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gross anatomy 2 > Final > Flashcards

Final Flashcards

1
Q

What is found in the tetralogy of Fallot

A

Pulmonary stenosis ventricular septal defect overriding aorta ( right and upward displacement or DEXTROPOSITION of the aorta) Right ventricular Hypertrophy

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2
Q
  1. The right suprarenal vein drains into the ____________________.
A

Inferior vena cava (left suprarenal artery drains into the Left renal artery)

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3
Q

Veins that drain directly into the IVC

A

Right suprarenal vein Right renal vein Right Testicular/Ovarian Vein.

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4
Q

Veins that drain into Left Renal vein befor draining into IVC

A

Left suprarenal vein

Left test/ovarian vein

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5
Q
  1. The superior rectal artery is a continuation of which one of the following arteries:
A

b. Inferior mesenteric

http: //sketchymedicine.com/wp-content/uploads/2012/04/blood_supply_GI1-393x400.jpg

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6
Q

The portal vein is a continuation of which artery

A

a. Superior mesenteric (portal vein)

http: //sketchymedicine.com/wp-content/uploads/2012/04/blood_supply_GI1-393x400.jpg

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7
Q
  1. Upon dissection of your male cadaver you note a mass that appears to be connected to the spleen within the scrotal sac of the left testis. What is this abnormality called?
A

Splenogonadalfusion

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8
Q

What is cryptorchildrism

A

failure of descent of testes into scrotum

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9
Q
  1. What infection or inflammatory condition affects the renal pelvis?
A

Pyelitis

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10
Q

what is a. Glomerulosclerosis
Glomerulonephritis
Pyelonephritis

A

a. Hardening from scarring of the glomeruli
glomerulus only
whole kidney

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11
Q
  1. What muscle forms a sling around the anorectal junction?
A

Levatorani

*Puborectal pubococcygeus iliococcygeus puboprostaticus/pubovaginalis

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12
Q
  1. The blood supply to the middle rectum comes directly from which arteries?
A

Anterior division of the internal iliac artery

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13
Q

The blood supply to the inferior rectal artery

A

internal pudendal artery of the internal iliac artery

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14
Q

Blood supply to the superior rectal artery

A

Inferior mesenteric artery of the abdominal aorta

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15
Q
  1. The lower half of L4 joins L5 near the anterior border of the alae of the sacrum to form the _____________________.
A

Lumbosacral trunk

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16
Q

L2-3 posterior division

A

lateral cutaneous nerve of the thigh

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17
Q

L2-L4 POSTERIOR DIVISION OBTURATOR IS ANTERIOR

A

FEMORAL NERVE

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18
Q

GENITOFEMORAL

A

L1-L2

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19
Q
  1. Which one of the following is a risk factor for chronic arterial occlusive disease?
    a. Pulmonary hypertension
    b. Anorexia
    c. Smoking
    d. Drinking alcohol
A

c smoking

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20
Q
  1. Which of the following results in painless swelling of the labia majora?
    a. Carbuncle
    b. Bartholin cyst
    c. Endometriosis
    d. Ischioanal abscess
A

b Bartholin cyst bartholins glands similar to bulbourethral glands
carbuncle large abcess bigger than a boil
endometriosis uterine lining growing outside the uterus

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21
Q
  1. Which is considered the keystone of the medial longitudinal arch?
    a. Cuboid
    b. Medial cuneiform
    c. Navicular
    d. Talus
A

Talus is the keystone to the medial longitudinal arch

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22
Q
  1. What is known as an out pouching of the stomach through the esophageal hiatus?
    a. Diverticulum
    b. Esophageal fistula
    c. Hiatal hernia
    d. Umbilical hernia
A

c. Hiatal hernia

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23
Q
  1. Which of the following is the medial border of the femoral triangle?
    a. Sartorius muscle
    b. Adductor magnus muscle
    c. Adductor longus muscle
    d. Adductor brevis muscle
A

c. adductor longus

Superior is Inguinal ligament asis to pubic tubercle
lateral is sortorius
medial is adductor longus

