Final Flashcards
ASA 1
Normal healthy patient. Excludes the very young and very old.
ASA 2
Pregnant women and smokers are already in this category. Mild, controlled systemic disease. No functional limitations. Hypertension, diabetes, mild obesity, etc.
ASA 3
Severe systemic disease. Some functional limitation. No immediate danger of death. CHF, stable angina, previous heart attack, poorly controlled hypertension, morbid obesity, chronic renal failure, etc.
ASA 4
Severe systemic disease that is a constant threat to life. Poorly controlled or at end stage severe disease. Unstable angina, symptomatic COPD, symptomatic CHF, etc.
ASA 5
Moribound patients who are not expected to survive without the operation. Probably won’t last more than 24 hours without surgery. Multi-organ failure, sepsis syndrome with hemodynamic instability, hypothermia, poorly controlled coagulopathy, etc.
ASA 6
Brain dead patient.
What ASA level do we treat?
ASA 1-3.
What local factors lead to attachment loss?
Overhanging restoration (usually not a problem if 5 mm from the bone), restoration encroaching on the biological width, defective crown margins, open contacts and food impaction, cervical enamel projections (usually lead to furcation invasion), enamel pearls, palatal radicular grooves, 3rd molars, marginal ridge discrepancies, malocclusion, root pathology such as fractures and perforations.
Where are enamel pearls most often found? What pathology are they associated with?
MX 2nd and 3rd molars, often lead to furcation invasion. CT cannot attach to the enamel.
What is the prevalence of palato-radicular grooves and what tooth do they most often occur on?
Prevalence: 8.5%
Lateral incisor: 4.4%
What percentage of cervical enamel projections occur on MN and MX molars?
MN: 28.6% of all molars
MX: 17% of all molars
Why are cervical enamel projections more susceptible to periodontal breakdown and bacterial infiltration?
The enamel, which continues further down the root, often into a furcation, is unable to have a CT attachment.
What are the descriptors we use for gingiva?
Color, contour, consistency, texture.
What is the color of gingiva determined by?
Vascular supply, thickness, keratinization.
What color is healthy gingiva vs. diseased gingiva?
Pink vs. Dark red/brown/purple/black due to excess vascular supply, increased keratinization.
pink, red, cyanotic
What is the contour/shape of gingiva determined by?
Location of the proximal contact.
What is the contour of healthy vs. diseased gingiva?
Knife-edged papilla vs. blunted papilla. (rolled, rounded, blunted, bulbous, cratered, clefted)
What is the consistency of gingiva determined by?
Collagenous lamina propria.
firm, fibrotic, spongy, soft
What is the consistency of healthy vs. diseased gingiva?
Firm vs. soft (usually due to edema)
What is the texture of the gingiva determined by?
Stippling. Does not indicate the presence or absence of disease.
What is the texture of healthy vs. diseased gingiva?
Stippled, smooth, shiny. DOES NOT INDICATE DISEASE.
How do you do a PSR exam?
You split the dentition into sextants: Upper right, upper anterior, lower left, etc. Use a who probe to record the deepest pocket depth per sextant. Also, note other findings such as mobility, furcation, bleeding, plaque, etc. If the patient has 2 or more code 3’s or asterisks, then a CPE is indicated.
What are the markings on the WHO probe and what do they mean?
Ball tip that measures 0.5 mm.
First section measures 3 mm in length.
2nd section (colored band) measures 3.5-5.5 mm.
Code 0
Colored band is completely visible, no BOP, no calculus, no defective margins.
Code 0 treatment?
Appropriate preventative care.
Code 1
Colored band completely visible, no calculus or defective margins, SOME BOP.
Code 1 treatment?
Supra and subgingival plaque removal and OHI.
Code 2
Colored band completely visible. BOP present. Supra or subgingival CALCULUS and or DEFECTIVE MARGINS.
Code 2 treatment?
Plaque and calculus removal, correct plaque retentive margins and OHI.
Code 3
COLORED BAND PARTIALLY SUBMERGED.
Code 3 treatment?
Will need CPE of affected sextant if only one sextant is affected. If two or more sextants are affected, a full mouth CPE is indicated.
Code 4
COLORED BAND COMPLETELY DISAPPEARS. Depth is greater than 5.5 mm.
Code 4 treatment?
Automatically, full CPE.
What does an asterisk mean on a PSR score?
Furcation involvement, tooth mobility, mucogingival problems, gingival recession extending to the colored band (3.5 or greater). So, even if a PSR score is low, but they have one of the above criteria, that means they need a CPE.
In what instances do you need a CPE?
If 2 or more sextants having a PSR of 3, if 1 sextant has a PSR of 4, if any sextant has an asterisk.
If you were to have a PSR code of 2 in all sextants or just 1 sextant with a PSR code of 3, what would be the treatment?
6 month recall, scheduled as an adult prophy.
What are the main components of a perio exam?
Medical history, dental histroy, intra/extra oral exam, check for presence of plaque and calculus (plaque index), perio charting with probing, FGM, furcation, suppuration and mobility. PSR score.
Where does the probe stop in health?
In healthy gingiva, the probe stops at the apical extent of the epithelium. You will experience resistance.