA ligase
B. restriction enzyme
C. DNA polymerase
D. β - galactosidase
A

A.

130
Q 
cDNAs are made from \_\_\_\_\_\_ by \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_
A. DNA; DNA polymerase
B. DNA; RNA polymerase
C. mRNA; reverse transcriptase
D. mRNA; restriction enzyme
A

C.

131
Q 
Human genome contains \_\_\_\_ genes
A. 30,000
B. 100,000
C. 1 million
D. 3 billion
A

A.

132
Q 
What % of the human genome actually encode for proteins?
A. 1 %
B. 10%
C. 20%
D. 45%
A

A.

133
Q 
Territorial behavior typically leads to \_\_\_\_\_\_ distribution:
A. Random
B. Uniform
C. Clumped
D. Decreased
A

B.

134
Q 
Which of the following is NOT required for DNA replication?
A. DNA template
B. ribosome
C. free nucleotides
D. DNA polymerase
A

B.

135
Q 
DNA replication starts at \_\_\_\_\_\_\_ of the template DNA.
A. 5' end 
B. 3' end
C. replication origins
D. middle
A

C.

136
Q 
DNA is synthesized in \_\_\_\_ direction
A. 3' to 5'
B. 5' to 3'
C. both 3' to 5' and 5' to 3'
D. random
A

B.

137
Q 
The DNA change shown on (exam 3 question 4) is called a(n)
A. point mutation
B. insertion mutation
C. deletion mutation
D. neutral mutation
A

A.

138
Q

Which of the following is FALSE about Sickle Cell Anemia?
A. It is due to a mutation in the β -hemoglobin gene
B. It is due to change in only one amino acid
C. The mutation causes decrease of oxygen carry capacity of red blood cells
D. The patients have much fewer red blood cells

A

D.

139
Q 
Gain or loss of a chromosome is called
A. trisomy
B. point mutation
C. aneuploidy
D. deletion mutation
A

C.

140
Q 
Which of the following diseases is NOT caused by a virus?
A. AIDS
B. flu
C. Ebola hemorrhagic fever
D. tuberculosis
A

D.

141
Q

Viruses are NOT considered as living organisms because
A. they cannot multiply outside a living cell
B. some of them do not contain DNA
C. they contain protein coat but not cell membrane
D. they usually kill the host cells

A

A.

142
Q 
Animal viruses, i.e. the viruses that infect animals, contain the following EXCEPT
A. genetic material (DNA or RNA)
B. capsid
C. lipid envelope
D. cell wall
A

D.

143
Q

Which of the following is FALSE about virus propagation?
A. Viruses lack their own ribosomes and enzymes for protein and nucleic acid synthesis
B. Virus hijacks the cell’s transcription and translation machineries to express their genes
C. Outside the host cell, viruses are metabolically invert virions
D. Viruses can sometimes reproduce outside cells

A

D.

144
Q 
In general, viruses are about \_\_\_\_\_ the size of bacteria
A. 2 times
B. 10 times
C. 10 ^-1 (10 to the negative 1)
D. 10 ^-2 (10 to the negative 2)
A

C.

145
Q 
The viruses that infect bacterial cells are called \_\_\_\_\_\_
A. HIV
B. bacteriophages
C. lysogenic viruses
D. influenza viruses
A

B.

146
Q

During the lytic cycle, bacteriophages
A. infect the host cells but cause no harm
B. infect and kill the host cells soon
C. infect the host cells and integrate the viral DNA into host genome
D. only infect plants

A

B.

147
Q

The hemagglutinin protein on the influenza viral envelope
A. helps viral enter the host cells
B. integrates viral DNA into the host genome
C. degrades the proteins in the host cells
D. replicates viral DNA

A

A.

148
Q

Which of the following is FALSE about influenza virus?
A. It is one of the most lethal viruses in human history
B. Antigenic shifts have caused pandemics, e.g. Spanish flue of 1918 killed 20-50 million
C. The H and N molecules accumulate mutations
D. It has been found to cause cancer

A

D.

149
Q 
\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_ enzyme (or protein) turns HIVviral RNA into DNA form
A. CD4
B. Reverse transcriptase
C. Integrase
D. protease
A

B.

150
Q 
Restriction enzymes
A. open the two strands of DNA
B. cut DNA at specific sites
C. join DNA fragments together
D. are involved in DNA replication
A

B.

151
Q

During genetic engineering, in order to identify the bacterial clone that contains the proper recombinant plasmid, two screening procedures are usually performed. Which of the following is TRUE about the screening procedures?

A. the bacteria are first screened by gel electrophoresis
B. Ampicillin is usually used in the 1st screening
C. A blue bacterial clone on the selection medium with X-Gal might contain the gene of interest
D. All the bacterial clones that grow on selection medium contain the gene of interest

A

B.

