Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

AAAA clinical sci 2 winter 2016 > FINAL > Flashcards

FINAL Flashcards

1
Q

what are meningitis signs?

A 
HA
photophobia
neck stiffness
Brudzinski’s sign
Kernig’s sign
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

what are signs of intra cranial pressure signs?

A
  • CUSHING TRIAD (hypertension + bradycardia + abnormal respiration)
    -projectile vomiting
    -unilatral change of sensation a/o muscle weakness
    -severe HA, uneven pupils
    as mental status is declined
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

neurological examination includes?

A
  • identification of mental status
  • cranial nerves
  • muscle strength
  • gait
  • stance
  • coordination
  • dermatomes
  • spinal reflexes
  • comparison of pulses (central and peripheral
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

pupillary and accommodation reflex

A

sensory CN 2 / optic

motor CN 3 / oculomotor - constrict pupil and lense accommodation for near vision (consensual reflex)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

corneal reflex

A

sensory CN 5 /trigeminal - feeling that cornea is being touched
motor CN 7 / facial - blinking

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

gag reflex

A

sensory CN 9 / glossopharagneal

motor CN 10 / vagus - gagging

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

what are two major arteries, as the branches of the brachia-cephalic aortic trunk on both sides, that serves as origin of circle of willis?

A

vertebral and common carotid

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

which part of circle of willis supply blood to occipital lobes of cerebrum, brain stem, cerebellum? and what are these areas of brain responsible for?

A

posterior cerebral arteries

for vision, vital centers, and maintenance of equilibrium (respectively)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

which part of circle of willis is responsible for supplying lateral parts of cerebrum?

what are these areas of brain responsible for?

A

*middle cerebral arteries

brain cortex are responsible for functioning of upper part of trunk and upper extremities + speech

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

what is most commonly affected arteries in stroke (CVA)?

A

middle cerebral arteries

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

why does fracture or other types of injuries to the face (eye, nose) may compromise brain circulation?

A

because internal carotid arteries, which are origin of middle cerebral arteries, climb to the circle of willis via the cavernous sinuses

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

which part of circle of willis is responsible for supplying blood to superior parts of the brain and the diencephalon? and injury to this reflects?

A

anterior cerebral arteries

reflected on dysfunction of lower trunk/lower extremities and diencephalon

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

what are 2 types of stroke or cerebra-vascular accident (CVA)? what percentages do they make up?

A

ischemic (embolic) - 90%

hemorrhagic

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

major etiology of ischemic stroke is?

A

systemic arterial hypertension + atherosclerosis and thrombosis

*usually from heart –> brain

[different from DVT, leg –> Lung]

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

major etiology of hemorrhagic stroke

A

malignant arterial hypertensions associated with aneurysm within circle of willis (for ex ADPKD) or trauma

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

in which neuron injury, will you see exaggerated spinal reflexes? what other signs will you see in this injury?

A

upper motor nuron (bc brain damage, spinal loop…)

  • Baginski’s reflex present
  • spastic muscle on affected (central-lateral) side
  • muscle fasciculation (isolated muscle contraction)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

in lower motor neuron injury, you will see?

A
  • spinal reflex diminished or absent

- weakness of muscle on contra-lateral side of body

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

upper motor neurons are presented by what?

A

motor area neurons of brain and cortico-spinal (pyramidal) tract, composed of their axons before they synapse with LMN, situated in ventral horns of spinal cord.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

which is the “Talk or Die” hemorrhage? why is it called this?

-where is it an injury to?

A

epidural (extra-dura) hemorrhage/hematoma

  • trauma to meningeal arteries, which are superficially locked in grooves of skull above dura
  • person will lose consciousness briefly due to shaking of reticular formation of brain stem, then gain consciousness for a short while and again lose consciousness due to accumulation of hematoma and herniation of brain as result of blood clot gravity
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

injured veins of brain within subdural space (also called the bridging veins) causes, what type of hemorrhage?

what are red flags for this condition

A

subdural hemorrhage

bridging veins have low pressure, the hemorrhage, originated from them could be acute, sub-acute, or even chronic.

