Final Flashcards

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1
Q

The meaning of litigious.

A

Increased engagement of lawsuits

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2
Q

Legal term for person initiating the lawsuit

A

Plaintiff

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3
Q

A court decision that becomes precedent is what type of law?

A

Case law

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4
Q

When there is no basis for trial and plaintiff wins as a matter of law it is called…

A

Summary judgement

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5
Q

Most important reason medical professionals should be familiar with law and ethics?

A

To help avoid legal entanglements that may threaten a successful living.

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6
Q

One regulation for manufacture of medical devices and pharm products.

A

In Drug injury cases is whether or not manufacturer made false or misleading statements to win FDA approval.

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7
Q

The role of moral values in society

A

Serving as a guide for personal ethical conduct

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8
Q

Term for state laws that apply to health practitioners in medical field

A

Medical practice acts

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9
Q

Conduct in workplace that draws upon influences of family, culture, and society is called…

A

moral values

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10
Q

Author of medical code of ethics in Babylonia around 2250 BC

A

Hammurabi

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11
Q

AMA member accused of unethical conduct by fellow members. What is recourse of group.

A

Expelling the physician from the group

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12
Q

Etiquette rules are determined by

A

Protocols

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13
Q

Qualities inherent to the critical thinking process

A

Identifying and clarifying problems

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14
Q

Organization that approves devices before marketed and meets all specifications

A

Food and Drug Administration

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15
Q

The purpose of the codes that govern health care professional’s practice

A

To increase the competence and standards of care within the profession

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16
Q

Meaning of D needs in Maslow’s heirarchy

A

Deficient

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17
Q

Current thought on how value development is made.

A

When people are born, they have no values in place.

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18
Q

The behavior of playing games and making up rules as you go along is what stage of normal development?

A

Preoperational stage

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19
Q

An example of subjective decision making in workplace …

A

Deciding how to handle a friend/co-worker’s alcohol problem

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20
Q

What type of framework is used when decision is based on results that will produce the greatest balance of good over evil, everyone considered.

A

Act-utilitarianism

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21
Q

Utilitarianism method - which do proponents indicate should be the solution of choice.

A

The solution that provides happiness over pain for those invovled.

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22
Q

Which of the following principles of health care ethics does informed consent protect?

A

Autonomy

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23
Q

A patient who was injured in a fall in a healthcare facility due to negligence of nurse files malpractice. What ethical principle applies in this situation?

A

Justice

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24
Q

Nurse practitioner double checks all meds prior to dispensing. Which of the seven principles of health care ethics is the nurse following?

A

Nonmaleficence

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25
Q

Principle of health care ethics used in discussion that everyone is entitled to health care regardless of ability to pay for that care.

A

Justice

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26
Q

Doctor prescribes placebo who feels patient is complaining of pain that is not there. What example of violation of principle of health care ethics?

A

Veracity

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27
Q

Medical tech speaking loudly about patient blood test outside patient’s door violates what principle of health care ethics

A

Confidentiality

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28
Q

What is the unique focus of healthcare providers that challenges them to make sound ethical decisions.

A

The present and future health of the patient

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29
Q

The nurse is planning care for a client and makes a list of all the options from which to choose. This is an example of what step of the decision making process?

A

Step 3

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30
Q

Achievement of state requirements for credentials to practice is called …

A

licensure

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31
Q

Managed health care plan accredited by NCQA - what accurate regarding participation in this certification program?

A

Approximately half of the nation’s HMOs are accredited

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32
Q

Physician moves to another state asking new state to accept old license is ….

A

Reciprocity

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33
Q

Basic difference between MDs and DOs

A

MDs are trained in allopathic medicine

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34
Q

Reason med students more likely to specialize than remain generalists

A

Lack of attractiveness of general practice in rural and underserved areas

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35
Q

Situation when phys doesn’t need valid license to practice in state

A

Engaged solely in research & not treating patients

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36
Q

License can be revoked for felony, unprofessional conduct or incapacity. What considered unprofessional conduct?

A

falsifying records

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37
Q

A primary mandate of medical practice acts in all 50 states

A

Define what is meant by “practice of medicine” in each state

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38
Q

PA employed by physician is a medical office. Which describes the role of this health care team member?

A

The PA can legally perform more procedures than a registered nurse.

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39
Q

Example of fraud

A

Falsifying a medical diploma

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40
Q

A test to determine whether an employee was acting with the scope of employment when a negligent act is committed.

A

The act serves the interest of the employer.

