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Routing and Switching Essentials > Final 5.03 > Flashcards

Final 5.03 Flashcards

1
Q

Which command, when issued in the interface configuration mode of a router, enables the interface to acquire an IPv4 address automatically from an ISP, when that link to the ISP is enabled?

A

ip address dhcp

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2
Q

Which kind of message is sent by a DHCP client when its IP address lease has expired?

A

a DHCPREQUEST unicast message

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3
Q

A college marketing department has a networked storage device that uses the IP address 10.18.7.5, TCP port 443 for encryption, and UDP port 4365 for video streaming. The college already uses PAT on the router that connects to the Internet. The router interface has the public IP address of 209.165.200.225/30. The IP NAT pool currently uses the IP addresses ranging from 209.165.200.228-236. Which configuration would the network administrator add to allow this device to be accessed by the marketing personnel from home?

A

ip nat inside source static tcp 10.18.7.5 443 209.165.200.225 443 ip nat inside source static udp 10.18.7.5 4365 209.165.200.225 4365

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4
Q

What is a disadvantage of NAT?

A

There is no end-to-end addressing.

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5
Q

Which type of traffic would most likely have problems when passing through a NAT device?

A

IPsec

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6
Q

What benefit does NAT64 provide?

A

It allows sites to connect IPv6 hosts to an IPv4 network by translating the IPv6 addresses to IPv4 addresses.

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7
Q

Which two packet filters could a network administrator use on an IPv4 extended ACL? (Choose two.)

A
  • ICMP message type
  • destination UDP port number
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8
Q

A network administrator is explaining to a junior colleague the use of the lt and gt keywords when filtering packets using an extended ACL. Where would the lt or gt keywords be used?

A

in an IPv4 extended ACL that allows packets from a range of TCP ports destined for a specific network device

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9
Q

Which three values or sets of values are included when creating an extended access control list entry? (Choose three.)

A
  • access list number between 100 and 199
  • destination address and wildcard mask
  • source address and wildcard mask
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10
Q

A network administrator is designing an ACL. The networks 192.168.1.0/25, 192.168.0.0/25, 192.168.0.128/25, 192.168.1.128/26, and 192.168.1.192/26 are affected by the ACL. Which wildcard mask, if any, is the most efficient to use when specifying all of these networks in a single ACL permit entry?

A

0.0.1.255

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11
Q

The computers used by the network administrators for a school are on the 10.7.0.0/27 network. Which two commands are needed at a minimum to apply an ACL that will ensure that only devices that are used by the network administrators will be allowed Telnet access to the routers? (Choose two.)

A

access-class 5 in access-list 5 permit 10.7.0.0 0.0.0.31

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12
Q

A network administrator is adding ACLs to a new IPv6 multirouter environment. Which IPv6 ACE is automatically added implicitly at the end of an ACL so that two adjacent routers can discover each other?

A

permit icmp any any nd-na

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13
Q

Which statement describes a route that has been learned dynamically?

A

It is automatically updated and maintained by routing protocols.

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14
Q

Which statement is correct about IPv6 routing?

A

IPv6 uses the link-local address of neighbors as the next-hop address for dynamic routes.

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15
Q

Which two factors are important when deciding which interior gateway routing protocol to use? (Choose two.)

A
  • scalability
  • speed of convergence
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16
Q

A router has used the OSPF protocol to learn a route to the 172.16.32.0/19 network. Which command will implement a backup floating static route to this network?

A

ip route 172.16.32.0 255.255.224.0 S0/0/0 200

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17
Q

Which summary IPv6 static route statement can be configured to summarize only the routes to networks 2001:db8:cafe::/58 through 2001:db8:cafe:c0::/58?

A

ipv6 route 2001:db8:cafe::/56 S0/0/0

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18
Q

Which statement is true about the difference between OSPFv2 and OSPFv3?

A

OSPFv3 routers do not need to have matching subnets to form neighbor adjacencies.

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19
Q

What happens immediately after two OSPF routers have exchanged hello packets and have formed a neighbor adjacency?

A

They exchange abbreviated lists of their LSDBs.

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20
Q

What does the cost of an OSPF link indicate?

A

A lower cost indicates a better path to the destination than a higher cost does

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21
Q

Which three pieces of information does a link-state routing protocol use initially as link-state information for locally connected links? (Choose three.)

A
  • the link router interface IP address and subnet mask
  • the type of network link
  • the cost of that link
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22
Q

Which three requirements are necessary for two OSPFv2 routers to form an adjacency? (Choose three.)

A
  • The two routers must include the inter-router link network in an OSPFv2 network command
  • The OSPF hello or dead timers on each router must match.
  • The link interface subnet masks must match
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23
Q

A router needs to be configured to route within OSPF area 0. Which two commands are required to accomplish this? (Choose two

A

RouterA(config)# router ospf 1 RouterA(config-router)# network 192.168.2.0 0.0.0.255 area 0

24
Q

What are two features of a link-state routing protocol? (Choose two.)

A
  • Routers send triggered updates in response to a change.
  • Routers create a topology of the network by using information from other routers.
25
Q

Why would an administrator use a network security auditing tool to flood the switch MAC address table with fictitious MAC addresses?

A

to determine which ports are not correctly configured to prevent MAC address flooding

26
Q

Two employees in the Sales department work different shifts with their laptop computers and share the same Ethernet port in the office. Which set of commands would allow only these two laptops to use the Ethernet port and create violation log entry without shutting down the port if a violation occurs?