RED FLAG - patient present with chronic increasing in severity HA

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

the “worse HA of one’s life” can result from which brain hemorrhage?

causes?

A

subarachnoid hemorrhage

can be trauma or spontaneous bleeding from circle of willis arteries and their branches (stroke, aneurysm rupture)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

what is hydrocephalus, it can result in?

A

accumulation of cerebra-spinal fluid within system of circulation

regardless of etiology, can result in motor, sensory deficit, demential in adults, and neurological/mental retardation in newborn

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

what is non-communicating hydrocephalus?\most common in?

A

due to obstruction as per blockages such as adhesions, malformation of CSF system

  • congenital malformation (rebulla during pregnancy, fetal irradiation), or adhesion due to meningitis or menage-encepalitis
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

what is communicating hydrocephalus?

most common in?

A

atrophy of arachnoid granulations (villi) of arachnoid membrane (meninx)

-geriatrics

arachnoid villa returns CSF to venous sinus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

dementia is defined as?

A

profound loss of CONTENT of consciousness

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

most common type of dementia is ?

A

alzheimer’s disease

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

what is pathogenesis of Alzheimer’s

A

abnormal deposition of AMYLOID, tau proteins, creating neurofibrillary tangles and amyloid plaques, that disrupt normal communications of neurons within system of basal ganglia and limbic system

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

which dementia is due to systemic arterial hypertension and ischemic heart disease / atherosclerosis

A

vascular dementia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

name different types of dementia?

A 
alzheimer 
vascular dementia
post stroke dementia
parkinson's dementia
hydrocephalic dementia
brain trauma dementia
drug related dementia
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

parkinson’s always includes?

A 
muscular spasticity
rigidity
hypokinesia 
bradykinesia
mask-like face
resting tremor
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

what is Lou Gehrig’s disease (Amyotrophic Lateral Sclerosis)?

what famous scientist has it?

A

degenerative disease of UMN and LMN of unclear etiology

-gradual atrophy of motor neurons and corresponding muscles, but SENSORY is all preserved

Stephan Hawkings

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

what is meningitis? it result in?

A

inflammation of meninges
result in malfx of brain, high potential of systemic complications as septicemia, Disseminated Intravascular Coagulation, shock, failure of vital organs, including hemorrhage into adrenal gland (Waterhouse-Friderichsen Syndrome) and death

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

what is most dangerous type of meningitis?

A

Bacterial

  • infants can be affected by E. Coli, Listeria, Homophiles influenza, Strep pneumonia
  • teens affected by Neisseria meningitides
  • elderly affected by S. pneumonia
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

immune compromised people are prone to what type of meningitis?

A

fungal

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

what will you see in bacterial meningitis that you won’t see with other types?

A

glucose content of CSF will be decreased, bc bacteria is interested in glucose

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

what labs will you see in fungal meningitis?

in viral?

A

fungal meningitis - monocytosis

viral meningitis - lymphocytosis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

in Left-side stroke, what will you see?

A

functional loss or motor skill impairment of Right side of body,
+
maybe loss of speech

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

what will you see in Right side stroke?

A

functional loss or motor skill impairment of LEFT side of body,
+
*impairment of normal attention to left side of body and surroundings (bc right brain is responsible for space orientation)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

stroke affecting cerebellum may cause?

A

dizziness, nausea, balance and coordination problems

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

stroke affecting brain stem causes?

A

malfx of breathing, and heartbeat

also, may have double vision, nausea, loss of coordination

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

gene coding for cerebral amyloid (Alzheimer’s), is on chromosome 21, how does this relate to Down Syndrome

A

persons with trisomy 21 (down syndrome) usually develop Alzheimer by 40 years of age

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

what will you see in CSF analysis in Bacterial meningitis?

A

-turbidity
-increased protein CSF level
-decreased glucose
-neutrophils in blood and CSF
bacteria in CSF
-increased pressure upon CSF -withdrawal - penetrate dura with syringe

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

what is brudzinski’s sign

A

severe neck stiffness causes patient’s hips and knees to flex when neck is flexed

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

what is kerning’s sign

A

severe stiffness of hamstring causes an inability to straighten leg when hip is flexed to 90 degrees

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

when is spinal tap contraindicated?