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24
Q
  1. Fertilization and implantation of an embryo in the abdominal cavity would result in which of the following?
    a. Endometriosis
    b. Ectopic pregnancy
    c. Bartholin cyst
    d. Hydatid cyst of Morgagni
A

ectopic preg

Hydatis cyst is multiple cysts connected to the fimbrae of the fallopian tube

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25
Q
  1. What is the innervation of the styloglossus muscle?
    a. Glossopharyngeal nerve
    b. Facial nerve(
    c. Vagus nerve
    d. Hypoglossal nerve
A
  1. What is the innervation of the styloglossus muscle?
    a. Glossopharyngeal nerve ( taste posterior 1/3 and gag)
    b. Facial nerve( Taste anterior 2/3 via chorda tempani from facial VII)
    c. Vagus nerve(Base of the tongue and epiglottis paltoglossus)
    d. Hypoglossal nerve allll mm exceptpalatoglossus
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26
Q
  1. What is known as the “student’s” nerve along the posterior abdominal wall?
    a. Tendon of Psoas major muscle
    b. Tendon of Psoas minor muscle
    c. Genitofemoral nerve
    d. Suspensory ligament
A

b

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27
Q

during which week have the testes descended retroperitoneally to the inguinal ring?

a. 25th
b. 26th
c. 36th
d. 40th

A

a.25
26 testes begin to descend through the inguinal cnals
36can be born without complications
40 birth

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28
Q
  1. Which one of the following is found along the triangular space?
    a. Suprascapular nerve
    b. Radial nerve
    c. Lower subscapular nerve
    d. Upper subscapular nerve
A

b. triangular hiatus with profundus brachii a

c Lower subscap with circumflex artery

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29
Q

What is the innervation for taste to the anterior 2/3 of the tongue?

a. Hypoglossal nerve
b. Lingual nerve from V3 (General sensation)
c. Chorda tympani from facial nerve( Taste anterior 2/3)
d. Glossopharyngeal nerve

A

c.
hypoglossus is muscles
glossopharyngeal is posterior 1/3

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30
Q
  1. Male and female embryos have identical gonads up to the _______ week.
    a. 4th
    b. 7th
    c. 10th
    d. 12th
A

b weeks 4-6

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31
Q
  1. Counter current exchange occurs in the _____________________.
    a. Renal medulla
    b. Renal cortex
    c. Renal papilla
    d. Renal sinus
A

a. renal medulla

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32
Q
  1. What artery does the right gastric artery come off of?
    a. Common hepatic artery
    b. Gastroduodenal artery
    c. Splenic artery
    d. Proper hepatic artery
A

Common hepatic artery Uncommon (Gastroduodenal and proper hepatic arteries)
Gastroduodenal artery (right gastro-omental artery)
Splenic artery (left gastro-omental artery)
d. Proper hepatic artery (left gastric from celiac trunk)

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33
Q
  1. What muscle originates from the lower 8 ribs at the inferior borders and compresses and supports the viscera?
    a. External abdominal oblique muscle
    b. Internal abdominal oblique muscle
    c. Pyramidalis muscle
    d. Transversus abdominis muscle
A

a. external abdominal oblique

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34
Q
  1. What nerve has the following distribution of L2 & L3 only from the lumbar plexus?
    a. Lateral femoral cutaneous nerve
    b. Obturator nerveL2-L4
    c. Femoral nerve L2-L4
    d. Genitofemoral nerve L1-L2
A

http: //upload.wikimedia.org/wikipedia/commons/thumb/7/73/Lumbar_plexus.svg/483px-Lumbar_plexus.svg.png
a. Iliohypogastric nerves (ventral rami L1 from lumbar plexus) internal oblique and transversus abdominis mm. and skin over the iliac crest, upper inguinal, and hypogastric regions
b. Pudendal nerve (S2-4)
c. Ilioinguinal nerves (L1) Inferiormost internal oblique and transversus abdominis muscles and skin of scrotum or labium majus, mons pubis, and adjacent medial aspects of thigh
d. Genitofemoral nerves (L1-2) Femoral branch-cutaneous innervation of femoral triangle, genital branch-cremaster muscle (cremasteric reflex) ends in skin of scrotum, no cut. Inn.

