FINAL Flashcards

1
Q

The reasons physical therapists learn about law (9)

A
  1. Right to practice granted by state statutes = each state’s statutes differ.
  2. Conflicts btwn federal gov + states’ rights
  3. Legal oversight bc gov fund healthcare (fraud and abuse).
  4. Business relationships often contractual =breach of contract
  5. Reduces risk potential/actual malpractice claims
  6. Become better contract negotiator= independent practitioner
  7. Jurisprudence knowledge required for licensure
  8. Cannot claim ignorance of law as defense
  9. Professional ethics requires obeying laws
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2
Q

Who is the right to practice granted by ?

The reasons physical therapists learn about law

A

The right to practice is a right granted by a STATE’s statutes, and at present each state’s statutes DIFFER.

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3
Q

Do conflicts occur between the federal government and states’ rights?

(The reasons physical therapists learn about law)

A

Conflicts occur between the federal government and states’ rights.

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4
Q

Why can legal oversight occur?

The reasons physical therapists learn about law

A

Government funding of health care results in increased legal oversight (fraud and abuse).

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5
Q

What type of business relationships do we have?

The reasons physical therapists learn about law

A

Business relationships are often contractual (breach of contract).

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6
Q

What does learning about the PT law help with?

The reasons physical therapists learn about law

A

Reduces the risk associated with potential or actual malpractice claims

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7
Q

What will learning about the law help PTs negotiate?

The reasons physical therapists learn about law

A

Become a better contract negotiator (independent practitioner)

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8
Q

What kind of knowledge is required for licensure?

The reasons physical therapists learn about law

A

Jurisprudence knowledge is required for licensure

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9
Q

Can ignorance of the law be used as a defense?

The reasons physical therapists learn about law

A

Claiming ignorance of the law is not a defense

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10
Q

What does professional ethics say about obeying laws?

The reasons physical therapists learn about law

A

Professional ethics requires obeying laws

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11
Q

What does jurisprudence mean?

A

Jurisprudence means knowledge of law.

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12
Q

define “Act”

A

Act = legislation signed by the President/Governor

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13
Q

define:

“Law”

A

Law =

statute = regulation = formal written law

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14
Q

Define:

“Regulations”

A

Regulations =

set of rules, legal restrictions

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15
Q

Define:

“Administrative law”

A

Administrative law = deals with enforcement of statutes

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16
Q

Be able to define the following terms: act, law, administrative law, regulation

A

Act = legislation signed by the President/Governor

Law = statute = regulation = formal written law

Regulations = set of rules, legal restrictions

Administrative law = deals with enforcement of statutes

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17
Q

Administrative law-

A

CLAIMS brought against INDIVIDUAL / GROUP

by ADMINISTRATIVE AGENCIES (eg. Licensing board ), created by the government

to ADMINISTER and ENFORCE a particular set of statutes.

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18
Q

Civil law-

A

claims brought against INDIVIDUAL/ GROUP/STATE

  • -> to RECOVER DAMAGES against a PERSON/PROPERTY
  • -> or a BREACH IN CONTRACT has occurred

(Eg. When a wrong (tort) has been committed)

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19
Q

Criminal law-

A

when an EVENT is considered an act

against SOCIETY, FEDERAL or STATE GOVERNMENT

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20
Q

Review the three different types of law under the United States court system ‘

A

ADMINISTRATIVE LAW- claims brought against individuals or groups by administrative agencies (eg. Licensing board ), which were created by the government to administer and enforce a particular set of statutes.

CIVIL LAW- claims brought against individuals, groups, or the state to recover damages
Eg. When a wrong (tort) has been committed against a person or property or a breach in contract has occurred

CRIMINAL LAW- when an event is considered an act against society, federal or state government

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21
Q

claims brought against individuals or groups by administrative agencies (eg. Licensing board ), which were created by the government to administer and enforce a particular set of statutes.

A

ADMINISTRATIVE LAW

logistics behind enforcement of these things

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22
Q

claims brought against individuals, groups, or the state to recover damages
Eg. When a wrong (tort) has been committed against a person or property or a breach in contract has occurred

A

CIVIL LAW-

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23
Q

when an event is considered an act against society, federal or state government

A

CRIMINAL LAW

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24
Q

Administrative Law

what it does:

A

—Protection public by state level: issuing licenses to health care and other professionals.

— Health service providers must be licensed to provide reimbursable clinical services
= evidence state qualified individuals a privilege to practice

— No one guaranteed a license, qualified individuals (as defined by practice act), must apply for a license and show evidence that they have met the state’s qualifications

— Once received, a licensee must abide by the state’s practice act and corresponding regulations.

— A governing board has authority to issue, renew, restrict, or revoke licenses as well as censure licensees when a licensee fails to meet these responsibilities

State licensing boards:
—-Adopt rules and regulations necessary for administration of the practice act
—- Follow administrative rules and regulations
Each state reserves the right to pass laws for the protection of residents within the state
Licensure laws are enacted through each states legislative process to protect residents within the state for incompetent and unscrupulous health services and other practitioners
—- Follow administrative law procedures, which allow infraction investigations and decisions to be made by a hearing panel rather than a court

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25
Q

Who does issuing licenses to health care and other professionals protect?

A

Protection of the public at the state level includes such things as issuing licenses to health care and other professionals.

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26
Q

Be able to define malpractice, negligence, and fraud

A

Negligence/Negligent tort = omission (does not perform) or commission (does perform) an act that a reasonable, prudent person would or would not do under given circumstances

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27
Q

What does “Tort” mean?

2 types

A

Tort = an injurious act committed against a person or property or a contract breach

Two general types of torts:
Negligent torts
Intentional torts

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28
Q

What is Negligence/Negligent tort?

A

omission (does not perform) or commission (does perform) an act that a reasonable, prudent person would or would not do under given circumstances

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29
Q

What 4 things must plaintiff (the injured party) demonstrate for negligence?

A
  1. There was a duty OWED to the plaintiff by the defendant (the accused)
    Defendants can include the referrer, manager, or employer, or all of them
  2. There was a BREACH – the duty was not met either by failure to act or failure to meet the standard of care for the circumstance at the time
  3. The party who was owed a duty INCURRED DAMAGE directly (loss of wages) or indirectly (pain)
  4. CAUSATION – the breach of duty caused injury or there was a causal connection between the breach and the damages
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30
Q

proving negligence, what is a Breach ?

A

breach – the duty was not met either by failure to act or failure to meet the standard of care for the circumstance at the time

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31
Q

what would be causation in proving negligence?

A

CAUSATION – the breach of duty caused injury or there was a causal connection between the breach and the damages

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32
Q

What is “Malpractice”?

A

= professional negligence

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33
Q

When does “Malpractice” occur?

A

Occurs when the alleged wrongdoer is a

  • ->Professional
  • ->With the necessary or required action within the scope of practice
  • ->Requires special knowledge and skills to practice

Duty, breach, damages, and causation are required for proof in a malpractice case;
expert testimony is required because the ordinary person is not capable of determining what the professional standard of care should be.

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34
Q

What 4 things needed for proof of causation?

A
  1. Duty
  2. breach
  3. damages
  4. causation
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35
Q

Intentional tort

A

INTENTIONALLY committed knowing that HARM LIKELY a result

(PT-relevant examples)

  • -> ASSAULT – a threat to touch another without consent
  • -> BATTERY – actual, intentional touching of another without his or her consent
  • -> FALSE IMPRISONMENT – unnecessary confinement of a person, e.g., physical restraint
  • -> FRAUD- Intentional misrepresentation in a manner than can harm
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36
Q

Fraud

A

= Knowingly and willfully executing or attempting to execute a scheme to defraud any healthcare benefit program.

= Fraud- Intentional MISREPRESENTATION in a manner than can HARM

  • Examples of fraud in health care may include:
    1. Knowingly billing for services that were not furnished
    2. Knowingly altering claim forms to receive a higher payment amount
    3. Falsifying documentation
    4. Using unlicensed individuals to provide services
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37
Q

What does every lawsuit begin with?

A

Every lawsuit begins with a triggering event

  • -Misunderstanding
  • -Dissatisfied client
  • -Unusual sign or symptom
  • -Accident or a clearly defined injury from substandard care

Lawsuits can last up to 7 years or longer

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38
Q

WHAT IS THE SEQUENCE OF THE LAWSUIT?

A

1) EVENT
2) PATIENT COMPLAINTS
3) SUMMONS AND COMPLAINT
4) PRETRIAL DISCOVERY
5) TRIAL

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39
Q

What you should do

A

document what is happening
call and update the doctor
notify clinic risk manager/owner

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40
Q

When is a lawsuit formally initiated?

A

A lawsuit is formally initiated when two separate legal documents are filed with the court by the patient or his/her attorney

–> Summons- names the defendant(s), the plaintiff , the jurisdiction of the lawsuit and when and where the named defendant should appear

–> Complaint- gives details about the case against the defendant and outlines the basis for the suit.

Both the summons and complaint must be given to the defendant and filed in a court in the jurisdiction where the alleged malpractice occurred

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41
Q

What is a Summons?

A

–> Summons- names the defendant(s), the plaintiff , the jurisdiction of the lawsuit and when and where the named defendant should appear

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42
Q

What is a Complaint?

A

–> Complaint- gives details about the case against the defendant and outlines the basis for the suit.

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43
Q

What 2 separate legal documents are filed with the court by the patient or his/her attorney when a lawsuit is formally initiated?

A

–> Summons- names the defendant(s), the plaintiff , the jurisdiction of the lawsuit and when and where the named defendant should appear

–> Complaint- gives details about the case against the defendant and outlines the basis for the suit.

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44
Q

Statute of limitation for being sued

A

In general Summons and Complaint documents are delivered (service of process) to the defendant by a sheriff or other law official

The deadline (statute of limitations) for filing the summons and complaint vary from state to state, but is generally 2 years from the date of the negligent action or omission and may be 3 years for the date of the intentional tort
-->Minors have a extended statute of limitation
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45
Q

What does one do if they get a summons or complaint? (3)

What should they not do? (3)

A

Upon receipt of the summons and complaint the defendant should

  1. Notify his or her insurance carrier and employer
  2. Review all medical records
  3. Preserve all records

What should NOT be done

  1. Distribute original records without advice from legal counsel
  2. Make changes to the medical record
  3. Talk about the case with colleagues, family, or friends- avoid emotional interaction which could effect decisions and actions

***The plaintiff’s attorney can depose (take testimony) from anyone who knows about the case, therefore by talking about the case with may enable the plaintiff’s legal counsel to obtain unintended or misconstrued information or inconsistent statements

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46
Q

What is a Pretrial discovery?

A

At this stage both parties research relevant facts to be presented to the court

This includes

  • -> Oral depositions
  • -> Written depositions
  • -> Requests for documentation, office calendars, correspondence, personal notes, etc.

The accused clinician(s) (PT, PTA’s) may be fact witnesses as well as the named defendant in a lawsuit

If called for a deposition its important to:

  • ->Stay calm, alert and be well groomed
  • ->Maintain your composure – the plaintiffs legal counsel is looking to catch the defendant off guard and elicit a response
  • —->Avoid getting angry and honestly answer ONLY the questions being asked.
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47
Q

If called for a deposition what is it important to do?

A

–>Stay calm, alert and be well groomed

–>Maintain your composure – the plaintiffs legal counsel is looking to catch the defendant off guard and elicit a response

—–>Avoid getting angry and honestly answer ONLY the questions being asked.

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48
Q

what happens at the trial?

A

Begins with opening statements presented by the plaintiff’s and defendants attorneys
The statements outline the case and respective arguments

The trial is meant to be adversarial with each side trying to persuade the jury in its favor

Credibility of the parties and witnesses throughout the presentation of the evidence can result in crucial turning points for or against the parties

If the judgement is in favor of the plaintiff in a malpractice case, the defendant may receive several consequences

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49
Q

If the judgement is in favor of the plaintiff in a malpractice case, the defendant may receive several consequences

A

Financial consequences
- direct damages to the plaintiff for lost earnings, current or future medical expenses, indirect damages for pain, emotional distress, and loss of consortium, punitive damages

Employment consequences
- unusual carelessness, intentional actions, or gross negligence may result in disciplinary action or dismissal

Licensure consequences
- licensure boards may investigate and take disciplinary action including censure, suspension, or revocation

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50
Q

Settlement

A

–> Is considered an option until a case goes to trial

–> A settlement is not an admission of fault

–> There are two advantages of settlements

–It is less expensive than paying for attorneys, expert witnesses, and court costs throughout the lengthy process

–A settlement amount may be significantly less that what a jury might award

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51
Q

Fraud

definition

A

Knowingly and willfully executing or attempting to execute a scheme to defraud any healthcare benefit program.

Examples of fraud in health care may include:
1. Knowingly billing for services that were not furnished
2. Knowingly altering claim forms to receive a higher payment
amount
3. Falsifying documentation
4. Using unlicensed individuals to provide services

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52
Q

Abuse

definition

A

Payment for items or services when there is no legal entitlement to that payment and the provider has not knowingly and/or intentionally misrepresented facts to obtain payment.