A

with increased intra-cranial pressure

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
46
Q

definition of sinus HA

A

pain usually behind forehead and/or cheekbones

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
47
Q

definition of cluster HA

A

pain is in and around one eye

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
48
Q

definition of tension HA

A

pain is like a band squeeing head

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
49
Q

definition of migraine HA

A

pain, nausea and visual changes are typical of classic form

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
50
Q

what is generalized seizures?

A

produced by electrical impulses from throughout entire brain

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
51
Q

what is partial seizures?

A

produced (initially) by electrical impulses in relatively small part of brain

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
52
Q

what are 6 types of generalized seizures?

A

1) grand-mal *most common - collapse, loose consciousness, body stiffening (tonic), violent jerking(clonic)
2) absence (petit-mal) - short loss of consciousness
3) myoclonic - sporadic jerks
4) clonic - repetitive, rhythmic jerks
5) tonic - stiffening of muscles
6) atonic - sudden loss of muscle tone (arm and legs usually)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
53
Q

what are febrile seizures?

A

occurs most often in otherwise healthy child between 9 months to 5 years

  • toddler most commonly affected, runs in family
  • most febrile seizures occur in first 24hrs of an illness, and may not occur when fever is highest
  • can be triggered by ear infection, or any cold or viral illness
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
54
Q

name the 12 cranial nerves and whether they are motor, sensory of both?

A

Oh, Oh, Oh, To, Touch, And, Feel, Very, Green, Vegetables, A H

Some Say Marry Money But My Brother Says Bigger Boos Matter More

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
55
Q

testing reflex biceps brachi

A

C5 - C6

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
56
Q

testing reflex triceps brachii

A

C6-C8

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
57
Q

testing reflex quadriceps femoris (knee jerk)

A

L2-L4

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
58
Q

testing reflex gastrocnemius (ankle jerk)

A

SI-S2

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
59
Q

dermatome testing for shoulder?

A

C4 - C6

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
60
Q

dermatome for index fingers

A

C6

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
61
Q

dermatome for middle finger

A

C7

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
62
Q

dermatome for ring and little finger

A

C8

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
63
Q

dermatome for nipple

A

T4

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
64
Q

dermatome for umbilicus

A

T10

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
65
Q

dermatome for knee

A

L3

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
66
Q

dermatome for ball of foot, great toe

A

L5

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
67
Q

dermatome for rest of sole

A

S1

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
68
Q

Alert, normale leve lof consciousness means?

A

orient to self, time, and place + perceives and responds/remember to new/current stimuli

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
69
Q

disturbed level of consciousness with impaired ability to think clearly, and to perceive, respond to, remember current stimuli, somewhat disoriented means?

A

confusion

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
70
Q

disturbed state of consciousness with motor restlessness, hallucinations, severe disorientation, sometimes, delusions mean?

A

delirium

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
71
Q

decreased alertness with psychomotor retardation is?

A

obtundation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
72
Q

little spontaneous activity, mostly to painful stimuli means?

A

stupor

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
73
Q

what are the content of consciousness?

A 
short and long term memory
abstract thinking
intellectual fx
judgement
speech
content of thought
mood and affect
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
74
Q

perception of non-existing stimulus is?

A

hallucination

75
Q

wrong/abnormal identification of existing stimulus is?

A

illusion

76
Q

abnormal thought process, which can not be corrected by judgment is

A

delusion

77
Q

which disease is also called Waterhouse-Fridrichesen’s syndrome?

A

Meningococcemia - a fulminant disease caused by several groups of Neisseria meningitides - cause of death is adrenal necrosis with vascular collapse
- type of bacterial meningitis

78
Q

what are distributive septic shock signs?

A

tachycardia
hypotension
cold + clammy hands
*above are signs for all shock, this with rash and fever will be sepsis

79
Q

what is digoxin

A

cardiac glycoside - this drug increases force of contraction and gives more stamina to heart, used to control Atrial Fabulation

-can be used in tx of Cerebrovascular accident (stroke)

80
Q

abnormal pupil indicates damage to which cranial nerve and which part of brain?