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41
Q

Disadvantage of a sole proprietorship practice

A

Physician has unlimited personal liability

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42
Q

Arrangement where 2 drs practice individually but share office space and employees is called

A

Associate practice

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43
Q

Advantage of 3 physicians form partnership under written agreement.

A

Sharing the workload and expenses

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44
Q

Patient in managed care insurance program pays $500 annually for plan - payment called

A

Deductible

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45
Q

Immanuel Kant defined categorical imperative as the guiding principle for all decision making. What is the meaning of this principle?

A

There are no exceptions from the rule.

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46
Q

System to keep any one branch of gov from assuming too much power

A

checks and balances

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47
Q

3 branches of gov which is a characteristic of state governements

A

The governor is the head of the state’s branch.

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48
Q

Type of law based on customs and traditions of the people

A

common law

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49
Q

Individual laws, called statutes start as …

A

Bills

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50
Q

Laws such as those pertaining to the functioning of the IRS are known as:

A

Administrative law

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51
Q

Practicing medicine without a license is what type of law violation?

A

Criminal

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52
Q

Punishment for a felony

A

Death or imprisonment in a state or federal prison for more than one year

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53
Q

A nurse who steals narcotic drugs from a medication cart is committing what type of crime?

A

Criminal

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54
Q

Civil law includes a general category of law known as torts. What is not a tort?

A

Breach of contract

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55
Q

Example of an unintentional tort

A

Negligence

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56
Q

What element of a contract is fulfilled when an acute-care facility makes an offer and the patient accepts it?

A

Agreement

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57
Q

An agreement with a mentally incompetent person may be set aside or validated at a later date because it is ….

A

voidable

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58
Q

An implied contract results from …

A

The actions of the parties involved

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59
Q

When is the patient/physician contract usually terminated?

A

When the treatment ends and the bill is paid.

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60
Q

Which of the following legislation governs the extension of consumer credit if the credit is offered to consumers on a regular basis, is subject to a finance charge and is for personal, family, or household purposes?

A

Regulation Z

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61
Q

The term for employers legal responsibility for employees.

A

Liable

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62
Q

What responsibility for employees does not fall under what employers must do?

A

Employee safety to and from work place

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63
Q

Concept of a certain standard of care expected of health care practitioners.

A

An expected level of performance

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64
Q

A health care worker is responsible for his or her actions or failure to act. Which of the following best describes this responsibility to prevent negligence from occurring?

A

Reasonable person standard

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65
Q

What is true regarding the standard of care expected of an obstetrics physician

A

Held to the same standard as other obstetricians.

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66
Q

Which of the following is an example of privileged communication?

A

A patient tells his physician that he is addicted to pain killers.

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67
Q

In which of the following situation may patient confidentiality be waived?

A

When a third party requests a medical examination of a person for employment.

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68
Q

The basis for professional malpractice claims and the most common liability in medicine?

A

Negligence

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69
Q

A nurse dispensing a painkiller to a patient without the physician’s order for the medication is an example of which tort?

A

Malfeasance

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70
Q

An example of misfeasance.

A

A nurse is changing a patient’s IV line, but does not wash her hands prior to procedure.

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71
Q

Not one of the 4 Ds of negligence.

A

Defense

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72
Q

The english meaning for res ipsa loquitur

A

The thing speaks for itself

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73
Q

A judge award plaintiff $1 is known as what type of award.

A

Nominal

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74
Q

A set of written questions requiring written answers are given to a plaintiff while under oath.

A

Interrogatory

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75
Q

A neutral 3rd party listening to both sides of the argument and helping resolve the dispute is called.

A

Mediation

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76
Q

4 cs of med malpractice prevention - The C with the benefits of improved medical condition and decreased likelihood that they will sue

A

Caring

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77
Q

The 4 c that states if it isn’t in writing it wasn’t done.

A

Charting

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78
Q

The highest rated action that might prevent litigation.

A

An explanation and apology

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79
Q

Defense for med malpractice claiming patient didn’t follow treatment regimen prescribed and contributed to own injury.

A

Contributory negligence

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80
Q

Defense to professional liability suits is informed consent one of the most important elements

A

Assumption of risk

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81
Q

Physician comes to aid in earthquake and sued for malpractice would not be held liable under common law if defense established which of the following

A

The appropriate standard of care was met, given the emergency situation.

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82
Q

What does res judicata mean

A

The thing has been decided

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83
Q

The statute of limitations generally specifies how many years.