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35
Q
  1. What is the largest and most complex joint in the body?
    a. Wrist
    b. Ankle
    c. Shoulder
    d. Knee
A

d.knee

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36
Q
  1. The bulb of the penis continues as the ___________________.
    a. Glans penis
    b. Tunica albuginea
    c. Corpus cavernosa
    d. Corpus spongiosum
A

a. Glans penis - distal expansion of the corpus spongiosum
b. Tunica albuginea -divides testis it into lobules via fibrous septa
c. Corpus cavernosa- continuation of the crura of the penis(covered by the ischiocavernosus muscle)
d. Corpus spongiosum

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37
Q
  1. What is the anterior boundary/border of the omental/epiploic foramen or foramen of Winslow?
    a. Inferior vena cava-posterior
    b. Duodenum
    c. Liver
    d. Hepatoduodenal ligament
A

d

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38
Q
  1. What nerve has the following distribution of L2 & L3 only from the lumbar plexus?
    a. Lateral femoral cutaneous nerve
    b. Obturator nerveL2-L4
    c. Femoral nerve L2-L4
    d. Genitofemoral nerve L1-L2
A

a. Lateral femoral cutaneous nerve (L2, L3) supplies skin on anterior and lateral thigh to the knee
b. Obturator nerve (L2, L3, L4) supplies obturator externus, pectineus and medial thigh mm. and skin on medial thigh
c. Femoral nerve (L2, L3, L4) supplies iliacus, pectineus, and anterior thigh muscles and skin on anterior thigh and medial leg
d. Genitofemoral nerve (L1-2) Femoral branch-cutaneous innervation of femoral triangle, genital branch-cremaster muscle (cremasteric reflex) ends in skin of scrotum, no cut. Inn.

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39
Q

patient requires a laparoscopic examination because of pain between her periods, irregular spotting, and occasion rectal bleeding. The laparoscopic examination showed small black to dark bluish specks (areas) along the serosal surface of her uterus and also her ructum. What is the most likely diagnosis of the patient’s symptoms given the findings of the laparoscopic examination?

a. Leiomyoma
b. Endometriosis
c. Ectopic pregnancy
d. Diverticulitis

A

a. Leiomyoma

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40
Q
  1. What is the sympathetic innervation of the uterus in the pelvis?
    a. Thoracic splanchnic nerves
    b. Lumbar splanchnic nerves-abdominal
    c. Sacral splanchnic nerves
    d. Pelvic splanchnic nerves
A

c

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41
Q
  1. Which of the following keep the internal urethral sphincter open?
    a. Thoracic splanchnic nerves
    b. Lumbar splanchnic nerves
    c. Sacral splanchnic nerves- sympathetic, keeps it closed
    d. Pelvic splanchnic nerves
A

d

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42
Q
  1. You perform an autopsy and note multiple scattered petechiae of the skin, hemorrhagic adrenals, and also petechiae on the surface of several organs. What bacteria is the most likely agent for the findings including the hemorrhagic adrenal glands (associated with Waterhouse-Friderichsen syndrome)?
    a. Haemophilisus influenza
    b. Pneumocystis carnii
    c. Escherichia coli-female
    d. Neisseria meningitidis
A

d

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43
Q
  1. The lumbar splanchnic nerve (L1 and L2) supplies the ___________________.
    a. Midgut-lesser
    b. Hindgut
    c. Foregut-greater
    d. Renal ganglia
A

b

a. Midgut T8-l2
b. Hindgut (T12-L2)
c. Foregut (T6-T9)

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44
Q
  1. The round ligament of the uterus inserts on what structure?
    a. Labia minora
    b. ASIS
    c. Labia majora
    d. Pubic tubercle
A

c labia majora

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45
Q
  1. Failure of pharyngeal clefts 2, 3, and 4 to obliterate might lead to the development of what abnormality?
    a. Branchial cyst or fistula- 2nd brachial cleft
    b. Tracheoesopageal fistula-
    c. Retrognathia- overbite
    d. Ectopic thymus
A

a.

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46
Q
  1. The duodenojejunal flexure is at what level?
    a. L2
    b. L4
    c. L5
    d. T12
A

a

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47
Q
  1. Your patient has dislocated his hip in a MVA (motor vehicle accident) when the hip was flexed and adducted, so which way is the most likely location for the femoral head to be displaced from the acetabulum?
    a. Anteriorly
    b. Posteriorly
    c. Medially
    d. Laterally
A

b

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48
Q
  1. Which one of the following is retroperitoneal?
    a. 1st portion of duodenum
    b. Sigmoid colon
    c. Pancreas
    d. Spleen
A

Pancreas is Posterior

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49
Q
  1. Which of the following is the lowest point in the female pelvis where fluid may collect?
    a. Vesicouterine pouch
    b. Retropubic space
    c. Posterior fornix
    d. Rectouterine pouch
A

d

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50
Q
  1. Which muscle everts from the medial side of the foot?
    a. Fibularis longus muscle
    b. Fibularis brevis muscle
    c. Extensor digitorum brevis muscle
    d. Fibularis tertius muscle
A

a

51
Q
  1. The nerve that is the primary innervation of the temporomandibular joint is a branch that comes out of what opening in the skull?
    a. Foramen ovale-V3
    b. Internal acoustic meatus-CNVII&VIII
    c. Foramen rotundum-V2
    d. Superior orbital fissure-V1
A

a

52
Q
  1. ________________ presents with rapid, labored breathing after birth and is often due to deficiency of surfactant especially in premature infants.
    a. Tracheoesophageal fistula
    b. Pulmonary hypoplasia
    c. Laryngeal atresia
    d. Respiratory distress syndrome
A

d

53
Q
  1. What structure traverses along the intertubercular groove or sulcus?
    a. Subscapularis muscle
    b. Pectoralis major muscle
    c. Tendon of long head of biceps brachii
    d. Radial artery
A

c

54
Q
  1. _______________ is characterized by webbing of the skin and fusion of bones of digits.
    a. Polydactyly
    b. Syndactyly
    c. Brachydactyly
    d. Amelia
A

b

55
Q
  1. Which one of the following is found in the triangular interval/hiatus?
    a. Radial nerve-triangular hiatus
    b. Dorsal scapular nerve
    c. Axillary nerve- quadrangular space
    d. Lower subscapular nerve-triangular space
A

a

56
Q
  1. What do the sustentacular (Sertoli) cells secrete during weeks 6 to 7 of the developing male embryo?
    a. Testosterone-interstitial cells of leydig at 8 weeks
    b. Luteinizing hormone
    c. AMH (Mullerian inhibitory substance)
    d. Follicle stimulating hormone
A

AMH

57
Q
  1. You evaluate an infant soon after birth and note that the child has jaundice. The jaundice is not due to jaundice of the newborn period. A gastrointestinal specialist does special studies, including radiographic and pathological—biopsy on infant. The pediatric gastroenterologist informs you that the abnormality that the child has is due to failure of the ducts in the liver to recanalize and that the infant is being put on the waiting list for a liver transplantation. What is the most likely abnormality that the child has given this presentation?
    a. Duodenal atresia- failure of recanalization; polyhydramnios present, double bubble sign
    b. Extrahepatic biliary atresia
    c. Hepatoblastoma
    d. Hepatocellular carcinoma
A

Duodenal atresia- failure of recanalization; polyhydramnios present, double bubble sign
b. Extrahepatic biliary atresia

58
Q
  1. What is the origin of the medial head of the triceps brachii muscle?
    a. Upper ½ of posterior humerus-
    b. Olecranon process- i
    c. Infraglenoid tubercle
    d. Lower ½ of posterior humerus
A

a. Upper ½ of posterior humerus- lateral head
b. Olecranon process- insertion
c. Infraglenoid tubercle- long head
d. Lower ½ of posterior humerus

59
Q
  1. ____________________ is seen in 85% of cases of tracheoesophageal fistula?
    a. Esophageal atresia
    b. Laryngeal web
    c. Meckel’s diverticulum
    d. Coarctation of aorta
A

a

60
Q
  1. The blocking of blood flow at the 2nd division of the axillary artery would affect which muscle?
    a. Trapezius muscle
    b. Supraspinatus muscle
    c. Rhomboid major muscle
    d. Deltoid muscle
A

d

61
Q
  1. What is the blood supply of the adductor longus muscle?
    a. Femoral artery
    b. Popliteal artery
    c. Obturator artery
    d. Superior gluteal artery
A