A

CN III, and always in midbrain (so can happen in midbrain hemorrhage)

81
Q

laceration of bridging veins can result in?

A

displacement of brain and possible cerebral herniations

can happen in Subdural hematoma (accumulation of blood bt dura and arachnoid)

82
Q

congenital berry aneurysms are associated with what disease?

A

polycystic kidney disease and arteriovenous malformation - they may rupture during straining (sex, wight lifting, etc) and cause subarachnoid hemorrhage

83
Q

what are most common ruptures sites of artery? in order

A
  1. circle of willis
  2. abdominal aorta
  3. thoracic aorta
84
Q

what is Guillain-Barre syndrome?

A

demylineation on perisperhal neuronal sites, going toward brain
-very rapid progression, within 48-72 hrs of infection

-it tis common cause of polyneuropathy in adults that is usually proceeded by GI or respiratory infection or by specific illness such as Epstein-Barr, Campylobacter enteritis, and cytomegalovirus infections. respiratory paralysis may occur, necessitating mechanical ventilation

85
Q

how do you differentiate bt parkinson and alzhemiers?

A

usually in parkinson, demential is last step of disease progression. first you will have mostly motor neuron deficit, with muscle rigidity

86
Q

what is colposcopy?

A

“colpos” means cervix, examination of cervix, vagina, vulva; if your pap smear is abnormal

87
Q

vaginal bleeding, vague abdominal/pelvic discomfort, esp. in combination with amenorrhea in female of reproductive age is Red Flag for?

A

cervical cancer

88
Q

what is infection that affects all or most of reproductive organs?
(cervix, tubes, uterus, ovaries)

A

PID

89
Q

what signs suggest PID?

A

adnexal and cervical tenderness

90
Q

pain with menses is? what is primary and secondary condition of this?

A

dysmenorrhea

primary - pain occurs at beginning of menses cycle or during

secondary - pain with menses due to underlying pathological cause such as fibroids, endometriosis

91
Q

infrequent, light menses is called?

A

oligomemorrhea

92
Q

heavy menses is called?

A

menorrhagia

93
Q

irregular uterine bleeding, particularly between expected menses is?

A

metorrhagia

94
Q

examples of bacterial infections of FRS are?

A

STD –> gonorrhea, chlamydia, syphills, strep, stap

95
Q

examples of viral infections of FRS are

A

herpes genitalis, HPV

96
Q

examples of fungal infections of FRS are

A

candida albicans

97
Q

examples of protozoal infections of FRS are

A

trichomonad vaginalis

98
Q

what are risk factors of PID?

A 
young age of sexual activity
STD
multiple sex parters
intra-uterine contraceptive device IUD
neglecting GYN checkup
99
Q

leading cause of ectopic pregnancy and infertility is what disease?

A

PID

100
Q

post-coital bleeding is red flag for what disease ?

A

genital cancer (ex cervical cancer)

101
Q 
exposure to STD, esp HPV infection
sex at early age
multiple partners
smoking
are risk factors for?
A

cervical cancer

102
Q

S&S
found during middle and later reproductive years
mostly asymptomatic, they can grow and cause heavy and painful menses
painful sexual intercourse
urinary frequency and urgency

A

these are s&s of Uterine Fibroids

103
Q

vaginal bleeding in postmenopausal women is red flag for?

A

Uterine cancer

Ovarian Cancer

104
Q 
which disease has following risk factors?
obesity
diabetes
hypertension
family history
un-opposed estrogen
polycystic ovary syndrome
nulliparity
late menopause
A

uterine / endometrial cancer

105
Q

what are triad clinical symptoms of endometriosis?

A

dysmenorrhea
dyspareunia (painful intercourse)
infertility

106
Q

if endometrial tissues are imbed in pleural what happens?

A

when this sheds according to menstrual cycle, it will cause catamenial pneumothorax

107
Q

pouch of douglas is significant for?

A

endometriosis, when endometrial tissues imbed in posterior-cul-de-sac (between rectum and posterior wall of uterus)

108
Q

what FRS condition has following S&S and risk factors?
painful and heavy menses
women bt 35-50
multiparous female

A

adenomyosis

109
Q

acute abdominal pain in woman of childbearing age is red flag for?