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53
Q

Sequence of a lawsuit: (5)

A

1) EVENT
2) PATIENT COMPLAINTS
3) SUMMONS AND COMPLAINT
4) PRETRIAL DISCOVERY
5) TRIAL

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54
Q

Ant kickback laws, False claims act, whistleblower laws

A

Anti-Kick Back Laws
Prohibits individuals/entities from knowingly and willfully offering, paying soliciting or receiving remuneration or induce referrals of items or services covered by federally funded programs. A violation of this law can result in fines up to $25,000 and imprisonment up to five years.

False Claims Act
Parties who knowingly present fraudulent claims for payment to the government can be fined as much as $10,000 per violation.

Whistleblower Laws
Whistleblower laws permit private individuals to initiate false claims actions on the government’s behalf. Whistleblowers may share a percentage of recovery.

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55
Q

Anti-Kick Back Laws

A

Prohibits individuals/entities from knowingly and willfully offering, paying soliciting or receiving remuneration or induce referrals of items or services covered by federally funded programs. A violation of this law can result in fines up to $25,000 and imprisonment up to five years.

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56
Q

False Claims Act

A

False Claims Act
Parties who knowingly present fraudulent claims for payment to the government can be fined as much as $10,000 per violation.

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57
Q

Whistleblower Laws

A

Whistleblower Laws
Whistleblower laws permit private individuals to initiate false claims actions on the government’s behalf. Whistleblowers may share a percentage of recovery.

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58
Q

Knowingly and willfully executing or attempting to execute a scheme to defraud any healthcare benefit program.

A

Fraud

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59
Q

Payment for items or services when there is no legal entitlement to that payment and the provider has not knowingly and/or intentionally misrepresented facts to obtain payment.

A

abuse

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60
Q

Prohibits individuals/entities from knowingly and willfully offering, paying soliciting or receiving remuneration or induce referrals of items or services covered by federally funded programs. A violation of this law can result in fines up to $25,000 and imprisonment up to five years.

A

Anti-Kick Back Laws

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61
Q

Parties who knowingly present fraudulent claims for payment to the government can be fined as much as $10,000 per violation.

A

False Claims Act

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62
Q

Whistleblower laws permit private individuals to initiate false claims actions on the government’s behalf. Whistleblowers may share a percentage of recovery.

A

Whistleblower Laws

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63
Q

Be able to define a clause

A

A contract clause will address an aspect of the contract between parties, detailing the agreement to ensure all parties understand what is expected of the other.

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64
Q

A contract clause will address an aspect of the contract between ____, detailing the ____ to ensure all parties understand ________.

A

A contract clause will address an aspect of the contract between parties, detailing the agreement to ensure all parties understand what is expected of the other.

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65
Q

What is a clause?

A

A contract clause will address an aspect of the contract between parties, detailing the agreement to ensure all parties understand what is expected of the other.

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66
Q

A contract clause will address ________ between parties,
detailing the agreement to ensure all parties understand what is expected of the
other.

A

A contract clause will address an aspect of the contract between parties,
detailing the agreement to ensure all parties understand what is expected of the
other.

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67
Q

Common clauses in a contract

A

1) Integrated agreement clause (contract is the final terms)
2) At-will employee (fire with/out reason, any time)
3) Restrictive covenants or non-compete clause (prohibit from working certain area)
4) Indemnification (hold-harmless) clause (other party agree assume liability RED FLAG))

**Professional liability insurance (considered a contract )

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68
Q

Characteristics of a Contract

A

1) Defined as a written or spoken agreement and is intended to be enforceable by law
2) Begins with negotiations between two or more parties

3) It is recommended that that the contract be
signed and to seek legal counsel when drafting contract

4) Typically covered under civil law
5) A contract is formed when the parties have mutually agreed on terms.

CONTRACTS INCLUDE

  1. Rental agreements
  2. Non-compete clauses- is a term used in contract law under which one party (usually an employee) agrees not to enter into or start a similar profession or trade in competition against another party (usually the employer)
  3. Sale of property
  4. Loan agreements
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69
Q

Contract is defined as a written or spoken _____ and is intended to be enforceable by ____

A

Defined as a written or spoken agreement and is intended to be enforceable by law

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70
Q

Contract begins with ______ between two or more parties

A

Begins with negotiations between two or more parties

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71
Q

It is recommended that that the contract be

____ and to seek ____ counsel when drafting contract

A

It is recommended that that the contract be

signed and to seek legal counsel when drafting contract

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72
Q

Under what law is a contract typically covered?

A

Typically covered under civil law

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73
Q

A contract is formed when the parties have _____________

A

A contract is formed when the parties have mutually agreed on terms.

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74
Q

Integrated agreement clause-

What is it?

A

states that the writing in the contract is the final representation of all agreed terms.

If the parties on the contract agreed on terms that are not included in the writing, courts generally will not interpret what is not written

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75
Q

At-will employee

What is it?

A

this term or clause gives the employer the right to dismiss an employee with or without reason at any time without advanced notice.

Important to know if the contract has such a clause

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76
Q

Restrictive covenants or non-compete clause

What is it?

A

a clause prohibiting professional employees from working within a certain geographical area for a specified time period

  • -May or may not be enforceable based on if the time and area limitations are reasonable
  • -If they are not, courts often enforce the clause to protect the employers business interest and will alter the limitations to reasonable time and area
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77
Q

Indemnification (hold-harmless) clause

What is it?

A

party offering a contract is attempting to have the other party agree to assume liability

Should be viewed as a red flag and definitely should be reviewed by legal counsel

  • –The clause could be overly broad by asking the other party to assume unreasonable liability
  • –Liability insurance will not cover incidents that are assumed under contract, because the insurance carrier is not a party to the contract
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78
Q

Professional liability insurance

What is it?

A

is considered a contract and should be viewed as such

**Important to review policy and to make sure that coverage is adequate even after carefully reading the policy

  • –Profession liability policies may not cover general health and wellness, fitness related services, management or consulting roles
  • –May not also cover services when used as an expert witness
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79
Q

What does the contract need to say in In consultant agreements?

A

—> The contract should clearly describe the services to be rendered

—> Ownership of any intellectual property that arises out of the project

—> Responsibilities of each party to the contract

E.g.. specifying who provides space and equipment

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80
Q

What clause

states that the writing in the contract is the final representation of all agreed terms

A

Integrated agreement clause-

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81
Q

What clause

gives the employer the right to dismiss an employee with or without reason at any time without advanced notice.

A

At-will employee

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82
Q

What clause

prohibits professional employees from working within a certain geographical area for a specified time period

A

Restrictive covenants or non-compete clause

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83
Q

What clause

party offering a contract is attempting to have the other party agree to assume liability

A

Indemnification (hold-harmless) clause

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84
Q

What is Independent Contractor Physical Therapist ?

A

A licensed PT/PTA who contracts to do work for another person according to his or her own processes and methods

The contractor is not subject to another’s control except for what is specified in a mutually binding agreement for a specific job.

An independent contractor contracts with an employer to do a particular piece of work. This working relationship is a flexible one that provides benefits to both the worker and the employer.

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85
Q

If you are contracted as a consulted, can you treat the patient?

A

It is important that the healthcare provider avoid any temptation to provide clinical treatment

If treatment is anticipated at any time, it should be stipulated in the contract.

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86
Q

What is Independent Contractor Physical Therapist ?

A

PT/PTA who contracts to do work for someone according to their processes and methods

PT can leave if doesnt like it (except for what is specified in a mutually binding agreement for a specific job)

Job is specific of what contracted for

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87
Q

Consultant PT

what you hire them for

A

Consultants paid to share expertise + knowledge to help businesses reach goals / solve problems.

Businesses hire them to supplement their staff and save the $ of hiring a full-time employee.

They view the situation from a fresh perspective.

B/c consultant isn’t part of the culture, co-worker scrutiny or morale, consultants can act as the catalyst for change.

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88
Q

Consultant PT

A

$ to share expertise + knowledge to reach goals / solve problems. View the situation from a fresh perspective. Can be bold-no consequences for them.

–> teach employees: new software, other skill to increases productivity/revenue

–>advice, recommendations and problem solving.

Before, during, start-up of a new business /re-energize a flailing business. When needs reorganization/ termination of individual employees or entire departments.

**A client will retain a consultant’s services until the goal or obligations of the particular endeavor have been met.

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89
Q

Do the roles of a contract or consultant therapist differ in a facility vs. private practice?

A

CONTRACT THERAPISR
1. May be treated as a per-diem (per day) employee paid hourly vs. salaried

  1. Required to meet daily productivity standards of salaried employees
  2. Typically are not entitled to same benefits as salaried employee (i.e. continuing education, mandated breaks, etc.)
  3. May or may not be viewed as integrated member of team
  4. May be difficult to maintain or encourage staff moral and interest

CONSULTANT THERAPISTT
1. Typically has extensive experience working with a particular patient population or populations

  1. Is hired on a per-diem or hourly basis to assist existing staff on a project or to improve clinical skills
  2. May be referred to as “master clinician” or “advance clinician”
  3. Usually viewed as a resource for evaluation and treatment ideas for complicated patient populations
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90
Q

Do the roles of a contract or consultant therapist differ in a facility vs. private practice?

A

CONTRACT THERAPIST

  1. per-diem (per day) employee paid hourly
  2. Must meet daily productivity standards
  3. Not entitled same benefits as salaried
  4. Not usually integrated member of team
  5. hard to get staff moral and interest

CONSULTANT THERAPIST

  1. extensive experience with a population
  2. hired hourly to assist staff w/ project / skills
  3. “master clinician” or “advance clinician”
  4. resource for eval and tx ideas for complicated patient populations
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91
Q

Independent Contractor (4)

A

–> A licensed physical therapist or physical therapist assistant who contracts
to do work for another person according to his or her own processes and
methods

–> The contractor is not subject to another’s control except for what is
specified in a mutually binding agreement for a specific job.

–> An independent contractor contracts with an employer to do a particular
piece of work. This working relationship is a flexible one that provides
benefits to both the worker and the employer.

–> Businesses often hire contractors to supplement their staff and save the
costs of hiring a full-time employee.

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92
Q

Consultant PT (9)

A

1) Consultants are paid to share their expertise and knowledge to help
businesses attain goals and solve problems.

2) Consultants are paid to share their expertise and knowledge to help
businesses attain goals and solve problems.

3) As a person new to the company or organization, consultants view the
situation from a fresh perspective.

4) Because a consultant isn’t beholden to any particular corporate culture,
co-worker scrutiny or morale, consultants can act as the catalyst for
change.

5) Consultants may sometimes be asked to teach a business’ employees
how to manipulate a new software program or some other skill that
increases productivity or generates more revenue.

6) They’re also expected to provide advice, make recommendations and
excel at problem solving.

7) Consultants are often used prior to, and during, the start-up of a new
business or to re-energize a flailing business.

8) Consultants are also brought in when a business needs reorganization,
including the termination of individual employees or entire departments.

9) A client will retain a consultant’s services until the goal or obligations of
the particular endeavor have been met.

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93
Q

Be familiar with the roles that external oversight provides for an organization (3)

A

Oversight by parties external to an organization can:

1) Prevent waste and fraud (intentional misrepresentation)
2) Protect civil liberties and individual rights
3) Accumulate information to ensure compliance with laws and evaluate performance

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94
Q

4 categories of oversight entities

A

1) Government agencies
2) Nongovernment organizations operating under government contracts
3) Private organizations acting under agreement with health service providers
4) Private organizations acting independently of the government or the health service provider

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95
Q

Government oversight occurs at the federal, state, and local level as mandated by laws.

What are government entities are responsible to? (2)

A

Develop specific regulations to ensure the enforcement of the law

Ensure compliance with the regulations either directly or in collaboration with other government entities

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96
Q

Who does government oversight look at? (7)

A
  1. Business and financial management practices
  2. Facility design, construction, and operation
  3. Organization structure
  4. Patient accounts management
  5. Personnel practices
  6. Service delivery, documentation, and evaluation
  7. Cooperation with the regulatory review process is mandatory.

*** Failure to participate and/or cooperate could result in cancellation of a provider’s participation agreement with government-funded health programs or loss of license to operate (state government).

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97
Q

Centers for Medicare and Medicaid Services (CMS)

What do they oversee? (5)

A
  1. Assures programs properly RUN by contractors + state agencies
  2. Establishes PAYMENT policies
  3. Does RESEARCH on methods of health care management, treatment, and financing
  4. Assesses QUALITY of health care facilities and services
  5. Enforces its REGULATIONS
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98
Q

Agency for Healthcare Research and Quality (AHRQ)

what it does (5)

A

HHS division supporting research designed to:
(department of health and services, CMS is under it)

  1. Improve health care QUALITY
  2. Reduce COST
  3. Improve patient SAFETY
  4. Reduce MEDICAL ERRORS
  5. Improve ACCESS to essential services
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99
Q

National Institutes of Health (NIH)

A
  1. Funds and oversees research projects
  2. Advance the nation’s capacity to protect and improve health

Efficiently expand knowledge base to enhance the nation’s economic well-being

Promote highest level of scientific integrity, public accountability, and social responsibility in science

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100
Q

Department of Health and Human Services (HHS):

A

is the principal federal agency for the enforcement of laws related to protecting the health and providing essential human services

There are 11 divisions of HHS

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101
Q

Medicare Payment Advisory Commission (MedPac)

A

MedPac is an indp federal body: advises U.S. Congress on issues affecting Medicare–>

  1. long term survival of Medicare
  2. health care needs met for Medicare beneficiaries.