A

1-6 years

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84
Q

Most common dates for marking the beginning of the statutory period is …

A

The day the alleged act was committed.

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85
Q

Term for determining and eliminating problems that may lead to a malpractice lawsuit.

A

Risk Management

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86
Q

employer’s plan in place to ensure all gov regs are enforced in office

A

Compliance

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87
Q

Liability insurance to work in a partnership with other physicians. What does insurance cover?

A

Potential damages incurred as a result of a negligent act

88
Q

Upon what is the cost of liability premium based

A

Physician specialty and dollar amount covered by the policy.

89
Q

The coverage a claims-made liability policy provides for the designated period.

A

The determining factor is when the claim is made, not when the injury occurs.

90
Q

Policy that covers incidents that occurred before the beginning of a new insurance relationship but have not yet been brought to the insured’s attention as a claim.

A

Prior acts insurance coverage

91
Q

What does a subpoena deces tecum provide as evidence?

A

Medical records

92
Q

What should not be a part of a patient’s medical record?

A

personal judgements

93
Q

How do you correct errors to medical record.

A

Draw a line through the error so that it is still legible and write above or below the line.

94
Q

Who owns the medical records generated by a physician’s office?

A

The physician

95
Q

Who owns the information contained in medical records?

A

The patient

96
Q

What is the usual timeframe for keeping records against litigation?

A

2 - 7 years

97
Q

How does patient transfer to another physician?

A

Patient signs an authorization to release his or her records to the new physician.

98
Q

Confidentiality of Alcohol and Drug Abuse, Patient Records is designed to protect what info

A

patient treatment

99
Q

legal term for patient giving permission to examine or treat

A

consent

100
Q

Example of implied consent

A

patient makes an appointment for an examination

101
Q

Example of patient who usually cannot give informed consent

A

adult who is mentally incompetent

102
Q

Good Samaritan Acts protects physicians from being charged with …

A

negligence

103
Q

What action by a physician helping at a car accident would negate immunity under the Good Samaritan Acts?

A

Billing for services

104
Q

legislation that mandates procedures and standards for electronic transmission and storage of health care info

A

HIPAA

105
Q

Patient making effort to read info on providers computer screen concerning other patient - what should be done?

A

Fix the computer so no information is on the screen.

106
Q

Limited PHI data set is one

A
  • in which the direct identifiers have been removed
  • used for research
  • used for public health purposes
107
Q

How many patient rights does HIPAA rules set

A

six

108
Q

Standard 2, the Privacy Rule, states that

A

policies and procedures must be in place to protect unauthorized viewers from accessing PHI

109
Q

Right to privacy is found in what amendment of constitution

A

None

110
Q

A Notice of Privacy Practices NPP is a document that every …

A

patient is asked to read and sign

111
Q

HIPAA now requires that

A

code sets must be uniform throughout the country

112
Q

Under HIPAA patients may not receive these directly

A
  • Psych notes
  • Records compiled for legal action
  • Lab results direct from lab
113
Q

Persons performing disaster relief notification activities

A

may receive PHI from providers unless the patient objects

114
Q

FDA is entitled to PHI when

A
  • Saafety issues are apparent
  • Adverse events related to drugs are apparent
  • Product recalls
115
Q

Law enforcement officials are entitled to PHI

A

in certain specific circumstances, such as a gun shot wound or child abuse

116
Q

Protected psych notes include

A

NOT - prescriptions, results of clinical tests, counseling start and stop times

117
Q

TPO disclosures within healthcare facility or in consultation with another practitioner

A

may require separate authorization from patient depending on the situation

118
Q

Example of incidental disclosure of PHI …

A
  • limited message on answering machine
  • patient sign in sheet
  • chart outside exam room w/ reasonable precautions to avoid patient identification
119
Q

handles problem of computer hacker accessing patient info

A

security officer

120
Q

Business associate under HIPAA is

A

person, group or organization outside med practice that has HIPAA approved reason to see protected health info

121
Q

unintentional exposures of content on your computer by …

A
  • shopping internet at work
  • downloading games or music from internet
  • sending receiving unsecured emails to from friends
122
Q

What do if patient complains privacy breached

A

speak to security office to try to handle complaint in office

123
Q

Privacy officer’s responsibilites

A
  • research privacy rules
  • develop privacy practices
  • train staff on privacy policies and procedures
124
Q

Not covered by HIPAA’s Security Rule

A

The contents of all documents pertaining to patient privacy.