A

ectopic pregnancy

110
Q

in which FRS cancer, risks increases with age and decreases with pregnancy? and is affected by mutation in BRAC 1 and 2 gene?

A

Ovarian cancer

111
Q

what is most common endocrine disorder of FRS?

A

polycystic ovary syndrome

112
Q

the triad of symptoms and other S&S occur in which FRS disorder?

1) obesity (although 45% are not obese)
2) anovulation infertility
3) oligomenorrhea or amenorrhea

other S&S
hirsutism
acne
string of pearls in ultrasound of pelvis

A

polycystic ovary syndrome

113
Q

the rotterdam criteria (endocrine abnormalities) of the following is need to dx which FRS condition?

high level of androgens (free testosterone)
absence of mid-cycle peak of LH and FSH
excessive secretion of LH
glucose intolerance

A

polycystic ovary syndrome

114
Q

which FRS disorder does metformin help treat as symptomatic treatment?

A

polycystic ovary syndrome, metformin is used for diabetes mellitus type 2 glucose intolerance

115
Q

preeclampsia can lead to eclampsia, which is characterized by what type of seizures

A

Tonic-clonic

116
Q

condition in which placenta is shallowly implanted and thus the placenta becomes hypoxic, and there is immune reaction, which is characterized by secretion of unregulated inflammatory mediators from placenta and acts on vascular endothelium -

A

preeclampsia

117
Q

what is definitive diagnose of preeclampsia

A

1) pregnant women with high blood pressure ( 2 separate takes at least 4 hrs apart of of 140/90 or more)
2) more than 200-300 mg of pretin in 24 hrs urine sample

118
Q

HTN in pregnancy is?

A

RED FLAG

119
Q

these are risk factors of which FRS cancer?

sex, age, childbearing, hormones, high fat diet, alcohol intake, obesity, environment, tobacco use, radiation, endocrine disruptors and shift work, mutation of BRAC 1 and 2 genes

A

Breast cancer

120
Q

fetal age from first day of last menstrual period (LMP) is ?

A

gestational age

121
Q

fetal age from last assumed fertilization?

A

developmental age

2 weeks less than GA

122
Q

history of giving birth is called?

A

parity / para

123
Q

history of being pregnant is called?

A

gravidity / gravida

124
Q

what are sign and symptoms of pregnancy?

A

chadwick’s signs (blueish discoloration of vagina and cervix)
goodell’s sign: softening and cyanosis of cervix at or after 4 weeks
ladin’s sign: softening of uterus after 6 weeks
linea nigra
telangiectasis
palmar erythema

125
Q

what is quickening?

A

fetal movement with maternal awareness of it after 16 weeks of gestation

126
Q

in pregnancy test what are you looking for?

A

serum beta-hCG - this will appear shortly after conception, rise exponentially, doubling in value every 48 hrs until 12 weeks of GA, or 10 weeks of DA, after which it will level off until time of delivery

127
Q

what is Nagele’s rule for EDC (estimated date of confinement)

A

(LMP - 3 months) + 7 days

128
Q

why do you have nausea and vomiting (morning sickness) un pregnancy? what other GI changes?

A

elevated estrogen, progesterone, hCG

stomach will increased gastric emptying times
LES will have decreased tone –> may lead to GE reflux and spitting due to ptyalism (exuberant saliva)
LI decreased motility –> constipation

129
Q

what hormone is produced by placenta?

A

human placental lactogen (hPL) or also called Human Chorionic Somatomammotropin

130
Q

what are some endocrine changes in pregnancy?

A
  • hyperestrogen state
  • estrogen produced mostly by placenta and less production by ovaries
  • hCG - alph and beta
131
Q

antibodies to cyclic citrulinated peptides (anti-CCP) is

new definitive dx for ?

A

rheumatoid arthritis

132
Q

morning stiffness of joints greater than 1 hour in morning
-swan neck deformity of hand joints
-ulnar deviation of hand joint
classical presentation of ?