c

62
Q
  1. Which of the following is in the lesser sciatic foramen?
    a. Pudendal nerve
    b. Inferior gluteal nerve
    c. Sciatic nerve
    d. Posterior femoral cutaneous nerve
A

a

63
Q
  1. Which of the following is correct concerning the opening in the skull and what is in the opening?
    a. Superior orbital fissure and trochlear nerve
    b. Foramen ovale and maxillary division of trigeminal nerve
    c. Jugular foramen and facial and Vestibulocochlear nerves
    d. Foramen rotundum and mandibular division of trigeminal nerve
A

a

64
Q
  1. Where are the cell bodies for the third order neuron for the spinothalamic tract located?
    a. Spinal cord
    b. Dorsal root ganglion
    c. Medulla
    d. VPL of thalamus
A

vpl of thalamus

65
Q
  1. What bone marking does the quadratus femoris insert?
    a. Lesser trochanter of femur
    b. Intertrochanteric crest
    c. Ischial spine
    d. Greater trochanter of femur
A

b

66
Q
  1. Which of the following muscles inserts on the inner aspect of the mandible bone?
    a. Medial pterygoid muscle
    b. Lateral pterygoid muscle
    c. Masseter muscle
    d. Temporalis muscle
A

a

67
Q
  1. Which of the following two muscles make up the pelvic diaphragm?
    a. Levator ani and coccygeus
    b. Levator ani and Piriformis
    c. Piriformis and obturator internus
    d. Piriformis and coccygeus
A

a

68
Q
  1. Which of the following conditions results in scarring or hyaline deposits in the kidneys and occurs in association with renal arteriosclerosis or diabetes and may result in end stage renal disease?
    a. Glomerulonephritis
    b. Glomerulosclerosis
    c. Acute tubular necrosis
    d. Pyelonephritis
A

b

69
Q
  1. What nerve is associated with the afferent limb-blink reflex?
    a. Oculomotor nerve
    b. Optic nerve
    c. Trigeminal nerve, mandibular division
    d. Trigeminal nerve, ophthalmic division
A

d

70
Q
  1. Deep to the _______________, the dorsalis pedis artery is a continuation of the anterior tibial artery.
    a. Superior extensor retinaculum
    b. Inferior extensor retinaculum
    c. Inferior fibular retinaculum
    d. Flexor retinaculum
A

b

71
Q
  1. The vas (ductus) deferens meets posteriorly to the bladder and joins with what structure to form the ejaculatory duct?
    a. Prostate
    b. Rete testis
    c. Seminal vesicle
    d. Epididymis
A

c

72
Q
  1. If you go outside in the sun after watching a movie in a very dark movie theater, what would happen to your eyes as they adjust to the sun?
    a. Miosis
    b. Mydriasis
    c. Accommodation
    d. Nothing
A

a

73
Q
  1. What forms the connective tissue, cartilage, and smooth muscle of the larynx, trachea, and bronchi?
    a. Endoderm
    b. Ectoderm
    c. Splanchnic mesoderm
    d. Somatic mesoderm
A

c

74
Q
  1. The skin over the angle of the mandible is innervated by which nerve?
    a. Great auricular nerve
    b. Posterior auricular nerve
    c. Trigeminal nerve
    d. Facial nerve
A

Trigeminal nerve, mandibular division

75
Q
  1. Potter’s syndrome is associated with pulmonary hypoplasia and which one of the following?
    a. Duplex kidney
    b. Urachal cyst
    c. Renal agenesis
    d. Polycystic kidney disease
A

c

76
Q
  1. What ligaments comprise the coracoclavicular ligament?
    a. Coracoid and clavicular ligaments
    b. Conoid and trapezoid ligaments
    c. Superior and inferior transverse scapular ligaments
    d. Coracoacromial and coracohumeral ligaments
A

b CT

77
Q
  1. What are the largest tributaries of the internal iliac vein in a male or female?
    a. Median sacral vein
    b. Superior rectal vein
    c. Inferior gluteal vein
    d. Superior gluteal vein
A

no clue

78
Q
  1. The ovarian arteries arise from the __________________ while the gluteal arteries arise from the ______________________.
    a. Abdominal aorta, internal iliac arteries
    b. Inferior mesenteric artery, abdominal aorta
    c. Abdominal aorta, external iliac arteries
    d. Internal iliac arteries, abdominal aorta
A

a

79
Q
  1. What vessel is a continuation of the sigmoid sinus once it comes out of the jugular foramen?
    a. External carotid artery
    b. Internal carotid artery
    c. Internal jugular vein
    d. External jugular vein
A

c

80
Q
  1. What is the name of the presence of the external urethral orifice on the dorsal surface of the penis?
    a. Epispadia
    b. Hypospadia
    c. Phimosis
    d. Primordial phallus
A

a.