125
Q

Not considered marketing under HIPAA provisions

A

A reminder to female patients when their mammograms should be scheduled.

126
Q

violation of HIPAA’s privacy rule

A
  • Call across a crowed waiting room to tell patient he has forgotten prescription for dilantin
  • telling friend that mutual friend is pregnant after seeing your employer
  • caller says from ins wanting PHI, don’t know caller, but you comply
127
Q

T/F Patients must submit complaints to the Secretary of Heath and Human Services through the office of Civil Rights

A

True

128
Q

HIPAA’s Privacy Rule protects PHI only in ..

A

ALL forms (electronic, written, spoken)

129
Q

T/F HIPAA requires that healthcare practitioners must change a med record if a patient complains

A

False

130
Q

Firewalls and encryption are software to

A

help ensure privacy of records

131
Q

Fed/state privacy laws based on these considerations

A

When info collected, person have opportunity to check the info for accuracy

132
Q

Act forbids fed agencies from allowing info to be released other than for what it was collected for.

A

privacy act

133
Q

Act guarantees workers change jobs can obtain ins and improves security and privacy of patient info

A

HIPAA

134
Q

Who has enforcement authority for HIPAA standards

A

Centers for Medicare and Medicaid Services (CMS)

135
Q

Per HIPAA who is covered entity?

A

Health care providers

136
Q

Physician gives info to managed care plan following what HIPAA process

A

Covered transactions

137
Q

what not a designated record set in hospital med records

A

personnel records

138
Q

What is name of HIPAA for patients sign

A

Notice of Privacy Practices

139
Q

What info is removed when patient record is de-identified?

A

All PHI is removed from patient record

140
Q

Hospital accounting dept hires outside accounting firm for billing they are what?

A

business associate

141
Q

Provider can disclose patient info but must identify reason for each use. Term for this reason

A

permission

142
Q

When forbidden to disclose PHI about a person

A

when person is subject of investigaation

143
Q

this PHI may be disclosed w/out consulting privacy officer

A

Coroners

144
Q

Definition of a limited data set

A

Protected health information with removal of certain patient identifiers.

145
Q

Initial patient action if feels practitioner has violated the HIPAA privacy rule.

A

Patient must file a written complaint w/ the secretary of HHS.

146
Q

Describes encryption

A

Info is scrambled or encoded before sending electronically

147
Q

T/F Employer cannot access an employee’s health record without patient permission.

A

True

148
Q

T/F One physician cannot send a patient’s records to another physician w/out patient consent.

A

False

149
Q

T/F HIPAA requires that healthcare practitioners must change a medical record if a patient complains

A

False

150
Q

T/F Provider disclosing info to a patient’s husband w/out patient consent after the patient identifies him as entitled to receive info is not a violation of HIPAA.

A

True

151
Q

Concern about …. has led to enactment of many fed/state laws governing collection, storage, transmission, and disclosure of personal data.

A

Privacy

152
Q

If state’s privacy laws stricter than HIPAA which takes precedence?

A

State

153
Q

W/in HIPAA, …. means that a health care provider can provide care.

A

treatment

154
Q

HIPAA’s Security Rule pertains just to PHI in … from, while the law’s Privacy Rule protects PHI in … forms

A

Electronic

All

155
Q

Using and disclosing PHI must fall w/in eleven HIPAA-defined ….

A

permissions

156
Q

Purpose of collecting fed vital stats of birth, death, marriage, divorces, and changes in civil status.

A

to assess population trends and needs

157
Q

… responsible for collecting much of vital stats

A

health care practitioners

158
Q

Who completes med portion of death cert?

A

attending physician

159
Q

the role of coroner or med examiner in event of death.

A

Med examiner who is frequently a pathologist may order and perform an autopsy.

160
Q

Main reason health care practitioners required to report sexually transmitted infections to state.

A

to treat others who may be infected.

161
Q

Person with what STI required to tell sexual partners.

A

person w/ HIV

162
Q

National Childhood Vaccine Injury Act of 1986 created National Vaccine Injury Compensation Program to protect who.

A

Vaccine manufacturers

163
Q

What info regarding vaccine does not need to be in patient’s permanent med record?

A

Location of the vaccine manufacturer

164
Q

What not a mandated reportable injury?

A

suspected spousal abuse however patient does not admit it occurred.

165
Q

Example of vulnerable adult who many states have passed laws to protect.

A

Mentally challenged adult.