A

rheumatoid arthritis

133
Q 
2/5 of following CREST signs indicate?
Calcium deposits
Raynaud's phenomen
Esophageal dysfunction
Sclerodactyle
Telangiectasis
A

Systemic Sclerosis (scleroderma)

134
Q

bamboo spine
tenderness in sacroiliac joint
nocturnal back pain
accentuated kyphosis

indicates?

A

ankylosing spondylosis

135
Q

positive cellular marker HLA-B27 indicates?

A

ankylosing spondylosis

136
Q

positive HLA-DR4 and rheumatoid factor may indicate?

A

rheumatoid arthritis, but not def dx

137
Q

transient monoarticular arthritis or severe multisystem disorder, generally asymmetric and polyarticular arthritis primary in large joints. inflammation at tendinous insertions of bone (painter fascitis, tendinitis), lesions (ulcers in oral mucosa), puss vessels on palm or soles…
+ symptoms of GI or GU ingestion

A

reactive arthritis

2 forms sexually transmitted (chlamydia) and dysenteric

cellular marker HLA-B27

138
Q

rat tail in Lung imaging indicates?

A

achalasia, which can happen in systemic sclerosis

139
Q

butterfly rash over cheeks
positive for antinuclear antibodies, anti-dsDNA, anti-smiths, antiphospholipid antibodies, false positive syphills test indicates?

A

systemic lupus erythematosus

140
Q

episodic muscle weakness, fatigue, symptoms worsen with activity and better with rest.

ptosis
diplopia

Ache antibody levels

autoimmune attack on polysynaptic acetylcholine receptors which disrupt neurotransmission, and associated with thymus disorders

A

myasthenia gravis

141
Q

autosomal recensisce trait on chromosome 7 that affects protein called cystic fibrosis transmembrane conductance regulator (CFTR) … glands become obstructed by viscid or solid eosinophilic material and produce excessive secretion

dx with sweat test with elevated sweat CL on > 2 occasions

A

cystic fibrosis

142
Q

brain damage and LV function problems of unknown cause, sometimes associated with use of salicylate (aspiring) to treat fever in children.
usually follows upper respiratory infection or chickenpox

happens in children 4-12 yrs old

vomiting for hours, irritable, aggressive behavior, lethargy, seizures, decerebrated posture

A

Reyes syndrome

143
Q

painful swelling of salivary glands (classically parotid gland), orchitis, oophoritis, pancreatitis

in post-pubeteral man, can lead to infertility

A

mumps

144
Q

kopek’s spot on buccal mucosa

infect eyes, upper respiratory tract, then spread to regional lymph nodes

in brain can cause meningitis, in lungs pneumonia

S&S
barking cough
initial HA
photophobia 
foul smelling discharge (coryza)
A

measles (rubeola)

145
Q

related to fetal malformations if pregnant female in 1st trimester gets it

muffin top rash in children

A

german measles (rubella)

146
Q

neuropathic cough (coughing bc of brain, large inspiration w/o re-inspiring) , whooping cough, can be fetal for kids bc they can suffocate and hypoxia to brain is dangerous in kids

A

pertussis

147
Q

toxin released into blood stream, can create necrosis in throat, which is thick and adherent to underlying tissues

A

diptheria

148
Q

skin condition that has
yellow crust as an aftermath of previously pussy blisters and drying oozing fluid

very contagious
strep or stap infection of skin

highly likely following an autoimmune glomerulonephritis as nephritic syndrome

A

impetigo

149
Q

acute inflammation of connective tissues of skin

strep or stap infection of skin usually

localized skin redness, warmth along with edema, glossy stretched skin etc.

A

cellulitis

150
Q

hypersensitivity inflammatory relations to variety of antigens and allergens

mediated by T-CD8 lymphocytes mainly as delayed type of hypersensitivity reaction

pruritic, red, papulo-vesicular… crusting

A

eczema (atopic dermatitis)

151
Q

normally, keratinocytes develop from epidermal stem cells and mature within 28 days.

but in this condition, due to autoimmune inflammation, the cycle of keratinocytes matures is shorter, (about 2 weeks, 1/2 the normal amount). eventually all layers of skin affected and skin appears scaling as per inability to discard all mature cells, ready for exfoliation

skin may have:
guttae (drop-like papule)
plaque, pustules
Auspitz points of hemorrhaging skin

yellow and pitting nails

A

psoriasis

152
Q

what is most common skin cancer?