Relevance to physical therapists includes:

  1. Durable medical equipment payment system
  2. outpatient therapy services payment system

YEARLY CAP for outpatient:
=The Middle Class Tax Relief and Job Creation Act of 2012
PT + SLP: $1940
OT: $1940

Multiple Procedure Payment Reduction (MPPR) if >1 billing unit: 1st billed normally, 2nd unit billed at a % less (i.e.. 50%)

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102
Q

Occupational Safety and Health Administration (OSHA)

4

A

This agency is responsible for assuring the safety and health of America’s workers by:

  1. Setting and enforcing standards
  2. Providing training, outreach, and education
  3. Establishing partnerships
  4. Encouraging continual improvement in workplace safety and health
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103
Q

Medicare Payment Advisory Commission (MedPac)

most important aspect in PT

A

Establish yearly cap for outpatient services =The Middle Class Tax Relief and Job Creation Act of 2012

PT + SLP = $1940
OT = $1940

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104
Q

is the principal federal agency for the enforcement of laws related to protecting the health and providing essential human services

There are 11 divisions of HHS

A

Department of Health and Human Services (HHS):

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105
Q
  1. Assures programs properly RUN by contractors + state agencies
  2. Establishes PAYMENT policies
  3. Does RESEARCH on methods of health care management, treatment, and financing
  4. Assesses QUALITY of health care facilities and services
  5. Enforces its REGULATIONS
A

Centers for Medicare and Medicaid Services (CMS)

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106
Q

HHS division supporting research designed to:
(department of health and services, CMS is under it)

  1. Improve health care QUALITY
  2. Reduce COST
  3. Improve patient SAFETY
  4. Reduce MEDICAL ERRORS
  5. Improve ACCESS to essential services
A

Agency for Healthcare Research and Quality (AHRQ)

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107
Q
  1. Funds and oversees research projects
  2. Advance the nation’s capacity to protect and improve health

Efficiently expand knowledge base to enhance the nation’s economic well-being

Promote highest level of scientific integrity, public accountability, and social responsibility in science

A

National Institutes of Health (NIH)

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108
Q

independent federal body: advises U.S. Congress on issues affecting Medicare–>

  1. long term survival of Medicare
  2. health care needs met for Medicare beneficiaries.
A

Medicare Payment Advisory Commission (MedPac)

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109
Q

Relevance to physical therapists includes:

  1. Durable medical equipment payment system
  2. outpatient therapy services payment system
A

Medicare Payment Advisory Commission (MedPac)

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110
Q

YEARLY CAP for outpatient:
=The Middle Class Tax Relief and Job Creation Act of 2012
PT + SLP: $1940
OT: $1940

A

Medicare Payment Advisory Commission (MedPac)

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111
Q

Multiple Procedure Payment Reduction (MPPR) if >1 billing unit: 1st billed normally, 2nd unit billed at a % less (i.e.. 50%)

A

Medicare Payment Advisory Commission (MedPac)

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112
Q

This agency is responsible for assuring the safety and health of America’s workers by:

  1. Setting and enforcing standards
  2. Providing training, outreach, and education
  3. Establishing partnerships
  4. Encouraging continual improvement in workplace safety and health
A

Occupational Safety and Health Administration (OSHA)

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113
Q

Be able to define accreditation and the characteristics of the process

A

Rigorous and comprehensive evaluation process to assess how well a health care organization manages all parts of its care delivery system

Accreditation is based on an external group’s consensus quality standards

Example accreditation groups:

  • -CARF
  • -Joint Commission
  • -National Commission on Quality Assurance (NCQA)
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114
Q

What is accreditation based on? (2)

A

Accreditation is based on an external group’s consensus quality standards

[Rigorous and comprehensive evaluation process to assess how well a health care organization manages all parts of its care delivery system]

Example accreditation groups:
–CARF, Joint Commission , National Commission on Quality Assurance (NCQA)

Concept of “Continuous Readiness”
Oversight often takes the form of onsite surveys, documentation, and financial audits.
Federal, state, and local government agencies or their representatives perform regulatory compliance reviews.
Surveys and audits may be a condition of continued licensure, operation, and/or reimbursement as an approved health care provider.

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115
Q

Private Watchdog Groups and Performance Ranking Services

A

Private watchdog groups commonly act independently of the government or health service providers

Examples:
Enloe Watch
HealthGrades

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116
Q

Example Professional Organizations That Set Standards

A

APTA

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117
Q

Concept of “Continuous Readiness”

A

Oversight often takes the form of onsite surveys, documentation, and financial audits.

–> Federal, state, and local government agencies or their representatives perform regulatory compliance reviews.

–> Surveys and audits may be a condition of continued licensure, operation, and/or reimbursement as an approved health care provider.

Successful reviews lie in the continuous management efforts to recognize and meet oversight requirements.

Satisfactory ratings on survey and audit information may be a condition of reimbursement or continued licensure to operate.

Assistance in meeting oversight requirements can be obtained from various professional organizations, oversight organizations, and professional consulting practices.

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118
Q

Be able to define accounting

A

Accounting is a process of identifying, recording, summarizing, and reporting in monetary terms, information about an organization during a specific period of time.

*** There are rules/conventions for systematically keeping records of financial activity

**Reporting requirements established by the Financial Accounting Standards Board (FASB) are called the Generally Accepted Accounting Principles (GAAP)

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119
Q

Accounting is a process of _____, ____, ____, and ____ in ___ terms, information about an organization during a specific period of time.

A

Accounting is a process of identifying, recording, summarizing, and reporting in monetary terms, information about an organization during a specific period of time.

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120
Q

Accounting is a process of identifying, recording, summarizing, and reporting in ______, information about an organization during a ________.

A

Accounting is a process of identifying, recording, summarizing, and reporting in monetary terms, information about an organization during a specific period of time.

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121
Q

What did the Financial Accounting Standards Board (FASB) do?

A

Created the Generally Accepted Accounting Principles (GAAP) which are rules/conventions for systematically keeping records of financial activity

Accounting is a process of identifying, recording, summarizing, and reporting in monetary terms, information about an organization during a specific period of time.

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122
Q

Created the Generally Accepted Accounting Principles (GAAP)

A

Financial Accounting Standards Board (FASB) created the Generally Accepted Accounting Principles (GAAP) which are rules/conventions for systematically keeping records of financial activity

These principles include:

  1. IDENTIFICATION OF THE ENTITY
    - ->The business unit
    - ->The person or business the financial information is being prepared for
  2. MATCHING PRINCIPLE: Business must record the expenses that are associated with the revenues generated for a given period
    - -> Matching is the only way an organization can determine the extent of how a specific service and/or product is contributing to the organization’s financial performance
  3. IDENTIFICATION OF THE COST OF ANY QUANTIFIABLE RESOURCE:
    - ->This is what the organization paid for that resource (historical or acquisition cost)
    - ->Original cost may significantly underestimate the current value of a resource (replacement cost or market value)
  4. AVAILABILITY OF OBJECT EVIDENCE:
    The information in the financial reports is based on objective and verifiable evidence like receipts
  5. ACCEPTANCE OF MATERIALITY:
    Recognition that financial reports may have small or insignificant errors but not so great as to materially change a reviewer’s decision about the organization’s financial position
  6. TRUST IN FULL DISCLOSURE:
    In reference to the financial position and results of operations of a business in accordance with GAAP
  7. APPLICATION OF CONSISTENCY:
    Consistency in the accounting methods used in the business from year to year
    Essential for comparisons
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123
Q

IDENTIFICATION OF THE ENTITY

Created the Generally Accepted Accounting Principles (GAAP)

A
  • ->The business unit
  • ->The person or business the financial information is being prepared for

*WHAT IS YOUR PURPOSE

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124
Q

MATCHING PRINCIPLE:

Created the Generally Accepted Accounting Principles (GAAP)

A

Business must record the EXPENSES that are associated with the revenues generated for a given period

–> Matching is the only way an organization can determine the extent of how a SPECIFIC SERVICE +/OR PRODUCTS is contributing to the organization’s financial performance

==> SHOWS IF IT IS VALUABLE

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125
Q

IDENTIFICATION OF THE COST OF ANY QUANTIFIABLE RESOURCE:

Created the Generally Accepted Accounting Principles (GAAP)

A

–>This is what the organization paid for that resource (historical or acquisition cost)

–>Original cost may significantly underestimate the current value of a resource (replacement cost or market value)

RECOGNIZE COST WILL CHANGE

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126
Q

AVAILABILITY OF OBJECT EVIDENCE:

Created the Generally Accepted Accounting Principles (GAAP)

A

The information in the financial reports is based on objective and verifiable evidence like receipts

HAVE INVOICES ON HAND

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127
Q

ACCEPTANCE OF MATERIALITY:

Created the Generally Accepted Accounting Principles (GAAP)

A

Recognition that financial reports may have small or insignificant errors but not so great as to materially change a reviewer’s decision about the organization’s financial position

ERROR IS OK AS LONG AS NOT A SIGNIFICANT EFFECT ON YOUR BOTTOM LINE

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128
Q

TRUST IN FULL DISCLOSURE:

Created the Generally Accepted Accounting Principles (GAAP)

A

In reference to the financial position and results of operations of a business in accordance with GAAP

INFO YOU ARE GIVING SHOULD BE VALID

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129
Q

APPLICATION OF CONSISTENCY:

Created the Generally Accepted Accounting Principles (GAAP)

A

Consistency in the accounting methods used in the business from year to year
Essential for comparisons

IF I COMPARE # TODAY SHOULD BE ABLE TO BE COMPARED TO NUMBERS IN FUTURE–SHOWS GROWTH/LOSS BC CONSISTENT ACCOUNTING METHOD FROM YEAR TO YEAR

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130
Q

Be able to define:

chart of accounts, ledger, assets, liabilities, expense, revenues, profit, loss, budget

A

ACCOUNT = simply a listing of all of an organization’s accounts by title and corresponding numerical code to classify and differentiate between accounts.

CHART OF ACCOUNTS = is the foundation for accounting information systems within an organization
–> Serves as the nucleus for the development of standard financial statements

LEDGER: A book of accounts.
Double entry = when a financial event (a transaction) occurs, it is recorded (posted) in a ledger in two places:

ASSETS: Assets are economic resources that are owned by a business and are expected to benefit future operations, such as:

  1. Inventories
  2. Accounts receivables
  3. Capital assets
  4. Cash
  5. Investments

LIABILITIES: debts: Total liabilities make up the amount of the organization’s assets owned by its creditors, e.g.,

  • -> Accounts payable (credit purchase of plinth)
  • -> Accrued expenses (salaries payable)
  • -> Notes payable (borrowing $50,000 from bank)

EXPENSE: money spent to produce or purchase a service or product that is sold

REVENUE: is gross income
Gross = before anything is taken out or paid
When expenses > revenues, the difference is classified as a loss.
When revenues > expenses, the excess is classified as a profit.

BUDGET:  budget is a financial statement that estimates income and expenditures for a specified future time period.
There are several types of budgets:
Operating budget (1 year)
Strategic budget (3-5 years)
Cash budget
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131
Q

ACCOUNT =

A

simply a listing of all of an organization’s accounts by title and corresponding numerical code to classify and differentiate between accounts.

132
Q

CHART OF ACCOUNTS =

A

is the foundation for accounting information systems within an organization

–> Serves as the nucleus for the development of standard financial statements

133
Q

LEDGER

A

: A book of accounts.

Double entry = when a financial event (a transaction) occurs, it is recorded (posted) in a ledger in two places

134
Q

ASSETS

A

Assets are economic resources that are owned by a business and are expected to benefit future operations,

such as:

  1. Inventories
  2. Accounts receivables
  3. Capital assets
  4. Cash
  5. Investments
135
Q

LIABILITIES

A

: debts: WHAT YOU HAVE TO PAY BACK

Total liabilities make up the amount of the organization’s assets owned by its creditors, e.g.,

  • -> Accounts payable (credit purchase of plinth)
  • -> Accrued expenses (salaries payable)
  • -> Notes payable (borrowing $50,000 from bank)
136
Q

EXPENSE:

A

money spent to produce or purchase a service or product that is sold

137
Q

REVENUE

A

: is gross income

Gross = before anything is taken out or paid

When expenses > revenues, the difference is classified as a loss.
When revenues > expenses, the excess is classified as a profit.

138
Q

BUDGET

A

budget is a financial statement that estimates income and expenditures for a specified future time period.

There are several types of budgets:
Operating budget (1 year)
Strategic budget (3-5 years)
Cash budget
139
Q

When expenses > revenues,

A

the difference is classified as a loss.

140
Q

When revenues > expenses

A

the excess is classified as a profit.