81
Q
  1. The remnant of the fetal allantois(obliterated utacus) is found in which one of the following?
    a. Lateral umbilical ligament
    b. Medial umbilical ligament
    c. Round ligament of liver
    d. Median umbilical ligament
A

d

82
Q
  1. What is the only muscle of the forearm to insert on carpal bones?
    a. Flexor carpi radialis
    b. Flexor carpi ulnaris
    c. Extensor carpi radialis
    d. Extensor carpi ulnaris
A

Ulnaris is the Only one

83
Q
  1. Which muscle of the superficial back inserts at the superior angle of the scapula?
    a. Levator scapulae muscle
    b. Rhomboid major muscle
    c. Teres major muscle
    d. Supraspinatus muscle
A

a. duh

84
Q
  1. Which of the following is an opening of the uterine tube into the peritoneum?
    a. Ampulla
    b. Infundibulum
    c. Fimbriae
    d. Abdominal ostium
A

d

85
Q
  1. What nerve does the cutaneous innervation along the most medial aspect of the foot?
    a. Tibial nerve
    b. Saphenous nerve
    c. Superficial fibular nerve
    d. Sural nerve
A

b

86
Q
  1. Which ligament is the most frequently injured ligament of the body, usually from inadvertent inversion of the plantarflexed weight-bearing foot?
    a. Fibular collateral ligament
    b. Tibial collateral ligament
    c. Anterior talofibular ligament
A

c

87
Q
  1. What is the innervation of the epiglottis?
    a. Vagus nerve
    b. Facial nerve
    c. Glossopharyngeal nerve
    d. Trigeminal nerve
A

a. Vagus baby

88
Q
  1. _______________ are usually benign, usually do not invade the brain but often cause mass effects to the surrounding brain tissue.
    a. Neuroblastoma
    b. Glioblastoma
    c. Meningioma
    d. Pinealoblastoma
A

c

89
Q
  1. What nerve makes the stirrup in the infratemporal region?
    a. Auriculotemporal nerve
    b. Nevus spinosum
    c. Inferior alveolar nerve
    d. Lingual nerve
A

a. boot strap

90
Q
  1. What two tracts make up the Pyramidal system?
    a. Dorsal column medial lemniscus and corticospinal tract
    b. Dorsal column medial lemniscus and spinothalamic tract
    c. Corticobulbar and spinothalamic tracts
    d. Corticobulbar and corticospinal tracts
A

d

91
Q
  1. The uterus is normally
    a. Anteflexed, anteverted
    b. Retroflexed, retroverted
    c. Retrocessed, anteverted
    d. Retroflexed, anteverted
A

a

92
Q
  1. Which of the following is/are found in the broad ligament of the uterus?
    a. Round ligament of the uterus
    b. Uterine (fallopian) tube
    c. Proper ligament of the ovary
    d. All of the above
A

d

93
Q
  1. The 3rd portion of the duodenum is posterior to which one of the following?
    a. Abdominal descending aorta
    b. Pancreas
    c. Superior mesenteric artery-
    d. Inferior vena cava-
A

c posterior

d anterior

94
Q
  1. Twisting of the spermatic cord cuts off venous drainage resulting in which of the following?
    a. Phimosis
    b. Epididymitis
    c. Varicocele
    d. Infarct of the testis
A

d. ow

95
Q
  1. Which of the following plexi supplies innervation to the testis?
    a. Renal plexus
    b. Inferior hypogastric plexi
    c. Superior hypogastric plexi
    d. All of the above
A

d. balls get it all

96
Q
  1. What stage (period) of lung maturation has the major elements except not those for gas exchange and this stage looks like an exocrine gland microscopically?
    a. Pseudoglandular
    b. Canalicular
    c. Alveolar
    d. Terminal saccular
A