166
Q

Laci and Conner’s law passed to protect …

A

fetuses

167
Q

As of Feb. 2011 35 states recognize death of unborn child in some circumstances as what …

A

homicide

168
Q

Which of the following agencies tests and approves drugs before releasing them for public use?

A

FDA

169
Q

T/F Physician must keep records concerning administering or dispensing of controlled drug on file for two years.

A

True

170
Q

Which schedule of drugs are used strictly for research?

A

Schedule I

171
Q

Employment-at-will

A

Employer or employee can end the employment anytime for any reason

172
Q

Just cause in wrongful discharge lawsuit

A

employee is sexually harassing another employee

173
Q

Example of quid pro quo

A

resident offered opportunity to scrub in on a procedure if dates surgeon

174
Q

Programs to give preferential treatment to minority persons who did not have opportunities given to them in the past

A

affirmative action

175
Q

A provision of the Civil Rights Act of 1991

A

Employees may collect punitive damages fro discrimination

176
Q

Provides for overtime pay and minimum wage

A

1938 Fair Labor Standards Act

177
Q

OSHA’s major concern

A

Safety in the workplace

178
Q

Best source for OSHA standards

A

the Federal Register

179
Q

Initial action for OSHA violation

A

Ask the employer to voluntarily remedy the situation

180
Q

employee right-to-know laws protect from

A

unsafe work environments

181
Q

Guideline for handling hazardous materials at work

A

employer must provide Material Safety Data Sheet for each hazardous chemical.

182
Q

Act that mandates employers maintain a sharps injury log and involved non managerial employees in selecting safer med devices

A

Occupational Exposure to Bloodborn Pathogen Standard

183
Q

Initial action if injured on the job

A

Report injury to a supervisor

184
Q

Info potential employer CAN ask about

A

education

185
Q

What does bondable mean

A

employee can be insured in case he or she embezzles funds

186
Q

Science that explains blue eyes in children of parents with blue eyes

A

genetics

187
Q

of chromosomes

A

46

188
Q

Contain characteristics for eye, skin, and hair color in chromosomes.

A

genes

189
Q

Human Genome Project’s purpose

A

to locate and map the location of all 46 genes

190
Q

how to test if harmful genes are present in baby during pregnancy

A

amniotic fluid

191
Q

permanent change in DNA and usual cause of genetic diseases

A

mutation

192
Q

Term for manipulating DNA w/in cells

A

genetic engineering

193
Q

Describes cloning

A

clone is genetically identical to the parent

194
Q

Bringing couple’s eggs and sperm together in test tube then transplanting embryo

A

In vitro fertilization

195
Q

Difference b/ween traditional and gestational surrogate mother

A

traditional - related to fetus

gestational - not related to fetus

196
Q

Legal doctrine allows state to act in best interest of child

A

Parens Patriae

197
Q

parent leaves infant at nurse’s station and protected from full legal prosecution

A

safe haven law

198
Q

Legal rights for newborns in US

A

same as any other Amer of any age

199
Q

17 yr old meets require for informed consent and lives with parent is considered

A

mature minor

200
Q

A right guaranteed to emancipated minors

A

Right to Privacy

201
Q

Criteria for death under Uniform Determination of Death Act

A

Entire brain ceases to function

202
Q

PVS by irreversible cessation of higher functions of brain most often caused by damage to what

A

cerebral cortex

203
Q

can be said death results from lack of which

A

oxygen

204
Q

what may happen to determine cause of death if under suspicious conditions

A

autopsy

205
Q

lung cancer patient w/ death imminent under what type of care

A

palliative

206
Q

educational programs for health have placed more emphasis on what type of care

A

curative

207
Q

Courses in thanatology focuses on.

A

Death and psychological methods of coping with it

208
Q

Right to die matter in courts in 1976 w/ death of whom

A

Karen Ann Quinlan

209
Q

1989 Uniform Rights of Terminally Ill Act serves as guideline for state legislatures in constructing laws addresses …

A

advance directives

210
Q

State legislation first to permit physician-assisted suicide in certain circumstances

A

Oregon’s Death with Dignity Act

211
Q

Physician agrees to withhold med treatment is an example of what type of euthanasia.

A

passive

212
Q

Not considered an advance directive

A

voluntary suicide

213
Q

legal term for advance directive specifying individual’s end of life wishes for med treatment w/o appointing a designee to make legal decisions

A

living will

214
Q

National Organ Transplant Act addresses what

A

shortage of organs

215
Q

best description for grief

A

grief is human reaction to loss