141
Q

What is classified as loss?

A

When expenses > revenues,

142
Q

What is classified as a profit?

A

When revenues > expenses

143
Q

simply a listing of all of an organization’s accounts by title and corresponding numerical code to classify and differentiate between accounts.

A

ACCOUNT =

144
Q

is the foundation for accounting information systems within an organization
–> Serves as the nucleus for the development of standard financial statements

A

CHART OF ACCOUNTS =

145
Q

A book of accounts.

Double entry = when a financial event (a transaction) occurs, it is recorded (posted) in a ledger in two places:

A

LEDGER:

146
Q

economic resources that are owned by a business and are expected to benefit future operations, such as:

  1. Inventories
  2. Accounts receivables
  3. Capital assets
  4. Cash
  5. Investments
A

ASSETS:

147
Q

debts: Total liabilities make up the amount of the organization’s assets owned by its creditors, e.g.,
- -> Accounts payable (credit purchase of plinth)
- -> Accrued expenses (salaries payable)
- -> Notes payable (borrowing $50,000 from bank)

A

LIABILITIES:

148
Q

money spent to produce or purchase a service or product that is sold

A

EXPENSE:

149
Q

is gross income
Gross = before anything is taken out or paid
When expenses > revenues, the difference is classified as a loss.
When revenues > expenses, the excess is classified as a profit.

A

REVENUE:

150
Q
BUDGET:  budget is a financial statement that estimates income and expenditures for a specified future time period.
There are several types of budgets:
Operating budget (1 year)
Strategic budget (3-5 years)
Cash budget
A
BUDGET:  budget is a financial statement that estimates income and expenditures for a specified future time period.
There are several types of budgets:
Operating budget (1 year)
Strategic budget (3-5 years)
Cash budget
151
Q

3 types of budget

A

Operating budget (1 year)

Strategic budget (3-5 years)

Cash budget

152
Q

Operating budget

A

1 year

153
Q

Strategic budget

A

3-5 years

154
Q

How do you balance a ledger?

A

A payment received from a third-party payer is reflected as:

An increase in the entity’s CASH ACCOUNT

A decrease in ACCOUNTS RECEIVABLE (what is owed the business)

Basically, in double entry, the accountant credits (subtracts) the transaction to one account and debits (adds) it to another

155
Q

Know the difference between accrual accounting, fund accounting, cash accounting

A

ACCRUAL ACCOUNTING : recording financial transactions within an appropriate period of time.

FIND ACCOUNTING

CASH ACCOUNTING

156
Q

Accrual Accounting

what is it

Benefit

Disadvantages

A

recording financial transactions when it happens
–> not necessarily collected [timing difference]

  1. Benefit of Accrual Accounting: TELLS YOU HOW WELL YOU ARE PERFORMING.
  • ->recognize revenue + expenses as they happen and not wait for $ transaction,
  • performance management
  • accuracy
  • planning the future

Disadvantage of Accrual Accounting

    • more time reviewing transactions / additional labor costs.
    • need to analyze each account monthly
157
Q

Benefits of Accrual Accounting

A

PERFORMANCE MANAGEMENT -immediate reflection of $ coming in, and what expect to see on future expense reports. (good for projections)

ACCURACY-more specific: what you should be getting: manage the ebb and flow of financial activity. Income and debts can be more accurately assessed with accrual accounting.

PLANNING THE FUTURE-in realtime: do not have to wait for $ to be received to see what profits are, can strategize to improve sales / revenue as they spot $ plateaus. Allow to be progressive, which is crucial to viability.

158
Q

Disadvantages of Accrual Accounting

A

MORE TIME CONSUMING: Accrual accounting requires the company to spend more time reviewing transactions and incur additional labor costs.

MORE ANALYSIS: Companies who use accrual accounting need to analyze each account monthly. These companies need to determine if activities need to be recorded because they occurred even though no financial exchange took place

159
Q

Cash Accounting

A

revenue recorded when cash received , expenses recorded when bills paid

(small practices do this)

BENEFITS:
ess analysis-pay when money exchanged

DISADVANTAGES
hard to project/strategize

160
Q

Cash Accounting

Advantages

A

The accounts require less analysis since each financial transaction is evidenced by the exchange of cash.

Activities do not appear in the financial records unless the company receives payment.

161
Q

Cash Accounting

Disadvantages

A

Difficult to determine the costs of individual products and services

Ie. For example, to analyze the amount of money customers owe specifically for a therapeutic intervention, the business owner needs to review individual invoices rather than a financial accounts

162
Q

Accounting where record financial transactions when it happens–> not necessarily collected [timing difference]

A

accrual accounting

163
Q

Accounting when record revenue recorded when cash received , expenses recorded when bills paid

A

cash accounting

164
Q

Fund Accounting

A

form of financial oversight often found in not-for-profit hospitals and health care organizations.

  1. A specified category or fund is set up when funds are provided for a specific purpose, e.g., a donation to support rehabilitation
  2. Separation prevents the co-mingling of restricted funds with general funds
    - -> Each fund is considered an independent entity with its own set of accounts
165
Q

Four Fundamental Financial Statements

A

Financial statements are reports that present several kinds of summative information about an organization’s revenues and expenses in standard formats.

The core statements are:

  1. Balance sheet
  2. Income statement
  3. Cash flow statement
  4. Retained earnings statement

Each statement is interrelated, together = show financial health, stability, and growth potential of an organization

Statements can also be used to compare past to current performance, Reveals current trends, Suggests what future performance may be like

Financial statements are typically prepared to represent the financial activity for a specific period of time. (ie fiscal year is 12 month)

166
Q

Balance sheet

Four Fundamental Financial Statements

A

a statement of an organization’s financial condition.

It lists:
Assets
Liabilities
Owner’s equity

***Always, Total assets = Total Liabilities + Owner’s Equity (the balance sheet equation)

167
Q

Income statement

Four Fundamental Financial Statements

A

Report on an organization’s $ performance over specific time period.

$ earned (revenues) compared to to $ spent (expenses)
DID YOU MAKE A PROFIT

REVENUE - EXPENSE = PROFIT

The difference between revenues and expenses is the net income or loss from operations

168
Q

Cash flow statement

Four Fundamental Financial Statements

A

This financial statement shows how an organization’s cash position changes over time.

It reports on the cash that flows through the business from:

  1. Core operations
  2. Financing
  3. Investing

It reports on the ACTUAL cash, not future incoming or outgoing cash on account

It states the availability of cash to cover short-term liabilities
Cash flow statements can be prepared for past, present, and future time periods (a pro-forma statement)

169
Q

Retained earnings statement

Four Fundamental Financial Statements

A

A retained earnings statement provides additional details on how owner’s equity changed and information on how profits are used in a business.

Profits are distributed to the owners or reinvested into the business

Also called an owner’s equity statement

170
Q

what does the balance budget sheet list? (3)

A
  1. Assets
  2. Liabilities
  3. Owner’s equity

Total assets = Total Liabilities + Owner’s Equity

[a statement of an organization’s financial condition]

171
Q

On the balance budget sheet:

_____ + _____ = Total Assets

A

Total assets = Total Liabilities + Owner’s Equity

[a statement of an organization’s financial condition]

172
Q

On the balance budget sheet

Total Liabilities + Owner’s Equity =

A

Total assets = Total Liabilities + Owner’s Equity

[a statement of an organization’s financial condition]

173
Q

Which statement looks at

REVENUE - EXPENSE = PROFIT

A

Income statement

Report on an organization’s $ performance over specific time period. The difference between revenues and expenses is the net income or loss from operations
(Four Fundamental Financial Statements)

174
Q

Which statement shows how an organization’s cash position changes over time?

A

Cash flow statement

Four Fundamental Financial Statements

175
Q

Which statement reports on the cash that flows through the business from:

  1. Core operations
  2. Financing
  3. Investing
A

Cash flow statement

Four Fundamental Financial Statements

176
Q

Which statement reports on the ACTUAL cash, not future incoming or outgoing cash on account ?

A

Cash flow statement

Four Fundamental Financial Statements

177
Q

Which statement states the availability of cash to cover short-term liabilities?

A

Cash flow statement

Four Fundamental Financial Statements

178
Q

Which time periods can cash flow statements can be prepared for?

A

Cash flow statements can be prepared for past, present, and future time periods (a pro-forma statement)

179
Q

Which statement is a report on an organization’s financial performance over a specific period of time?

A

Income statement

180
Q

Which statement compares monies earned (revenues) to monies spent (expenses)?

A

Income statement

181
Q

What is the net income or loss from operations ?

Which statement is it one?

A

The difference between revenues and expenses is the net income or loss from operations

Income statement

182
Q

Profit and loss statements =

Statements of operations =

A

Income statement

183
Q

another name for owner’s equity statement

A

retained earnings statement

provides additional details on how owner’s equity changed and information on how profits are used in a business.

184
Q

Statement that looks at the equity

A

Retained earnings statement

(In accounting and finance, equity is the difference between the value of the assets/interest and the cost of the liabilities of something owned. For example, if someone owns a car worth $15,000 but owes $5,000 on that car, the car represents $10,000 equity.)

185
Q

Retained earnings statement

A

provides additional details on how owner’s equity

changed and information on how profits are used in a business.

  • Profits are distributed to the owners or reinvested into the business
  • Also called an owner’s equity statement
186
Q

What is variance analysis?

A

Analyze PROJECTED versus ACTUAL performance

Identifying the variances in what was BUDGETED versus what has ACTUALLY HAPPENED is an important aspect in financial management.

  • ->Variances are red flags; they should be looked at more closely for their causes
  • —> Variances can exceed what was budgeted
  • —> Variances can be below what was budgeted
187
Q

What looks at projected vs actual performance?

A

variance analysis

188
Q

What do we not want to see in the variance analysis?

A

big swings, want consistency

189
Q

Be able to define productivity and general characteristics of productivity

A

Productivity refers to the amount of a resource consumed in the production of an output.

Productivity standards are performance targets 
Standards should be:
-Based on a measurable unit of output
-Objectively measured
-Readily available
-Understandable
-Achievable
190
Q

What is used to measure productivity in PT?

A

Managers are responsible for setting productivity standards and should be based on internal data and external benchmarks or standards (when available)

Productivity standards are generally based on financial activity or billable time

Revenue is often generated in a clinic based on the number of minutes services were provided, (i.e., a 15-minute unit of service (UOS).

In an 7.5- hour workday in some environments, 6 hours are billable.

191
Q

Productivity, which is based on the billable hours available in a workday, is also affected by what? (6)

A

Productivity, which is based on the billable hours available in a workday, is also affected by:

  1. Patient cancellation rates
  2. Utilization of appropriate personnel and resources
  3. Physical plant design and layout
  4. Documentation requirements
  5. Supervisory requirements of paraprofessionals
  6. Use of technology
192
Q

Who is more productive PT or PTA?

A

PTA costs less

193
Q

Be able to define productivity and general characteristics of productivity

A

Productivity refers to the amount of a resource consumed in the production of
an output.

Productivity standards are performance targets

Standards should be:

  • –> Based on a measurable unit of output
  • –> Objectively measured
  • –> Readily available
  • –> Understandable
  • –> Achievable

Productivity, which is based on the billable hours available in a workday, is also
affected by:
—> Patient cancellation rates
—> Utilization of appropriate personnel and resources
—> Physical plant design and layout
—> Documentation requirements
—> Supervisory requirements of paraprofessionals
—> Use of technology

194
Q

Productivity standards should be: (5)

A
1---> Based on a measurable unit of output
2---> Objectively measured
3--->  Readily available
4---> Understandable
5---> Achievable
195
Q

Productivity, which is based on the billable hours available in a workday, is also
affected by: (6)

A

1—> Patient cancellation rates
2—> Utilization of appropriate personnel and resources
3—> Physical plant design and layout
4—> Documentation requirements
5—> Supervisory requirements of paraprofessionals
6—> Use of technology

196
Q

Know the goal of revenue management

A

(management of accounts receivable)
The goal of revenue management is to MAXIMIZE INCOME FROM OPERATIONS AND INVESTMENTS

Revenue management involves a number or activities:
1. Setting prices (fees)

  1. Identifying the payer(s) for service/product
  2. Policies/procedures that address the service,
    record the delivery, collect reimbursement
  3. Estimate expected payment
  4. Follow procedures for payment receipt,
    account reconciliation, and cash management
  5. Financial reporting
197
Q

Revenue management involves a number or activities: (6)

A
  1. Setting prices (fees)
  2. Identifying the payer(s) for each service or product
  3. Policies and procedures that address the provision of the service, recording the delivery of the service, and collecting reimbursement
  4. Estimating expected payment
  5. Following procedures for payment receipt, account reconciliation, and cash management
  6. Financial reporting
198
Q

The goal of ______ is to MAXIMIZE INCOME FROM OPERATIONS AND INVESTMENTS

A

revenue management

199
Q

Usual and Customary Rate (UCR)

A

Commercial (private) health care insurance plans typically use standardized payment schedules.