a

97
Q
  1. The transverse cervical artery supplies _______________________.
    a. Latissimus dorsi and levator scapulae muscles
    b. Serratus anterior and trapezius muscles
    c. Serratus posterior superior and trapezius muscles
    d. Levatores costarum and rotatores muscles
A

c

98
Q
  1. What artery does the sphenoplatine artery come from?
    a. Facial artery
    b. Maxillary artery
    c. Angular artery
    d. Lingual artery
A

b

99
Q
  1. Which of the following is the anterior wall of the ischioanal fossa?
    a. Urogenital diaphragm
    b. Ischium and obturator internus muscle-lateral
    c. Skin-base
    d. Sacrotuberous ligament and gluteus maximus-posterior
A

a. Urogenital diaphragm
b. Ischium and obturator internus muscle-lateral
c. Skin-base
d. Sacrotuberous ligament and gluteus maximus-posterior

100
Q
  1. Which one of the following is a branch of the subscapular artery?
    a. Circumflex scapular artery
    b. Lateral thoracic artery
    c. Suprascapular artery
    d. Dorsal scapular artery
A

d

101
Q
  1. Karen Carpenter suffered with anorexia so what abnormality would she probably have due to the backup of urine in the kidney?
    a. Acute tubular necrosis (ATN)
    b. Cystitis
    c. Pyelitis
    d. Hydronephrosis
A

d

102
Q
  1. A child, whom you are babysitting, suddenly turns blue after eating a large piece of apple. Where is the MOST LIKELY location of this piece of apple?
    a. Left bronchus
    b. Right bronchus
    c. Esophagus
    d. Epiglottis
A

b

103
Q
  1. What is the most common cause for female pseudohermaphroditism?
    a. Over production of estrogen
    b. 5-alpha reductase deficiency
    c. Congenital adrenal hypoplasia
    d. Congenital adrenal hyperplasia
A

d

104
Q
  1. Which of the following nerves has the following characteristics?
    - Spinal distribution of S2, S3, S5
    - Motor to muscles of perineum
    - Sensory to lower half of anal canal, perianal skin and external genitalia
    a. Sciatic nerve
    b. Pudendal nerve
    c. Femoral nerve
    d. Obturator nerve
A

b

105
Q
  1. An 18-year-old male comes into your office with slight enlargement of one of his testes without pain, and a CT scan or MRI shows enlarged lumbar lymph nodes. What is most likely at the top of your differential diagnosis?
    a. Testicular cancer
    b. Prostate cancer
    c. Rectal cancer
    d. Epididymitis
A

a

106
Q
  1. If your patient has a “worm-like” mass within the area of the spermatic cord, what would most likely be the cause?
    a. Sebaceous cyst
    b. Lipoma
    c. Vericocele
    d. Epididymal cyst
A

c

107
Q
  1. By the end of the ______ week, the cardiovascular system is established.
    a. 2nd
    b. 4th
    c. 7th
    d. 8th
A

dunno

108
Q
  1. Which one of the following nerves has the following spinal distributions: ventral root of L4-L5, S1-S2 spinal nerves, posterior division?
    a. Femoral nerve
    b. Obturator nerve
    c. Tibial division of sciatic nerve
    d. Common fibular division of sciatic nerve
A

c…?

109
Q
  1. Which triangle has the following boundaries—trapezius, sternocleidomastoid, and omohyoid muscles?
    a. Subclavian triangle
    b. Occipital triangle
    c. Muscular triangle
    d. Carotid triangle
A

b

110
Q
  1. What is the lateral border of the cubital fossa?
    a. Tendon of biceps brachii muscles
    b. Between medial and lateral epicondyles
    c. Pronator teres muscle
    d. Brachioradialis muscle
A 
d
of biceps brachii muscles
b.	Between medial and lateral epicondyles
c.	Pronator teres muscle- medial
d.	Brachioradialis muscle
111
Q
  1. Which one of the following is a characteristic of a NORMAL female pelvis?
    a. Turned in ischial tuberosities-
    b. Heart-shaped pelvic inlet-
    c. Shallow false pelvis-
    d. Narrow, deep true pelvis
A

a. Turned in ischial tuberosities- male
b. Heart-shaped pelvic inlet- male
c. Shallow false pelvis- female
d. Narrow, deep true pelvis -male

112
Q
  1. The inferior vena cava begins at __________.
    a. T12
    b. T10
    c. L4
    d. L5
A

d

113
Q
  1. What is the area between the sternum and the pericardium called on x-rays?
    a. Retrosternal clear area of space
    b. Empty space
    c. Subpericardial region
    d. Parasternal space
A

a

114
Q
  1. Which muscle covers the posterior wall of the pelvic cavity?
    a. Piriformis muscle
    b. Levator ani muscle
    c. Pubococcygeus muscle
    d. Obturator internus m
A

a. Piriformis muscle
b. Levator ani muscle- inferior as part of pelvic diaphragm
c. Pubococcygeus muscle- inferior as part of pelvic diaphragm
d. Obturator internus muscle- lateral wall

115
Q
  1. What type of hernia is located lateral to the inferior Epigastric artery?
    a. Umbilical hernia
    b. Indirect inguinal hernia
    c. Direct inguinal hernia
    d. Femoral hernia
A

b

116
Q
  1. Which one of the following is found at the landmark at the angle of Louis?
    a. Larynx
    b. Thymus
    c. Arch of azygos vein
    d. Descending aorta
A

c

117
Q
  1. What plane divides the body into equal right and left halves?
    a. Median sagittal plane
    b. Parasagittal plane
    c. Transverse plane
    d. Coronal plane
A

a

118
Q
  1. What is the innervation of the buccinator muscle?
    a. Facial nerve
    b. Trigeminal nerve, ophthalmic division
    c. Trigeminal nerve, maxillary division
    d. Trigeminal nerve, mandibular division
A

a

119
Q
  1. Where is the primary motor cortex located?
    a. Brodmann’s area 3, 1, 2
    b. Brodmann’s area 4
    c. Brodmann’s area 17, 18 v
    d. Brodmann’s area 11
A

a. Brodmann’s area 3, 1, 2 sensory
b. Brodmann’s area 4
c. Brodmann’s area 17, 18 visual
d. Brodmann’s area 11 frontal cortex

120
Q 
113.	The muscles of mastication are derived from what pharyngeal arch?
1
2
3
4
A

a. 1st- mastication
b. 2nd- facial expression
c. 3rd- Stylopharyngeus muscle in the neck, Greater cornua and inferior portion of the body of the hyoid bone
d. 4th- Pharyngeal constrictor mm., levator veli palatini and cricothyroid mm.

121
Q
  1. Which one of the following nerves is sensory, is a common cause for headaches, and found along the outside of the muscles making up the suboccipital triangle?
    a. Suboccipital nerve
    b. Posterior auricular nerve
    c. Greater occipital nerve
    d. 3rd (least) occipital nerve
A

c

122
Q
  1. The patent portion of the umbilical artery supplies which of the following?
    a. Upper part of urinary bladder-superior vesicle artery
    b. Lower part of urinary bladder
    c. Upper part of gall bladder
    d. Lower part of liver
A

a

123
Q
  1. You are helping Dr. Moore perform an autopsy and you both note there is outpouching along the antimesenteric side of the ileum about 2 feet from the ileocecal valve. What is the term for this abnormality?
    a. Meckel’s diverticulum
    b. Colonic diverticulum
    c. Zenker’s diverticulum

d. Volvulus

A

a. Meckel’s diverticulum
b. Colonic diverticulum- outpouching (sac) of intestinal wall of the colon, not entire layer
c. Zenker’s diverticulum- diverticulum of the mucosa of the pharynx, just above the cricopharyngeal muscle
d. Volvulus- twisting of the GI tract

124
Q
  1. What muscle depresses the lower 4 ribs during forced expiration?
    a. Levatores costarum
    b. Serratus anterior
    c. Serratus posterior superior
    d. Serratus posterior inferior
A

a. Levatores costarum- elevates ribs, flexes and rotates trunk to same side
b. Serratus anterior- rotates scapula to abduct the arm. pulls scapula around thoracic cage along with stabilize the scapula
c. Serratus posterior superior- raises ribs during forced respiration
d. Serratus posterior inferior

gross anatomy 2 (1 decks)

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