152
Q

Gel electrophoresis is commonly utilized to examine the DNA fragments generated by PCR. Which of the following statements is FALSE about gel electrophoresis?
A. The gel is made of agarose
B. Small DNA fragments migrate faster than the larger fragments
C. DNA always migrate to the negative electrode
D. It separates DNAs by their sizes

A

C.

153
Q 
A plasmid vector should have the following elements EXCEPT
A. Ampicillin resistant gene
B. Multiple restriction enzyme sites
C. DNA polymerase gene
D. Replication origin
A

C.

154
Q 
\_\_\_\_\_\_\_ enzyme can join DNA fragments together to make recombinant plasmid
A. DNA ligase 
B. Helicase
C. DNA polymerase
D. Reverse transcriptase
A

A.

155
Q

Which of the following is the correct order of the molecular cloning procedures?
A. Restriction enzyme cleavage –> transformation –> ligation –> screening
B. Ligation –> screening –> transformation –> restriction enzyme cleavage
C. Restriction enzyme cleavage –> ligation –> transformation –> screening
D. Restriction enzyme cleavage –> screening –> ligation –> transformation

A

C.

156
Q

Which of the following is FALSE about the Alu element?
A. They are also called the jumping gene
B. There are more than million copies of Alu in human genome
C. They are beneficial to human
D. In most cases, Alu doesn’t cause disease

A

C.

157
Q

Transgenic animals are created by
A. inducing genetic mutation in the organisms
B. fertilizing sperm and egg from different species
C. transplanting human cells into the organisms
D. introducing a piece of DNA into the organisms

A

D.

158
Q

Which of the following is FALSE about the genomic library?
A. It is a collection of bacteria that contain DNA fragments of an entire genome
B. It is made by the standard molecular cloning procedures
C. It is made in an effort to preserve endangered species
D. One use of the library is to decipher the DNA sequence of the genome

A

C.

159
Q

Which of the following is TRUE about human genome?
A. It contains 3 million genes
B. Transposable elements make up 45% of human genome
C. DNA polymerase
D. The genome size is about 25 million base pairs

A

B.

160
Q 
Approximately \_\_\_\_\_ % of human genome actually encodes for protein 
A. 1
B. 10
C. 20
D. 50
A

A.

161
Q

Which of the following is FALSE about 2nd generation vaccines?
A. The vaccines were inactivated bacteria or viruses
B. The vaccines were prepared by cloning a gene into a viral DNA
C. The vaccines were also called piggyback vaccine
D. The vaccines worked pretty well.

A

C.

162
Q

Which of the following is NOT a current goal in agriculture industry?
A. To generate herbicide resistant plant
B. To identify new and rare species of crop
C. To generate transgenic plant that requires less fertilizer
D. To generate insect resistant crop

A

B.

163
Q

Which of the following is TRUE about the Bt crops?
A. They are transgenic crops that have higher iron
B. They resistant to herbicide
C. They are only found in Britain
D. They are resistant to pests

A

D.

164
Q 
Golden rice is a genetic modified crop that actually produces golden grains. The golden color is due to
A. β-carotene
B. food coloring
C. large amount of iron ions
D. vitamin D
A

A.

165
Q

In aquaculture industry, the genetically engineered salmon offer the following advantages EXCEPT
A. They grow faster because they make more growth factor than those in the wild
B. They reduce overfishing of the wild salmon
C. They have much better nutrition value
D. They allow fallowing of the pond

A

C.

166
Q

Which of the following is FALSE about biofuel?
A. it is the same as fossil fuel
B. it may come from vegetable oil
C. it can produced using the sugar and starch in plants
D. it can come from cellulose

A

A.

167
Q 
In the PCR lab, the DNA that you isolated from cheek cells provides the \_\_\_\_\_\_\_ for the PCR reaction.
A. primer
B. DNA polymerase
C. template
D. free nucleotides
A

C.

168
Q

In the PCR lab, you tried to determine whether you have Alu insertion on your chromosome 16. The gel showed two DNA bands at 400 and 700 bp positions (shown in a graph on exam 3 question 40) This result indicates that
A. you have Alu insertion on one copy of your chromosome 16.
B. you do not have the insertion
C. you have Alu insertion on both copies of chromosome 16
D. you have three copies of chromosome 16.

A

A.

169
Q

RFLP (restriction fragment length polymorphism) is commonly used as “genetic fingerprint”, which is based on
A. the type of gel used in electrophoresis
B. differences of location
C. differences between DNAs from different tissues of the same person
D. differences of total base pairs of DNA from different individuals

A

B.

170
Q

What quality of wolves makes them difficult to study?
A. they are shy and secretive
B. they are too aggressive
C. thy are only found in remote geographic areas.
D. they hunt in a group

A

A.

171
Q

In a wolf pack, the relation between the alpha female and beta female is like a tightrope.
That means
A. they run the pack with equal power
B. they fight for the power all the time
C. the alpha female may suddenly kick the beta female out of the pack
D. they have the same strong bond to the alpha male

A

C.

BIOLOGY 150 FINAL (1 decks)

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