Schedules determine the amount that will be paid for a specific health care service

200
Q

Be familiar with strategies to collections in physical therapy practice

A

To enhance collections, there should be:

  1. Clear understanding by both the patient and provider on how payment
    will be made prior to the delivery of services
  2. Appropriate understanding of the benefits and limits of an individual’s
    health care insurance prior to the delivery of services
  3. Clear communication with both the patient and the third-party payer on the benefits and limitations of physical therapy interventions
  4. Clear and appropriate documentation of services rendered and the
    patient’s response to the intervention
  5. Timely submission of invoices
  6. Timely provision of documentation needs of the third-party payer or
    medical claims reviewer
  7. Adherence to an established plan of care
  8. Be able to describe and identify a physical therapy fee sched
201
Q

Collections in PT

A

Most often, health care services are provided on credit (service before payment
–An aspect of accrual accounting

Credit purchasing requires BILLING the customer or payer and by SENDING AN INVOICE for the money owed.

Practices that provide services on account should have clear policy and procedures regarding the extension of credit

“Pro-bono” services – patients receiving services provided at a discounted rate or provided at a self pay rate should be clear on billing procedures prior to the delivery of services

202
Q

To enhance collections, there should be: (7)

A
  1. Clear understanding by both the patient and provider on how payment will be made prior to the delivery of services
  2. Appropriate understanding of the benefits and limits of an individual’s health care insurance prior to the delivery of services
  3. Clear communication with both the patient and the third-party payer on the benefits and limitations of physical therapy interventions
  4. Clear and appropriate documentation of
    services rendered and the patient’s response to the intervention
  5. Timely submission of invoices
  6. Timely provision of documentation needs of the third-party payer or medical claims reviewer
  7. Adherence to an established plan of care
203
Q

Be able to describe and identify a physical therapy fee schedule

A

a. The fee schedule for a organization is a listing of the services that are provided
and the charge for each of those services (like a menu).

b. Organizations set their own fee schedule. Fees can be based:
- -> On an amount of time
- -> On the type of service
- -> On a per-session or per-visit basis
- -> On a per-day basis (per diem)
- -> On a set number of sessions
- -> On minutes

c. Typically, each item on a fee schedule is defined by its:
- -> Numeric charge code
- -> Description
- -> Unit of measure
- -> Price

204
Q
  1. Be able to define the following: CPT, ICD-10 and HCPCS codes
A
  • *Current Procedural Terminology (CPT) codes are commonly used for sevice.
  • ->CPT codes have five digits
  • ->Physical therapists generally use 97000 codes (Physical Medicine and Rehabilitation section codes)

**“Healthcare Common Procedure Coding System (HCPCS) “hick picks codes.” for Medicare and Medicaid claim::
:::There are two levels of HCPCS
–>Level I :: CPT codes to identify medical services and procedures used by PT

–>Level II :: identify products, supplies, and services not included in the CPT codes (Transportation, Medical & Surgical
Supplies, Orthotic/Prosthetic Procedures, etc.)

**The International Classification of Diseases, Tenth Revision (ICD-10) has
diagnostic codes.
—When billing by CPT code, the ICD-10 diagnostic code(s) are also required
when billing Medicare/Medicaid and most third-party insurers

205
Q

Be able to define expense management

A

controlling operating and capital expenses

  • -> The goal of expense management is maximizing net income.
  • -> This is done by controlling operating and capital expenses.

–> Operating expenses are associated with the cost of resources used in the
production of a good or service within a specific time period.

–> Capital expenses are associated with the purchase of equipment, facilities
and other high priced items that contribute to the delivery of services
over an extended period of time.

206
Q

Under the current US healthcare reimbursement system, the majority of healthcare payments for physical therapy services come from _________ and _________

A

Under the current US healthcare reimbursement system, the majority of healthcare payments for physical therapy services come from private health insurance and
government health insurance plans

207
Q

Commercial (private) health care insurance plans typically pay how?

A

Usual and Customary Rate (UCR) =Schedules determine the amount that will be paid for a specific health care service

Commercial (private) health care insurance plans typically use standardized payment schedules.

208
Q

**The International Classification of Diseases, Tenth Revision (ICD-10)

A

**The International Classification of Diseases, Tenth Revision (ICD-10) has
diagnostic codes.
—When billing by CPT code, the ICD-10 diagnostic code(s) are also required
when billing Medicare/Medicaid and most third-party insurers

209
Q

“hick picks codes.”

A

**“Healthcare Common Procedure Coding System (HCPCS) for Medicare and Medicaid claim::
:::There are two levels of HCPCS

–>Level I :: CPT codes to identify medical services and procedures used by PT

–>Level II :: identify products, supplies, and services not included in the CPT codes (Transportation, Medical & Surgical
Supplies, Orthotic/Prosthetic Procedures, etc.)

210
Q

(CPT) codes

A
  • *Current Procedural Terminology (CPT) codes are commonly used for sevice.
  • ->CPT codes have five digits
  • ->Physical therapists generally use 97000 codes (Physical Medicine and Rehabilitation section codes)
211
Q

What is expense management?

A

controlling operating and capital expenses

212
Q

What is the goal of expense management ?

A

The goal of expense management is maximizing net income.

–> This is done by controlling operating and capital expenses.

213
Q

Expense management-what is operating expenses?

A

Operating expenses are associated with the cost of resources used in the
production of a good or service within a specific time period.

214
Q

Expense management-what is capital expenses?

A

Capital expenses are associated with the purchase of equipment, facilities
and other high priced items that contribute to the delivery of services
over an extended period of time.

  • -> The goal of expense management is maximizing net income.
  • -> This is done by controlling operating and capital expenses.
215
Q
  • -> The goal of expense management is maximizing net income.
  • -> This is done by controlling operating and capital expenses.
A

-> Operating expenses are associated with the cost of resources used in the
production of a good or service within a specific time period.

–> Capital expenses are associated with the purchase of equipment, facilities
and other high priced items that contribute to the delivery of services
over an extended period of time.

216
Q

Be able to define quality

A

Quality denotes a comparative level of excellence.

The most common definition is:
“The degree to which health services for individuals and populations increase the likelihood of desired health outcomes and are consistent with current professional knowledge” (Institute of Medicine, 2008).

217
Q

Know who is involved in healthcare improvement efforts

A
  1. Federal and state governments
  2. Government and contracted private organizations
  3. Private organizations
    - -> Accreditation agencies (i.e. Joint Commission)
    - -> Professional associations (American Physical Therapy Association, APTA)
    - -> Watchdog groups - consumer watchdog
218
Q

Know the government sponsored, government sponsored- private organization, and private organization health care quality improvement groups

A

GOVERNMENT SPONSORED:

  1. The Institute of Medicine’s report: Crossing the Quality Chasm:
    - -This publication included a comprehensive strategy and action plan to reinvent the U.S. health care system
    - -The report suggested (6) aims for health care improvement: Safe, effective, patient centered, timely, efficient, and equitable
  2. The Balance Budget Act of 1997:
    - ->Reduced reimbursement (CAPS-medicare part B)
    - ->Performance Improvement Projects (PIP’s):
    * *measurable + positive change be sustained for at least 3 years before the plan may be discontinued.
    * *providers who work with multiple health plans must contribute to each plan each with different targets and goals.
  3. Centers for Medicare and Medicaid Services (CMS)
    - -> Quality Improvement Roadmap(s)
    - -> Newly defined roles of Quality Improvement Organizations
    - -> Establishment of the Medicare Quality Improvement Community (MedQIC)

**Impact places PT work: Hospitals, Home health, Nursing homes, Physicians

  1. Agency for Healthcare Research and Quality (AHRQ)= improve health care quality w/ research funding for quality improvement interventions
  2. Safety and Quality (Similar to IOM)
  3. Effectiveness (Similar to IOM)
  4. Efficiency (Similar to IOM)
  5. Organizational excellence

**Consumer Assessment of Healthcare Providers and Systems (CAHPS) –survey

219
Q

Be familiar with health care improvement efforts specifically in physical therapy

A

CMS’s Quality Improvement Roadmaps: PTs have opportunities to become active in
roadmap initiatives

CMS supports multiple quality initiatives including those that focus on hospitals, home
health, nursing homes, physicians (physical therapists have been impacted by CMS
quality initiatives because of their impact on facilities where PT services are provided.

PTs may be familiar with the QIO;s projects without realizing they are govn’t
contracted initiatives

220
Q

Be able to describe the following health care quality improvement organizations: American Health Quality Association, National Committee of Quality Assurance, Leapfrog Group

A

American Health Quality Association,
i. represents the interests of the QIO’s (ala APTA and PTs)
ii. through the AHQA, QIO’s network with other QIO’s and professionals working
in healthcare quality
iii. works on behalf of its members with large organizations such as CMS, dept of
health and human services, etc
iv. advocate for improvement

b. National Committee of Quality Assurance,
i. private, health plan accrediting organization with voluntary membership
ii. most large health plans seek NCQA accreditation because employers often
require it as a quality indicator
iii. most medicaid and smaller health plans are required to follow NCQA
guidelines
iv. NCQA certified health plans experience rigorous credentially and survey
processes every 3 years in order to remain certified
v. NCQA has effectively built consensus around important healthcare quality
issues by working with large employers, policymakers, doctors, patients, and
health plant to decide what is important how to measure it and how to
promote improvement
vi. best known product is the Healthcare Effectiveness Data Information Set
(HEDIS), an NCQA survey instrument
vii. in 2008, HEDIS measurements had measures of interest to PTs: falls risk
management, osteoporosis testing for older women, osteoporosis
management post fx, physical activity for older adults

c. Leapfrog Group
i. an employer group organization with voluntary membership
ii. focus is to inform and mobilize employer groups to use their purchasing
power to buy health care where quality services are in line with current best
practices
iii. leapfrog supports employers and consumers and promotes the notion of
incentives and rewards to providers who meet or exceed specific criteria
iv. independent auditors, voluntary participation
v. Leapfrog’s hospital survey is the gold standard for comparing hospitals’
performance on the national standards of safety, quality, and efficiency that
are most relevant to consumers and purchases of care.
vi. assigns A, B, C, D and F grades to more than 2500 US hospitals based on their
ability to prevent errors, accidents, injuries and infections
vii. the only nationally standardized and endorsed set of measures that captu

221
Q

American Health Quality Association

A
  • Private Organizations

AHQA represents the interests of the QIO’s

(Similar to how the APTA represents the interests of PT’s)

AHQA works on behalf its members with large organizations such as CMS, Department of Health and Human Services, etc.

222
Q

National Committee of Quality Assurance

A
  • Private Organizations

works with large employers, policymakers, doctors, patients, and health plans to decide what is important, how to measure it, and how to promote improvement

  • -> large health plans do NCQA accreditation bc quality indicator
  • -Most Medicaid and smaller health plans follow NCQA guidelines
  • -> rigorous credentialing and survey processes every 3 years in order to remain certified.

Healthcare Effectiveness Data Information Set (HEDIS) = NCQA survey instrument.
Promotes evidenced-based medicine
Results are integrated with patient satisfaction measures from HCAHPS survey
Data is used to develop quality benchmarks
ie Falls risk management

223
Q

Leapfrog Group

A

employer group organization with voluntary membership–to inform employer groups/to buy health care where quality services are in line with current best practices
–>promotes the notion of incentives and rewards to providers who meet or exceed specific criteria

Leapfrog Hospital Survey = gold standard - comparing hospitals’ performance on the national standards of SAFETY, EQUALITY, and EFFICIENCY that are most relevant to consumers and purchasers of care.

*hospital performance in patient safety, quality and resource utilization.

Leapfrog’s Hospital Safety Score® assigns A, B, C, D and F grades to hospitals based on ability to prevent errors, accidents, injuries and infections.
–>by patient safety experts, peer-reviewed, fully transparent and free to the public.

224
Q

Be able to describe the following employment laws: Title VII of the Civil Rights Act; Fair Labor Standards Act; Age Discrimination Act; American with Disabilities Act

A

.

225
Q

Title VII of the Civil Rights Act;

A

Title VII of the Civil Rights Act as Amended in 1991
Prohibits employment discrimination based on:
National origin, Race , Color, Religion, Sex (including pregnancy discrimination)

Applies to:

1) Employers with 15 or more employees
2) Employment agencies
3) All levels of government
4) Labor organizations

This legislation included the “Glass Ceiling Act”, which established a commission to study the existence of artificial barriers to advancement of women and minorities in the workplace.

Commission recommendations for employers included:

  1. Clear written job descriptions
  2. Job-related evaluation instruments that were valid, reliable, and fairly administered and scored
  3. Equal access to organization resources
226
Q

Fair Labor Standards Act

A

..The Wage and Hour Division of the Employment Standards Administration administers the FLSA

**standards for minimum wage + overtime

=> employers must pay non-exempt employees federal minimum wage and overtime pay of 1½× regular pay rate

(PT not get overtime = professional employees and exempt
PTA = considered non–exempt and qualify for overtime)

227
Q

Age Discrimination Act

A

prohibits employment discrimination against persons 40 years of age or older.

APPLIES TO:

  1. Employers with 20 or more employees
  2. Employees
  3. Job applicants
  4. Employment agencies
  5. All levels of government
  6. Labor organizations

Areas covered are any term, condition, or privilege of employment.

  1. Hiring and firing
  2. Promotion and layoff
  3. Compensation and benefits
  4. Job assignments and training
228
Q

American with Disabilities Act

A

.Employment discrimination against qualified individuals with disabilities

An individual with a disability: physical or mental impairment that substantially limits one or more major life activities

A qualified employee or applicant with a disability is a person who
with or without reasonable accommodation can perform the essential functions of the job in question

Reasonable accommodation may include, but is not limited to:

  • Making facilities accessible and usable
  • Job restructuring or work schedule modification
  • Reassignment
  • Training
  • Accommodations to take an exam

Undue hardship for an employer is an action that would require significant difficulty or expense to implement and would negatively impact their business.
(Hardship varies by: Employer’s size, Financial resources, The nature and structure of its operation)

Applies to employers:

  1. With 15 or more employees
  2. Employment agencies
  3. Federal, state, and local governments
  4. Labor Organizations
  5. An employee is require to make a reasonable accommodate to the known disability of the qualified applicant or employee if it would not impose an undue hardship on the operation of the employer’s business.
229
Q
  • Private Organizations

AHQA represents the interests of the QIO’s

(Similar to how the APTA represents the interests of PT’s)

AHQA works on behalf its members with large organizations such as CMS, Department of Health and Human Services, etc.

A

American Health Quality Association,

230
Q
  • Private Organizations

works with large employers, policymakers, doctors, patients, and health plans to decide what is important, how to measure it, and how to promote improvement

  • -> large health plans do NCQA accreditation bc quality indicator
  • -Most Medicaid and smaller health plans follow NCQA guidelines
  • -> rigorous credentialing and survey processes every 3 years in order to remain certified.

Healthcare Effectiveness Data Information Set (HEDIS) = NCQA survey instrument.
Promotes evidenced-based medicine
Results are integrated with patient satisfaction measures from HCAHPS survey
Data is used to develop quality benchmarks
ie Falls risk management

A

National Committee of Quality Assurance,

231
Q

employer group organization with voluntary membership–to inform employer groups/to buy health care where quality services are in line with current best practices
–>promotes the notion of incentives and rewards to providers who meet or exceed specific criteria

Leapfrog Hospital Survey = gold standard - comparing hospitals’ performance on the national standards of SAFETY, EQUALITY, and EFFICIENCY that are most relevant to consumers and purchasers of care.

*hospital performance in patient safety, quality and resource utilization.

Leapfrog’s Hospital Safety Score® assigns A, B, C, D and F grades to hospitals based on ability to prevent errors, accidents, injuries and infections.
–>by patient safety experts, peer-reviewed, fully transparent and free to the public.

A

Leapfrog Group

232
Q

.

A

Title VII of the Civil Rights Act

233
Q

.The Wage and Hour Division of the Employment Standards Administration administers the FLSA

**standards for minimum wage + overtime

=> employers must pay non-exempt employees federal minimum wage and overtime pay of 1½× regular pay rate

(PT not get overtime = professional employees and exempt
PTA = considered non–exempt and qualify for overtime)

A

Fair Labor Standards Act;

234
Q

prohibits employment discrimination against persons 40 years of age or older.

APPLIES TO:

  1. Employers with 20 or more employees
  2. Employees
  3. Job applicants
  4. Employment agencies
  5. All levels of government
  6. Labor organizations

Areas covered are any term, condition, or privilege of employment.

  1. Hiring and firing
  2. Promotion and layoff
  3. Compensation and benefits
  4. Job assignments and training
A

Age Discrimination Act;

235
Q

.Employment discrimination against qualified individuals with disabilities

An individual with a disability: physical or mental impairment that substantially limits one or more major life activities

A qualified employee or applicant with a disability is a person who
with or without reasonable accommodation can perform the essential functions of the job in question

Reasonable accommodation may include, but is not limited to:

  • Making facilities accessible and usable
  • Job restructuring or work schedule modification
  • Reassignment
  • Training
  • Accommodations to take an exam

Undue hardship for an employer is an action that would require significant difficulty or expense to implement and would negatively impact their business.
(Hardship varies by: Employer’s size, Financial resources, The nature and structure of its operation)

Applies to employers:

  1. With 15 or more employees
  2. Employment agencies
  3. Federal, state, and local governments
  4. Labor Organizations
  5. An employee is require to make a reasonable accommodate to the known disability of the qualified applicant or employee if it would not impose an undue hardship on the operation of the employer’s business.
A

American with Disabilities Act

236
Q

.prohibits employment discrimination against persons 40 years of age or older.

APPLIES TO:

  1. Employers with 20 or more employees
  2. Employees
  3. Job applicants
  4. Employment agencies
  5. All levels of government
  6. Labor organizations

Areas covered are any term, condition, or privilege of employment.

  1. Hiring and firing
  2. Promotion and layoff
  3. Compensation and benefits
  4. Job assignments and training
A

Age Discrimination Act

237
Q

.Employment discrimination against qualified individuals with disabilities

An individual with a disability: physical or mental impairment that substantially limits one or more major life activities

A qualified employee or applicant with a disability is a person who
with or without reasonable accommodation can perform the essential functions of the job in question

Reasonable accommodation may include, but is not limited to:

  • Making facilities accessible and usable
  • Job restructuring or work schedule modification
  • Reassignment
  • Training
  • Accommodations to take an exam

Undue hardship for an employer is an action that would require significant difficulty or expense to implement and would negatively impact their business.
(Hardship varies by: Employer’s size, Financial resources, The nature and structure of its operation)

Applies to employers:

  1. With 15 or more employees
  2. Employment agencies
  3. Federal, state, and local governments
  4. Labor Organizations
  5. An employee is require to make a reasonable accommodate to the known disability of the qualified applicant or employee if it would not impose an undue hardship on the operation of the employer’s business.
A

American with Disabilities Act

238
Q

Quality Management vs. Performance Improvement (both to improve quality)

A

Quality management looks for improvement through statistical analysis during each step of the improvement process

Performance improvement- has a broader focus and includes human factors (i.e.. personnel) to determine what is needed to improve performance

[However, there is lack of consensus of each of these definitions and both terms are used interchangeably.]

239
Q

QUALITY = “The degree to which _________ for individuals and populations increase the likelihood of _________ and are consistent with current professional knowledge” (Institute of Medicine, 2008).

A

“The degree to which health services for individuals and populations increase the likelihood of desired health outcomes and are consistent with current professional knowledge” (Institute of Medicine, 2008).

240
Q

Difference in health care quality management from the federal governments perspective compared to quality management in the for profit business sector?

A

The difference is what is best for the PATIENT vs. what is best for the SHAREHOLDER.

The U.S. government takes a broad view of quality and focuses on (3) areas:

  1. Patient access to care
  2. Quality
  3. Overall cost of care

Commonly referred to as the “health care triad”

241
Q

What is the “health care triad”?

A

The U.S. government takes a broad view of quality and focuses on (3) areas:

  1. Patient access to care
  2. Quality
  3. Overall cost of care

Each part of the triad is considered equally important and interdependent goals are established based on each part.

The three initiatives are credited with bringing the topic of healthcare quality to the national agenda.

242
Q

The U.S. government takes a broad view of quality and focuses on (3) areas:

A

The U.S. government takes a broad view of quality and focuses on (3) areas:

  1. Patient access to care
  2. Quality
  3. Overall cost of care
243
Q

Title VII of the Civil Rights Act as Amended in 1991

Prohibits employment discrimination based on:
5

A

Title VII of the Civil Rights Act as Amended in 1991

Prohibits employment discrimination based on:

  1. National origin,
  2. Race ,
  3. Color,
  4. Religion,
  5. Sex (including pregnancy discrimination)
244
Q

Title VII of the Civil Rights Act as Amended in 1991

Applies to: (4)

A

Title VII of the Civil Rights Act as Amended in 1991

Applies to:

1) Employers with 15 or more employees
2) Employment agencies
3) All levels of government
4) Labor organizations

245
Q

Title VII of the Civil Rights Act as Amended in 1991

This legislation included the “Glass Ceiling Act”, which established what?

A

This legislation included the “Glass Ceiling Act”, which established a commission to study the existence of artificial barriers to advancement of women and minorities in the workplace.

246
Q

Title VII of the Civil Rights Act as Amended in 1991

Commission recommendations for employers included:
3

A

Commission recommendations for employers included:

  1. Clear written job descriptions
  2. Job-related evaluation instruments that were valid, reliable, and fairly administered and scored
  3. Equal access to organization resources
247
Q

The Institute of Medicine’s report: Crossing the Quality Chasm:

A

*government sponsored
the Quality Chasm:
–This publication included a comprehensive strategy and action plan to reinvent the U.S. health care system

  • -The report suggested (6) aims for health care improvement:
    1. SAFE- avoiding injuries to pt
  1. EFFECTIVE- services based on scientific knowledge to all who could benefit
  2. PATIENT CENTERED- care respectful & responsive to individual pt preference and needs
  3. TIMELY- reducing wait times + harmful delays for those that administer and receive care
  4. EFFICIENT- avoiding waste (including supplies, energy, ideas)
  5. EQUITABLE- care does not vary because of personal characteristics such as gender, ethnicity, socioeconomic status, etc.
248
Q

The Balance Budget Act of 1997:

A

*government sponsored
1. Reduced reimbursement
CAPS-medicare part B)

  1. INTRODUCED QUALITY IMPROVEMENT MANDATES= Performance Improvement Projects (PIP’s):
    = managed care health plans that cover Medicare and Medicaid beneficiaries required to do formalized research projects that meet stringent criteria measuring quality (each year do min # and sustain the old ones

**measurable + positive change be sustained for at least 3 years before the plan may be discontinued.

**providers who work with multiple health plans must contribute to each plan each with different targets and goals.

249
Q

Centers for Medicare and Medicaid Services (CMS)

A

*government sponsored
medicare is largest purchaser of healthcare in the US = powerful

  1. QUALITY IMPROVEMENT ROADMAP:
    [CMS strategic plan for quality management]
    gov/nongov partnerships to achieve quality goals, quality measures/info to support more effective quality improvement effort, pay for care in a way that reinforces quality, promote electronic health systems, speed development + evidence for new effective treatments

[The better you perform the more reimbursement get, reimbursed with patient satisfaction (H Caps)]

  1. Newly defined roles of Quality Improvement Organizations
  2. Establishment of the Medicare Quality Improvement Community (MedQIC)

**Impact places PTs work: Hospitals Home health, Nursing homes, Physicians

250
Q

Agency for Healthcare Research and Quality (AHRQ)

A

*government sponsored
improve health care quality w/ research funding for quality improvement interventions

(looking at systems and organizations that impact quality = Medicare, Medicaid, and health plan improvement interventions ).

  1. Safety and Quality (Similar to IOM)
  2. Effectiveness (Similar to IOM)
  3. Efficiency (Similar to IOM)
  4. Organizational excellence

RESPONSIBLE FOR the
Consumer Assessment of Healthcare Providers and Systems (CAHPS) –survey

251
Q

who is responsible for the Consumer Assessment of Healthcare Providers and Systems (CAHPS)

A

Agency for Healthcare Research and Quality (AHRQ)

252
Q

Who made Performance Improvement Projects (PIP’s)?

A

Public Law 105-33: Balanced Budget Act of 1997 (BBA97)

253
Q
Which agency: 
Safe,
Effective,
Patient-centered
Timely, 
Efficient
Equitable
A

Crossing the Quality Chasm: A New Health System for the 21st Century

254
Q

Who demands measurable and positive change be sustained for at least 3 years before the plan may be discontinued.

A

Performance Improvement Projects (PIP’s) in the Public Law 105-33: Balanced Budget Act of 1997 (BBA97)

255
Q

Who established the therapy cap which was intended as a temporary solution to controlling Medicare costs

A

Public Law 105-33: Balanced Budget Act of 1997 (BBA97)

256
Q

Who: Quality Improvement Roadmap

A

Centers for Medicare and Medicaid Services (CMS)

257
Q

Government Sponsored- Private Organizations

QUALITY
3

A
  1. Medicare Quality Improvement Organizations (QIO’s).
    = External Quality Review Organizations (EQRO’s) or Peer Review Organizations (PRO’s)
  2. Medicare Quality Improvement Community (MedQIC): Created by CMS to assist Quality Improvement Organizations
  3. Institute for Healthcare Improvement (IHI)
258
Q

Government Sponsored Programs

QUALITY
4

A
  1. ) The Institute of Medicine’s report: Crossing the Quality Chasm
    2) The Balance Budget Act of 1997
    3) Centers for Medicare and Medicaid Services (CMS)
    4) Agency for Healthcare Research and Quality (AHRQ)
259
Q

Medicare Quality Improvement Organizations (QIO’s).

A

*Government Sponsored- Private Organizations
=External Quality Review Organizations (EQRO’s) or Peer Review Organizations (PRO’s)

federally funded private organizations =foster quality health care services hospitals, SNF, outpatient rehab, and home health

national evidence-based guidelines (Restraint reduction, Health care literacy programs-speak in language, Monitoring of consumer grievances and complaints against healthcare plans)

260
Q

Medicare Quality Improvement Community (MedQIC)

A

*Government Sponsored- Private Organizations

Created by CMS to assist Quality Improvement Organizations + partners with the Institute for Healthcare Improvement (IHI)

ONLINE, community approach–> practices share evidence based research, best practices, and provide input to other members supported through MedQIC. = collaboration

261
Q

Institute for Healthcare Improvement (IHI)

A

*Government Sponsored- Private Organizations
[funded mostly through fee-based programs as well as through contributions from foundations, companies, and individuals]

  1. Training
  2. Publications, videos, audiotapes
  3. “White papers” on health care quality improvement

Online tools include:

  • -Improvement Tracker
  • -Failure Modes and Effects Analysis (FEMA) tool
  • –Trigger for Measuring Adverse Drug Events (ADEs)
  • -Physician Practice Safety Assessment –
262
Q

Private Sponsored Programs

QUALITY
4

A
  1. The American Health Quality Association (AHQA)

2. National Committee for Quality Assurance (NCQA)

263
Q

The American Health Quality Association (AHQA)

A
  • Private Organizations

AHQA represents the interests of the QIO’s

(Similar to how the APTA represents the interests of PT’s)

AHQA works on behalf its members with large organizations such as CMS, Department of Health and Human Services, etc.

264
Q

National Committee for Quality Assurance (NCQA)

A
  • Private Organizations

works with large employers, policymakers, doctors, patients, and health plans to decide what is important, how to measure it, and how to promote improvement

  • -> large health plans do NCQA accreditation bc quality indicator
  • -Most Medicaid and smaller health plans follow NCQA guidelines
  • -> rigorous credentialing and survey processes every 3 years in order to remain certified.

Healthcare Effectiveness Data Information Set (HEDIS) = NCQA survey instrument.
Promotes evidenced-based medicine
Results are integrated with patient satisfaction measures from HCAHPS survey
Data is used to develop quality benchmarks
ie Falls risk management

265
Q

Healthcare Effectiveness Data Information Set (HEDIS)

A

NCQA survey instrument.

  • -> Promotes evidenced-based medicine
  • -> Results are integrated with patient satisfaction measures from HCAHPS survey
  • ->Data is used to develop quality benchmarks
In 2008, HEDIS measurements had measures of interest to physical therapists:
Falls risk management
Osteoporosis testing for older women
Osteoporosis management post fracture
Physical activity for older adults
266
Q

Know the government sponsored, government sponsored- private organization, and private organization health care quality improvement groups

GOVERNMENT (4)

Government Sponsored- Private Organizations (3)

Private Organizations (2)

A

GOVERNMENT

  1. ) The Institute of Medicine’s report: Crossing the Quality Chasm
    2) The Balance Budget Act of 1997
    3) Centers for Medicare and Medicaid Services (CMS)
    4) Agency for Healthcare Research and Quality (AHRQ)

Government Sponsored- Private Organizations

1) Quality Improvement Organizations (QIO’s)
2) Medicare Quality Improvement Community (MedQIC)
3) Institute for Healthcare Improvement (IHI)

Private Organizations

1) The American Health Quality Association (AHQA)
2) National Committee for Quality Assurance (NCQA)

OTHER
leapfrog group

267
Q

government sponsored organization health care quality improvement groups

4

A
  1. ) The Institute of Medicine’s report: Crossing the Quality Chasm
    2) The Balance Budget Act of 1997
    3) Centers for Medicare and Medicaid Services (CMS)
    4) Agency for Healthcare Research and Quality (AHRQ)
268
Q

government sponsored- private organization organization health care quality improvement groups

3

A

Government Sponsored- Private Organizations

1) Quality Improvement Organizations (QIO’s)
2) Medicare Quality Improvement Community (MedQIC)
3) Institute for Healthcare Improvement (IHI)

269
Q

Private organization health care quality improvement groups

2

A

Private Organizations

1) The American Health Quality Association (AHQA)
2) National Committee for Quality Assurance (NCQA)

270
Q

Title VII of the Civil Rights Act

-who it applies to

A

Applies to:

  1. Employers with 15 or more employees
  2. Employment agencies
  3. All levels of government
  4. Labor organizations

This legislation included the “Glass Ceiling Act”, –a commission to study existence of artificial barriers to advancement of WOMEN and MINORITIES in the workplace.

Commission recommendations for employers included:

  1. Clear written job descriptions
  2. Job-related evaluation instruments that were valid, reliable, and fairly administered and scored
  3. Equal access to organization resources
271
Q

Fair Labor Standards Act

A

The Wage and Hour Division of the Employment Standards Administration administers the FLSA

**standards for minimum wage + overtime

=> employers must pay non-exempt employees federal minimum wage and overtime pay of 1½× regular pay rate

(PT not get overtime = professional employees and exempt
PTA = considered non–exempt and qualify for overtime)

272
Q

Age Discrimination in Employment Act of 1967 (ADEA)

A

prohibits employment discrimination against persons 40 years of age or older.

APPLIES TO:

  1. Employers with 20 or more employees
  2. Employees
  3. Job applicants
  4. Employment agencies
  5. All levels of government
  6. Labor organizations

Areas covered are any term, condition, or privilege of employment.

  1. Hiring and firing
  2. Promotion and layoff
  3. Compensation and benefits
  4. Job assignments and training
273
Q

Titles I and V of the Americans with Disabilities Act of 1990 (ADA)

A

Employment discrimination against qualified individuals with disabilities

An individual with a disability: physical or mental impairment that substantially limits one or more major life activities

A qualified employee or applicant with a disability is a person who
with or without reasonable accommodation can perform the essential functions of the job in question

Reasonable accommodation may include, but is not limited to:

  • Making facilities accessible and usable
  • Job restructuring or work schedule modification
  • Reassignment
  • Training
  • Accommodations to take an exam

Undue hardship for an employer is an action that would require significant difficulty or expense to implement and would negatively impact their business.
(Hardship varies by: Employer’s size, Financial resources, The nature and structure of its operation)

Applies to employers:

  1. With 15 or more employees
  2. Employment agencies
  3. Federal, state, and local governments
  4. Labor Organizations
  5. An employee is require to make a reasonable accommodate to the known disability of the qualified applicant or employee if it would not impose an undue hardship on the operation of the employer’s business.
274
Q

Do PT or PTA get overtime

A

under Fair Labor Standards Act (FLSA)

PT not get overtime = professional employees and exempt

PTA = considered non–exempt and qualify for overtime

275
Q

prohibits employment discrimination against persons 40 years of age or older.

Areas covered are any term, condition, or privilege of employment.

  1. Hiring and firing
  2. Promotion and layoff
  3. Compensation and benefits
  4. Job assignments and training
A

Age Discrimination in Employment Act of 1967 (ADEA)

276
Q

Understand what is meant by the term “Undue Hardship”

A

under Titles I and V of the Americans with Disabilities Act of 1990 (ADA)

Undue hardship for an employer is an action that would require significant difficulty or expense to implement and would negatively impact their business.

Hardship varies by:
Employer’s size
Financial resources
The nature and structure of its operation

277
Q

Be familiar with the basic tenants of how to manage a practice lawfully

A

Follow proper hiring practices.
Follow proper compensation practices
Avoid harassment and discrimination
Follow requirements for employee leave
Know how to conduct employee performance reviews and disciplinary actions
Know how to terminate (voluntary, involuntary, or lay off) an employee without violating his or her legal rights
Know how to conduct workplace searches and employee monitoring
In interviews, avoid questions related to topics that the law prohibits such as sexual preference, sex life, religious beliefs, political affiliations, family planning, or personal finances (okay if permission given to check credit rating)
Respect an applicant’s privacy
Be accurate and factual
Focus on the candidate’s ability to perform the job

In dealings with employees:
Treat respectfully
Keep lines of communication open
Be consistent in similar situations
Evaluate employees regularly and honestly
Make personnel decisions solely on the job requirements
Avoid punishing those who bring a problem to your attention.
Adopt sound policies, share them, and follow them.
Keep good written records on decisions and actions.
Take action when problems arise.
Protect employee privacy.

278
Q

. Be familiar with the basic tenants of how to manage a practice lawfully

A
  1. follow proper hiring practices
  2. follow proper compensation practices
  3. avoid harassment and discrimination
  4. follow requirements for employee leave
  5. know how to conduct employee performance reviews and disciplinary actions
    (objective)
  6. know how to terminate (voluntary, involuntary, or layoff) an employee without
    violating his or her legal rights
  7. know how to conduct workplace searches and employee monitoring
  8. in interviews, avoid questions related to topics that the law prohibits such as sexual
    preference, sex life, religious beliefs, political affiliations, family planning, or personal
    finances
  9. respect an applicant’s privacy
  10. be accurate and factual
  11. focus on the candidate’s ability to perform the job
  12. treat employees respectfully, keep lines of communication open, be consistent in
    similar situations, evaluate employees regularly and honestly, make personnel
    decisions solely on the job requirements
  13. avoid punishing those who bring a problem to your attention
  14. adopt sound policies, share them, and follow them
  15. keep good written records on decisions and actions
  16. take action when problems arise
  17. protect employee privacy
279
Q

Understand the purpose of the patient’s health information record and how often its
recommended that physical therapists document

A
  1. Serves as a record of patient/client care including a report of the patients/client’s
    status, physical therapy management, and outcome of physical therapy intervention.
    Is a tool for the planning and provision of services, and is a communication vehicle
    among providers.
  2. Tells others about our abilities, our unique body of knowledge, and the services we
    provide as PTs and PTAs.
  3. May be used to demonstrate compliance with federal, state, payer, and local
    regulations.
  4. Provides an historical account of patient/client encounters that can be used as
    evidence in potential legal situations.
  5. May be used to demonstrate appropriate service utilization and reimbursement for
    many third-party payers.
  6. May be used for policy or research purposes including outcomes analysis.
280
Q

Understand why it’s important that physical therapist’s documents

A

Maintaining a consistent, professional patient health information record is essential to
effectively communicating with other clinical care team members, providing quality
patient care and establishing an effective defense should litigation arise.

281
Q

Be familiar with physical therapy documentation principles

A
  1. required for every visit/encounter.
  2. include indication of a patient’s/client’s cancellations of appointments and/or refusal of treatment.
  3. must comply with the applicable jurisdictional/regulatory requirements.

.4 All handwritten entries shall be made in ink, dated, and properly authenticated. Legibility is critical in clinical documentation. If an entry cannot be read, it cannot be understood.

  1. Electronic entries are made with appropriate security and confidentiality provisions. 
  2. Documentation must include adequate identification of the patient/client, the physical therapist, and/or physical therapist assistant:
  3. The patient’s/client’s full name and identification number, if applicable, must be included on all official documents.
  4. All entries must be dated and authenticated with the provider’s full name and appropriate designation (license number and printed name if required by state law)
  5. Charting errors should be corrected by drawing a single line through the error and initialing and dating the error or through the appropriate mechanism for electronic documentation that clearly indicates that a change was made without deletion of the original record.
  6. Documentation of examination, evaluation, diagnosis, prognosis, plan of care, progress report, and discharge summary must be authenticated by the physical therapist that provided the service.
  7. Documentation of physical therapist service in pediatrics is aligned with family-centered care. Documentation should emphasize the functional abilities of the child rather than highlight the deficits and should be written in a respectful manner. Therapists often collaborate with the family, child, and other team members on the documentation and record their involvement in the physical therapy services.
  8. Abbreviations should be minimized or not used at all
  9. Documentation must be clear about who is providing the service whether it is the PT, the PTA, or both when the PT may perform mobilization and the PTA may perform therapeutic exercises with the same patient/client.
  10. Documentation of intervention in visit/encounter notes must be authenticated by the physical therapist or physical therapist assistant that provided the service.
  11. Medicare requires hand written signatures or electronic signatures only. Stamp signatures are not acceptable.
  12. Documentation by physical therapists, physical therapist assistant graduates, or others pending receipt of an unrestricted license shall be authenticated by a licensed physical therapist, or, when permissible by state law, documentation by physical therapist assistant graduates may be authenticated by a physical therapist assistant. http://www.op.nysed.gov/prof/pt/ptfaq.htm
  13. Documentation by students (SPT/SPTA) in physical therapist or physical therapist assistant programs must be additionally authenticated by the physical therapist or, when permissible by state law, documentation by physical therapist assistant students may be authenticated by a physical therapist assistant. http://www.apta.org/Payment/Medicare/Supervision/

Documentation should include the referral mechanism by which physical therapy services are initiated. Examples include:
• Direct access when permissible by state law.
• Request for consultation from another practitioner.
• Referral from practitioner authorized to refer per Medicare regulations or state practice act.

282
Q

When is documentation required?

A

Documentation is required for every visit/encounter.

283
Q

What should documentation include if pt doesnt come?

A

Documentation should include indication of a patient’s/client’s cancellations of appointments and/or refusal of treatment

284
Q

What must documentation comply with

A

. All documentation must comply with the applicable jurisdictional/regulatory requirements.

285
Q

How should handwritten entries be written/electrically?

A

All handwritten entries shall be made in ink, dated, and properly authenticated. Legibility is critical in clinical documentation. If an entry cannot be read, it cannot be understood.

*Electronic entries are made with appropriate security and confidentiality provisions. 

286
Q

Should documentation have identification?

A

Documentation must include adequate identification of the patient/client, the physical therapist, and/or physical therapist assistant

The patient’s/client’s full name and identification number, if applicable, must be included on all official documents.

All entries must be dated and authenticated with the provider’s full name and appropriate designation (license number and printed name if required by state law)

287
Q

what should you do in documentation if charting error?

A

Charting errors should be corrected by drawing a single line through the error and initialing and dating the error or through the appropriate mechanism for electronic documentation that clearly indicates that a change was made without deletion of the original record.

288
Q

Who must authenticate documentation of examination, evaluation, diagnosis, prognosis, plan of care, progress report, and discharge summary?

A

by the physical therapist that provided the service.

289
Q

How to document peds?

A

Documentation of physical therapist service in pediatrics is aligned with family-centered care.

Documentation should emphasize the functional abilities of the child rather than highlight the deficits and should be written in a respectful manner.

Therapists often collaborate with the family, child, and other team members on the documentation and record their involvement in the physical therapy services.

290
Q

Documentation: Abbreviate?

A

Abbreviations should be minimized or not used at all

291
Q

How to document if PT and PTA did tx?

A

Documentation must be clear about who is providing the service whether it is the PT, the PTA, or both when the PT may perform mobilization and the PTA may perform therapeutic exercises with the same patient/client.

292
Q

Who authenticates documentation of intervention in visit/encounter note?

A

.Documentation of intervention in visit/encounter notes must be authenticated by the physical therapist or physical therapist assistant that provided the service.

293
Q

Does medicare allow stamp signature?

A

Medicare requires hand written signatures or electronic signatures only. Stamp signatures are not acceptable.

294
Q

Who authenticates documentation of pending receipt of an unrestricted license?

A

Documentation by physical therapists, physical therapist assistant graduates, or others pending receipt of an unrestricted license shall be authenticated by a licensed physical therapist, or, when permissible by state law, documentation by physical therapist assistant graduates may be authenticated by a physical therapist assistant. http://www.op.nysed.gov/prof/pt/ptfaq.htm

295
Q

Who authenticates documentation of SPT/SPTA?

A

Documentation by students (SPT/SPTA) in physical therapist or physical therapist assistant programs must be additionally authenticated by the physical therapist or, when permissible by state law, documentation by physical therapist assistant students may be authenticated by a physical therapist assistant.

296
Q

Documentation should include the referral mechanism by which physical therapy services are initiated.

examples:

A

Documentation should include the referral mechanism by which physical therapy services are initiated.

Examples include:
• Direct access when permissible by state law.
• Request for consultation from another practitioner.
• Referral from practitioner authorized to refer per Medicare regulations or state practice act.

297
Q

Be familiar with physical therapy documentation principles Liability

A
  1. Document all actions and patient discussions as soon as possible after the event
  2. Never leave lines blank or data spaces unfilled.
  3. Identify late entries and make sure they are dated and timed accordingly
  4. Prohibit late entries for any reason after a lawsuit has been initiated.
  5. Contact the risk manager, insurance company or legal counsel to obtain advice about
    proper drafting of a written addendum if there is a legitimate need to do so.
  6. Use only approved methods for correction of documentation errors and never erase,
    obliterate, or use correction fluid in any portion of the health information record for
    any reason.
  7. Eliminate the use of facility-specific abbreviations and consider prohibiting the use ofall abbreviations
298
Q

When to document all actions and patient discussions ?

A

Document all actions and patient discussions as soon as possible after the event

299
Q

Document: blank lines?

A

Never leave lines blank or data spaces unfilled.

300
Q

Document late entries ?

A

. Identify late entries and make sure they are dated and timed accordingly

301
Q

Document late entries after lawsuit has been initiated.?

A

Prohibit late entries for any reason after a lawsuit has been initiated.

302
Q

Document: drafting of a written addendum if there is a legitimate need to do so.?

A

Contact the risk manager, insurance company or legal counsel to obtain advice about proper drafting of a written addendum if there is a legitimate need to do so.

303
Q

how to do correction of documentation errors ?

A

Use only approved methods for correction of documentation errors and never erase,
obliterate, or use correction fluid in any portion of the health information record for
any reason.

304
Q

Document abbreviations?

A

Eliminate the use of facility-specific abbreviations and consider prohibiting the use ofall abbreviations

305
Q

Understand if co-signature is required on documentation for PT permitee’s, PTA, and in New

A
  1. Documentation by physical therapists, physical therapist assistant graduates, or others pending receipt of an unrestricted license shall be authenticated by a licensed physical therapist, or, when permissible by state law, documentation by physical therapist
    assistant graduates may be authenticated by a physical therapist assistant.
  2. Documentation by students (SPT/SPTA) in physical therapist or physical therapist
    assistant programs must be additionally authenticated by the physical therapist or,
    when permissible by state law, documentation by physical therapist assistant students
    may be authenticated by a physical therapist assistant.
306
Q

Be familiar with the characteristics of a successful resume

A
  1. Focuses on skills
  2. Uses action words to define the responsibilities of your job-related experience (e.g.
    Performed, Assisted, Communicated, etc.)
  3. Easy to read and understand
  4. Visually powerful
  5. One page, or at most 2 pages long
  6. Language is grammatically correct.
  7. Spelling has been checked.
  8. Always be 100% truthful.
  9. Contains no inappropriate personal information.
  10. Data presented in chronological order (unless functional)
307
Q

Understand the basic rules with writing a cover letter

A
  1. No “cookie cutter” approach
  2. Needs to be specific for each application you submit
  3. Opportunity to peek the interest of the reader, opening MUST be strong
    20
  4. Highlight your skills/talent and experience and why you feel you’ll be feel you be a
    good fit for the organization and why they would be a good fit for you.
  5. Research the company/organization and include it
  6. Same formatting as resume (Times New Roman, Arial or Calibri; 10-12 points are
    generally in the ballpark of looking appropriate.
  7. In closing, state you will follow up (realistic time frame 1-2 weeks) and do so.
  8. Give enough information to interest the reader but don’t overwhelm them
  9. Research the company/organization. Address the letter to a specific person
    (Director/Manager).
  10. When applicable, indicate how you discovered the position (personal reference, job
    posting, etc.)
  11. Your address, city, state, zip, and telephone number
  12. Date
  13. Name, title, company, address, city, state, and zip of person you’re writing to.
  14. Greeting (specific), followed by a colon

Paragraph 1: What you want, How you know about the organization, Mention enclosure of your
resume.

Paragraph 2: Concise overview of work history and skills that will help you perform the job.

Paragraph 3: State confidence in your ability, Give information on how you can be contacted

Paragraph 4: Express appreciation and follow up (e.g. “I will follow up with you over the next 1-2weeks to…),

Closing, signature, and typed name

308
Q

Review the pointers on how to make first impressions count

A
On-Time
Do you bring a pen to the interview
Dressed appropriately
Physical Contact- “ The dreaded handshake”
Eye Contact
Smile
Fidgeting
309
Q

Understand what is meant by Behavior based interviews and the meaning of S.T.A.R

A

Situation or
Task
Action Taken
Result of Your Action

Think of examples where you describe a situation or task
The actions you took
The result of your action

310
Q

Understand what “soft skills” refers to

A
Adaptability
Teamwork
Initiative 
Innovation
Integrity
311
Q

What goes on resume

A

Identify Yourself

Education (past and present degrees)

Continuing Education- professionally related

Work or Professional Experience ( affiliations)

Relevant volunteer experience

Notable activities (organizations, committees)

Computer Skills/Special Skills/Certifications

Professional Associations (e.g. APTA)

Objective

Reference Statement

312
Q

Review the purpose of competency assessments in health care

A

a. Improves the quality of service provided
b. Ensures specific service standards are met
c. Promotes adequate clinician skill
d. Increases clinician confidence
e. Provides mentorship (when needed)
f. Requirement for licensure/certification renewal

313
Q

Know the two most commonly used types of competencies currently used in physical
therapy

A

1.) Behavioral Competencies
i. Behavioral competencies are observable and measurable behaviors,
knowledge, skills, abilities, ​and other characteristics that contribute to
individual success in the organization (e.g., teamwork and cooperation,
communication).
ii. Behavioral competencies describe what is required to be successful in an
organization outside of a specific job.
iii. As such, behavioral competencies are specific to a person rather than to a job.

2.) Clinical Competencies
i. Can be defined as follows:
1. “The ability to do the required task sufficiently to meet the
requirements”
2. “The capability to acceptably perform duties directly related to patient
care”.
ii. Clinical competencies are can also be referred to as skills competencies

314
Q

Be familiar with the “general guidelines” in regards to competency assessments

A

a. Competency assessments in healthcare are important to ensure adequate clinical skills
and quality service delivery to patients

b. In physical therapy there are two types of competencies typically used: Behavioral and
Clinical Competencies
c. Clinical competencies are easier to measure than behavioral competencies, since
clinical competencies are more objective
d. Many physical therapy competency assessments integrate a self assessment portion
where clinicians can rate their perceived level of performance. This is then compared
to how an evaluator (manager/supervisor), views their level of performance.
e. Competencies need to be updated when job descriptions and roles change
f. Its important to include all behavioral and clinical components that an employee will
use to perform their job in the assessment. If not, the skill is often lost
g. Competencies help to define current and future organizational workflow, workplace
culture, and expectation of the position(s).

315
Q

Behavior Competencies

A
  1. Behavioral competencies are observable and measurable behaviors, knowledge, skills, abilities, and other characteristics that contribute to individual success in the organization (e.g., teamwork and cooperation, communication).
  2. Behavioral competencies describe what is required to be successful in an organization outside of a specific job.
  3. As such, behavioral competencies are specific to a person rather than to a job.
316
Q

Types of Behavior competencies

A

Individual competencies: your personal attributes: flexibility, decisiveness, tenacity, independence, risk taking, personal integrity

Managerial Competencies- Taking charge of other people: Leadership, Empowerment, strategic planning, corporate sensitivity, project management and management control.

Analytical Competencies-The elements of the decision making, innovation, analytical skills, numerical problem solving, practical learning, detail consciousness.

Interpersonal Competencies- Dealing with other people: communication, impact persuasiveness, personnel awareness, teamwork and openness.

Motivational Competencies- The things that drive you: resilience, energy, motivation, achievement orientation, initiative, Quality Focus.

317
Q

4components of a behavioral competency

A

observable and measurable behaviors, knowledge, skills, abilities

318
Q

Individual competencies:

A

Individual competencies: your personal attributes: flexibility, decisiveness, tenacity, independence, risk taking, personal integrity

319
Q

Managerial Competencies-

A

Managerial Competencies- Taking charge of other people: Leadership, Empowerment, strategic planning, corporate sensitivity, project management and management control.

320
Q

Analytical Competencies-

A

Analytical Competencies-The elements of the decision making, innovation, analytical skills, numerical problem solving, practical learning, detail consciousness.

321
Q

Interpersonal Competencies-

A

Interpersonal Competencies- Dealing with other people: communication, impact persuasiveness, personnel awareness, teamwork and openness.

322
Q

Motivational Competencies-

A

Motivational Competencies- The things that drive you: resilience, energy, motivation, achievement orientation, initiative, Quality Focus.

323
Q

How are Behavioral Competencies Measured?

A

360 Degree Appraisals- a feedback process where not just a superior but peers, direct reports, and sometimes even customers evaluate an employee’s performance. The employee being evaluated receives an analysis of how they perceive their performance relative to how others perceive them.

Behavioral Interviews- common interview technique whereby the applicant is asked to describe past behavior in order to determine whether he/she is suitable for the position.

324
Q

Clinical competencies are can also be referred to as skills competencies

A

Clinical competencies are can also be referred to as skills competencies

325
Q

RESUME

A

Key Resume Headings
1. Identify Yourself
2. Objective
3. Education (past and present degrees)
4. Work or Professional Experience (Affiliations)
5. Continuing Education professionally related
• List course name and brief description
6. Research project
• Title of project and brief description
7. Relevant volunteer experience
8. Notable activities (organizations, committees)
9. Computer Skills/Special Skills/Certifications
10. Professional Associations (e.g. APTA)
11. Reference Statement

326
Q

Do the roles of a contract or consultant therapist differ in a facility vs. private practice?

A

In both settings the roles are relatively the same
Contract therapist
May be treated as a per-diem (per day) employee paid hourly vs. salaried
Required to meet daily productivity standards of salaried employees
Typically are not entitled to same benefits as salaried employee (i.e. continuing education, mandated breaks, etc.)
May or may not be viewed as integrated member of team
May be difficult to maintain or encourage staff moral and interest
Consultant therapist
Typically has extensive experience working with a particular patient population or populations
Is hired on a per-diem or hourly basis to assist existing staff on a project or to improve clinical skills
May be referred to as “master clinician” or “advance clinician”
Usually viewed as a resource for evaluation and treatment ideas for complicated patient populations