A

switchport mode access switchport port-security switchport port-security maximum 2 switchport port-security mac-address sticky switchport port-security violation restrict

27
Q

Which problem is evident if the show ip interface command shows that the interface is down and the line protocol is down?

A

A cable has not been attached to the port.

28
Q

What caused the following error message to appear?01:11:12: %PM-4-ERR_DISABLE: psecure-violation error detected on Fa0/8, putting Fa0/8 in err-disable state 01:11:12: %PORT_SECURITY-2-PSECURE_VIOLATION: Security violation occurred, caused by MAC address 0011.a0d4.12a0 on port FastEthernet0/8. 01:11:13: %LINEPROTO-5-UPDOWN: Line protocol on Interface FastEthernet0/8, changed state to down 01:11:14: %LINK-3-UPDOWN: Interface FastEthernet0/8, changed state to down

A

Port security was enabled on the switch port, and an unauthorized connection was made on switch port Fa0/8.

29
Q

While analyzing log files, a network administrator notices reoccurring native VLAN mismatches. What is the effect of these reoccurring errors?

A

The control and management traffic on the error-occurring trunk port is being misdirected or dropped.

30
Q

Which three pairs of trunking modes will establish a functional trunk link between two Cisco switches? (Choose three.)

A
  • dynamic desirable – dynamic desirable
  • dynamic desirable – dynamic auto
  • dynamic desirable – trunk
31
Q

What are two ways of turning off DTP on a trunk link between switches? (Choose two.)

A
  • Configure attached switch ports with the nonegotiate command option
  • Place the two attached switch ports in access mode.
32
Q

A network administrator is using the router-on-a-stick method to configure inter-VLAN routing. Switch port Gi1/1 is used to connect to the router. Which command should be entered to prepare this port for the task?

A

Switch(config)# interface gigabitethernet 1/1 Switch(config-if)# switchport mode trunk

33
Q

Which two characteristics describe the native VLAN? (Choose two.)

A
  • The native VLAN traffic will be untagged across the trunk link.
  • The native VLAN provides a common identifier to both ends of a trunk.
34
Q

On a switch that is configured with multiple VLANs, which command will remove only VLAN 100 from the switch?

A

Switch(config)# no vlan 100

35
Q

What is the purpose of setting the native VLAN separate from data VLANs?

A

A separate VLAN should be used to carry uncommon untagged frames to avoid bandwidth contention on data VLANs.

36
Q

A network contains multiple VLANs spanning multiple switches. What happens when a device in VLAN 20 sends a broadcast Ethernet frame?

A

Only devices in VLAN 20 see the frame.

37
Q

What is the purpose of an access list that is created as part of configuring IP address translation?

A

The access list defines the private IP addresses that are to be translated.

38
Q

Fill in the blank. In IPv6, all routes are level ___________ ultimate routes.

A

1

39
Q

Fill in the blank.Static routes are configured by the use of the _________________ global configuration command.

A

ip route

40
Q

The OSPF Type 1 packet is the _________________ packet.

A

hello

41
Q

The default administrative distance for a static route is __________.

A

1

42
Q

Which information does a switch use to populate the MAC address table?

A

the source MAC address and the incoming port

43
Q

What is a function of the distribution layer?

A

interconnection of large-scale networks in wiring closets

44
Q

Which switching method drops frames that fail the FCS check?

A

store-and-forward switching

45
Q

Refer to the exhibit. A network administrator is configuring a router as a DHCPv6 server. The administrator issues a show ipv6 dhcp pool command to verify the configuration. Which statement explains the reason that the number of active clients is 0?

A

The state is not maintained by the DHCPv6 server under stateless DHCPv6 operation.

46
Q

Refer to the exhibit. R1 has been configured as shown. However, PC1 is not able to receive an IPv4 address. What is the problem?

A

The ip helper-address command was applied on the wrong interface.

47
Q

Refer to the exhibit. The Gigabit interfaces on both routers have been configured with subinterface numbers that match the VLAN numbers connected to them. PCs on VLAN 10 should be able to print to the P1 printer on VLAN 12. PCs on VLAN 20 should print to the printers on VLAN 22. What interface and in what direction should you place a standard ACL that allows printing to P1 from data VLAN 10, but stops the PCs on VLAN 20 from using the P1 printer? (Choose two.)

A

R1 Gi0/1.12

outbound

48
Q

Refer to the exhibit. How did the router obtain the last route that is shown?

A

Another router in the same organization provided the default route by using a dynamic routing protocol.

49
Q

Refer to the exhibit. Which type of route is 172.16.0.0/16?

A

level 1 parent route

50
Q

Refer to the exhibit. Which type of IPv6 static route is configured in the exhibit?

A

recursive static route

51
Q

Refer to the exhibit. If RIPng is enabled, how many hops away does R1 consider the 2001:0DB8:ACAD:1::/64 network to be?

A

3

52
Q

Refer to the exhibit. The partial configuration that is shown was used to configure router on a stick for VLANS 10, 30, and 50. However, testing shows that there are some connectivity problems between the VLANs. Which configuration error is causing this problem?

A

The wrong VLAN has been configured on subinterface Fa0/0.50.

53
Q

Which command will create a static route on R2 in order to reach PC B?

A

R2(config)# ip route 172.16.2.0 255.255.255.0 172.16.3.1

54
Q

Match the order in which the link-state routing process occurs on a router. (Not all options are used.)

A

2,3,1,skip,4,5 (See image)

55
Q

Refer to the exhibit. How many broadcast and collision domains exist in the topology?

A

5 broadcast domains and 10 collision domains

Routing and Switching Essentials (1 decks)

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