A

basal cell carcinoma

153
Q

second most common skin cancer>

A

squamous cell carcinoma

154
Q

what is most aggressive skin cancer, that metastasize to eye (or might be originated from pigment layer of retina), liver, and brain before spreading to other organs and tissues

A

melanoma

155
Q

what is ABCDE system of surveillance for skin malignancies?

A 
Asymmetry
Borders
Color
Diameter  ( >5-6 mm)
Extension (growing in size or depth)
156
Q

in which degree burn do you have blisters?

A

second degree

157
Q

veins of the brain return blood into where?

A

dural sinuses

158
Q

dural sinus return venous blood into where?

A

jugular veins then to heart

159
Q

what extension of dura mater separates two hemispheres of cerebrum?

A

falx cerebri

160
Q

what extension of dura mater separates two hemispheres of cerebellum

A

falx cerebelli

161
Q

what extension of dura mater separates cerebrum from cerebellum?

A

tentorium cerebelli

162
Q

the bridging veins are where? what happens if they rupture?

A

in the subdural space, they carry venous blood to dural sinuses

when rupture - subdural hemorrhage

163
Q

injury to inner arteries of brain due to stroke or trauma is ?

A

subarachnoid hemorrhage

164
Q

where does CSF normally circulate?

A

around the brain and spend cord within subarachnoid space (space bt arachnoid and pia)

165
Q

why does subarachnoid hemorrhage produce the “worse HA of one’s life”?

A

bc subarachnoid hemorrhage from a ruptured aneurysm is more of an irritant producing vasospasm than a mass lesion

166
Q

CSF is produced by?

A

plasma filtration through ependymal cell layer of ventricular choroid plexus, which is situated within in both later 3rd ventricles

167
Q

toxic appearance, drooling, sitting up on both arms, muffled voice,

caused by bacteria infection, staph, strep, influenza,

happens in kids
abrupt onset
why is this disease dangerous?

A

acute epiglottis,

dangerous bc edema of epiglottis - small childcare have small airway

168
Q

rough, red rash that feels like sandpaper
rash in skin folds, esp groins, armpit, elbow creases
strep throat + rash

A

scarlet fever

169
Q

humoral immunity carried out by?

A

B lymphocytes and their manufactured antibodies

170
Q

cellular immunity carried out by?

A

T lymphocyte

171
Q

what is plasma cells, how are they produced?

A

activated B cell

TCD 4 activates B lymphocytes, when activated they become plasma cells, plasma cells secrete immunoglobulin - antibodies, class IgM (initial humoral response to new pathogen)

172
Q

which immunoglobulin is memory response?

A

IgG

173
Q

which immunoglobulin is most abundant in blood? and crosses placenta barrier as passive immunity for fetus?

A

IgG

174
Q

immunoglobulin A is found where?

A

mucous, specific defense

175
Q

what are two types of natural killer lymphocytes?

A

1) cytotoxic cells - TCD 8 (specific killers)

2) natural killers - T lymphocytes

176
Q

which hep is a DNA virus, and its transmitted 90% of time via sex?

A

Hep B

177
Q

which hep is RNA virus, and called disease of nurses bc commonly transmitted by needle stick?

A

Hep C

178
Q

which hep is asymptomatic until late stage?

A

hep c

179
Q

major cells of allergic reaction type 1 sensitivity are?

A

mast cells and basophils

180
Q

which Hep B indicates chronic carrier, convalescent, incubation period, ?

A

HBsAg

also called Austrian antigen
or surface antigen

181
Q

which Hep B indicates successful immunization and recovery?

A

HBsAb

Austrian antibodies, or surface antibodies

182
Q

which Hep B indicates acute stage of disease?

A

HBcAg + HBsAg

Hep B core antigen + surface antigen

183
Q

which Hep B indicates highly infectious stage, with high viral load and activity of virus?

A

HBeAg

Hep B envelope antigen

AAAA clinical sci 2 winter 2016 (3 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2024 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions