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PTRS 825 > final > Flashcards

final Flashcards

1
Q 
Physical function (ADL's)
presence of comorbidities
smoking status
global cognitive funciton
systolic blood pressure
depression
personality traits
A

Predictors of successful aging

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2
Q

the sum of all chemical reactions that occur in a living organism

A

metabolism

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3
Q

the transfer and utilization of energy in biological systems

A

Bioenergetics

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4
Q

Thermodynamics 1st law

A

Energy can be neither created nor destroyed

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5
Q

Thermodynamics 2nd law

A

All processes move from ordered to disordered states

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6
Q

a measure of disorder, solid has the least and gas has the most

A

entropy

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7
Q

Chemical reactions spontaneously proceed in an ___________ direction

A

energy favorable

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8
Q

Many biological reactions are thermodynamically __________

A

unfavorable

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9
Q

unfavorable reactions can be driven by _________

A

coupling with energetically favorable reactions

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10
Q

Energy sources for cellular activity

A

Carb
fat
Protein

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11
Q

at rest ___ and ___ are used for energy

A

CHO and fat

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12
Q

____ serves primarily as building blocks for tissue; provides little energy for cellular activity

A

Protein

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13
Q

Readily available and easily metabolized

A

CHO

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14
Q

what is glucose taken up by and then converted to glycogen

A

liver and muscles

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15
Q

where is glycogen stored

A

liver

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16
Q

Advantages of glycogen for cellular activity

A

High energy yield per liter of O2 uptake
Metabolized aerobically and anaerobically
Rapid metabolic pathway
Stores can be greatly increased by training and diet
Can provide sole source of energy during heavy exercise

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17
Q

Disadvantages of glycogen for cellular activity

A

Stored in relatively small amounts, with large amounts of H2O
Anaerobic metabolism results in accumulation of lactate, which can interfere with cellular processes
Muscle cells are dependent on internal glycogen stores, once depleted moderate intensity exercise cant continue

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18
Q

Advantages of fat for cellular activity

A

Greatest energy value of any fuel
Can be stored in large mounts in tissues throughout the body
Stable energy sources that can be mobilized for used during exercise

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19
Q

Disadvantages of fat for cellular activity

A

Total caloric value of intermuscular lipid of small compared to glycogen
Only metabolized aerobically
Oxidation yields less energy per liter of O2 consumed than CHO
Majority of fat is stored outside of muscle tissue
Cannot serve as sole energy source

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20
Q

1 gram of CHO yeilds

A

17 KJ of energy (4 kcal)

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21
Q

1 gram of fat yields

A

37 KJ of energy (9 kcal)

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22
Q

For every 1 g or glycogen ____

A

2.7 grams of H2O are stored

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23
Q

can be used as energy source if converted to glucose via glucogenesis
Can generate FFAs in times of starvation through lipogenesis

A

Protein

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24
Q

CHO would support energy demand for

A

2-2.5 hours

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25
Q

fat oxidation would support energy demand for

A

3-5 days

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26
Q

Protein oxidation would support energy demand for

A

2.5 days

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27
Q

surrounds entire muscle; also known as fascia

A

Epimysium

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28
Q

Surrounds fasciculi

A

Perimysium

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29
Q

Surrounds myocytes

A

Endomysium

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30
Q

Muscle cell membrane; underlies the endomysium

A

Sarcolemma

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31
Q

Invaginations of the sarcolemma
Transmit action potential into interior muscle cell
Closely apposed to sarcoplasmic reticulum

A

Transverse (T) tubules

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32
Q

Membranous sac underlying the sarcolemma
Responsible for calcium storage, release and reuptake
Integral to muscle contraction

A

Sarcoplasmic Reticulum

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33
Q

Bulbous enlargements of the SR

Store and release calcium

A

Terminal Cisternae

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34
Q

contains sarcoplasm, cellular proteins, organelles and myofibrils

A

Sarcolemma

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35
Q 
divided into individual contractile units - sarcomeres
Thick filaments (myosin)
Thin filaments (actin)
Troponin and tropomyosin are located on actin protein
A

Myofibrils

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36
Q

Specifies and coordinates assembly of structural, regulatory and contractile proteins
Links Z disk to M line of sarcomere
Contributes to muscle extensibility and passive force development

A

Titin/connectin

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37
Q

Molecular ruler: incorporated into and co-extensive with actin and precisely regulates actin length

A

Nebulin

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38
Q

Intimately surround sarcomere, primarily at Z disk and M band regions
Coordinates assembly and organization of SR with myofilaments

A

Obscurin

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39
Q

Myosin is made up of

A

2 heavy chain polypeptides (MHC): Light meromyosin (LMM) and Heavy meromyosin (HMM)
and
4 light chain pylypeptides ( MLC)

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40
Q

Intertwine in double helix formation to form molecular backbone

A

Light meromyosin

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41
Q

Project outward to form neck of globular head

A

Heavy meromyosin

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42
Q

MHC isoforms are derterminde by

A

ATPase activity and contribute to contraction velocity (determine muscle type)

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43
Q

Each S1/S2 conplex contains 1 essential and 1 regulator light chain

A

Light chain polypeptides

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44
Q

Comprises majority of thin myofilament
Arranged in double helix formation
Contains myosin binding sites

A

Actin

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45
Q

Resides in groove along length of actin protein

Block myosin binding site under resting conditions

A

Tropomyosin

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46
Q

Spaced at regular intervals along length of actin protein

3 distinct subunits that regulates position of tropomyosin relative to myosin binding site

A

Troponin

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47
Q

Low M- ATPase activity associated with

A

Lower maximum contraction velocity and longer time to peak tension

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48
Q

High M-ATPase activity associated with

A

Higher maximum contraction velocity and shorter time to peak tension

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49
Q

Exercise training does not override myocytes ________ but may alter ____ resulting in ____

A

Intrinsic, genetically determined qualities
histological characteristics,
intermediate changes

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50
Q

what can gene expression be influenced by?

A 
Contractile activity
Loading conditions
Substrate availability
Hormones
Environment
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51
Q

Myoplastic adaptation can occur at the level of

A 
Structure
type
Metabolism
Energy storage
Capillary density, capillary; fiber ratio
Funciton
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52
Q

Myoplasticity adaptations to endurance training

A 
increased oxidative capacity
increased mitochondrial density
Increase expression fo type 1 fibers
Reduced expression of type 2b fibers
reduced expression of type 2a fibers
Little change in CSA or glycolytic capacity
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53
Q

Myoplasticity adaptations to resistance training

A 
Increased CSA
Increased number of nuclei/cell
Reduced mitocondrial density
Reduced expression of type 1 fibers
reduced expression of type 2b fibers
Increased expresion of type 2a fibers
Little change in capillary or enzymatic capacity
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54
Q

What do adaptations to endurance training result in

A

Delayed onset of metabolic acidosis
Increased fatigue resistance
Increased oxygen consumption

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55
Q

What do adaptation to resistance training result in?

A

Increased contractility
Improved elasticity
Improved neuromotor recruitment

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56
Q

Defective gene disorder
X chromosome that leads to an inability to produce dystrophin
X linked recessive disorder

A

Duchenne’s muscular dystophy

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57
Q

Protein is degraded when subjected to mechanical overload

This stimulates molecular pathways that favor protein synthesis

A

Hypertrophy

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58
Q

Hypertrophy increases the ____ and _____ of ________ and number of _______ in parallel

A

size
amount
contractile elements
sarcomeres

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59
Q

Hypertrophy augments the diameter of individual fibers, resulting in an ____ in ________ and _______

A

increase
Cross sectional area
strength

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60
Q

recommended protein intake for sedentary adults

A

.8 g protein/kg BW/day

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61
Q

Recommended protein intake for physically active adults

A

1 g protein/kg BW/day

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62
Q

Excess protein on intake is _____

A

oxidized

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63
Q

Oxidation of amino acids increases _____ formation, potentially resulting in _______ and ________

A

urea
diuresis
dehydration

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64
Q

Overload may stimulate _______ of myocytes from _______

A

proliferation

satellite cells

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65
Q

There is little evidence that_______ causes hyperplasia to any significant degree in humans

A

resistance training

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66
Q

Neuromuscular adaptations to resistance training ( the physiologic effects)

A 
increased motor unit firing rate
Increased motor unit recruitment
increased motor unit synchronization
increased reflex neural facilitation
increased coordination of antagonist muscles
inhibition of golgi tendon organs
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67
Q

contractile adaptation to resistance training (physiologic effect)

A 
increased muscle mass
increased CSA
increased type 2 fiber area
increased intracellular lipid contact
increased ATP utilization rate
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68
Q

Elastic adaptations to resistance training

A

Series elastic components: tendons and myocyte crossbridges translate stretch into force
Parallel elastic components: collagenous structures stabilize and protect muscle
Stretch-shortening cycle

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69
Q

Stretch creates potential energy that can enhance forces produced by contractile elements

A

Stretch-shortening cycle

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70
Q

factors that drive adaptation

A

overload
specificity
reversibility
individuality

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71
Q

Muscle tension must be developed at adequate intensity and duration

A

overload

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72
Q

training must stress the muscle/fibers/motor units that need to perform

A

Specificity

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73
Q

DIsuse result in loss of muscle

A

reversibility

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74
Q

Strength gains can be variable

A

individuality

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75
Q

Muscle mass peaks between _____ years of age

A

25-30

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76
Q

Patassium is concentrated

A

intracellularly

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77
Q

Sodium and chloride are concentrated

A

Extracellularly

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78
Q

resting membrane potential is

A

-70 mV

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79
Q

what is the primary means by which neurons and myocytes recieve, transmit, and integrate information

A

Alterations in resting membrane

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80
Q

Neuromuscular communication occurs through the ______

A

Development and propagation of action potentials

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81
Q

_____ perturbations in membrane potential result in opening of _____ and rapid influx of ____ in to intracellular space

A

10-15 mV
sodium channels
sodium

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82
Q

The velocity at which action potentials are propagated along the cell membrane is primarily determined by two factors

A

Fiber diameter

Presence of myelin

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83
Q

Fiber diameter; larger diameter=

A

lower resistance= faster conduction

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84
Q

Localized disturbances in post-synaptic membrane potential
Arise from action of ion channels
Summation can occur spatially or temporally

A

Graded potentials

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85
Q

Excitatory post-synaptic potentials increase

A

sodium permeability

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86
Q

Inhibitory post-synaptic potentials increase ___ and decrease____

A

Cl permeability

sodium permeability

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87
Q

The basic functional unit of skeletal muscle

A

Motor unit

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88
Q

The ratio of motor neuron to muscle fiber is dependent on:

A

precision
accuracy
coordination of muscle movement required

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89
Q

Contains relay pathways from cerebellum, basal ganglia, and superior colliculus to motor cortex
Contributes to motor generation and self-monitoring

A

Thalamus

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90
Q

Regulates internal environment to maintain homeostasis
Temp, BP, HR, Contractility, respiration, digestion, fluid balance, emotion, neuroendocrines, sleep-wake appetite, thirst, etc

A

Hypothalamus

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91
Q

Receives visual and proprioceptive input
compares actual movement to motor plan
generates corrective responses
This coordinates the timing and sequence of muscle activity smoothing movement

A

Cerebellum

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92
Q

Autonomic regulatory centers for respiratory and cardiovascular centers
Reticular system: coordinates muscle function, maintains muscle tone, contributes to sleep-wake and consciousness, pain control

A

Brain stem

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93
Q

Transmits information from sensory organs, skin, blood and lymph vessels, tendons, and muscle to central somatosensory areas
(mechanoreceptors, thermoreceptors, nociceptors, photoreceptors, chemoreceptors)

A

Sensory system

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94
Q

components of motor system

A

Pyramidal

Extrapyramidal

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95
Q

Cortocospinal and corticobulbar tracts
innervate motor neuron in spinal cord and brainstem
Involved in voluntary movement

A

Pyramidal

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96
Q

Primarily located in reticular formation
Modulated by cortex, cerebellum, basal ganglia
involved in reflexes, postural control and coordination of movement

A

Extrapyramidal

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97
Q

Fight of flight

Important implications for exercise due to control or HR, vasculature and respiration

A

Sympathetic

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98
Q

Feed and Breed

Promotes synthesis of glycogen

A

Parasympathetic

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99
Q

Exercise testing in stroke

A

15% body weight support treadmill
Cycle ergometer
Recumbent Stepper
Submaximal test

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100
Q

considerations for strok

A 
Hemiparesis
Atrophy
Dyscoordination
Balance impairments
Visual perceptual/cognitive impairments
Hemodynamic abnormalities
fatigue
depression
Pain
decreased PA
Increase energy expenditure
Lack of clear protocol
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101
Q

Aerobic exercise goals for strok

A

Improve or maintain cardiovascular function and functional ability; reduce CV risk

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102
Q

Resistance exercise goals for stroke

A

Improve or maintain functional capacity; reduce risk of falls

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103
Q

Flexibility exercise goals for stroke

A

Improve or maintain ROM/prevent contracture

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104
Q

Progressive loss of dopaminergic cells in basal ganglia: Rigidity, resting tremor, bradykinesia, gait and postural disturbances, cognitive and affective disturbances

A

Parkinson’s disease

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105
Q

Considerations for PD

A 
Effects of exercise training are largely unknown
Balance and mobility impairments
Autonomic fluctuations
Impaired themoregulation
Environment
Depression
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106
Q

Aerobic exercise goals for PD

A

Improve or maintain cardiovascular function and functional ability

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107
Q

Resistance exercise goals for PD

A

Improve or maintain functional capacity; reduce risk of falls

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108
Q

Flexibility exercise goals for PD

A

Improve or maintain ROM/prevent contracture

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109
Q

Specific considerations for PD

A 
schedule training sessions consistently
increase duration slowly
Cognitive/affective issues complicate interpretation of RPE
Closely monitor medication changes
Monitor sweating/hydration closely
Monitor for painful dystonia
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110
Q

Chronic, inflammatory demyelination of the CNS
Disrupts neural transmission
Cycles of exacerbation-remission

A

Multiple Sclerosis

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111
Q

Considerations for MS

A 
Spasticity
Dyscoordination
Fatigue
Cardiovascular dysautonomia
Visual/cognitive disturbances
Heat sensitivity
Medications
Agonist/antagonist imbalance
thermoregulation/hydration
Incontinence
Exacerbation/remission
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112
Q

Dysfunction of ANS
Carsioacceleration
Blunted BP response

A

Cardiovascular dysautonomia

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113
Q

Medications for MS

A

Baclofen
Amitriptyline
Predisone
Interferon

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114
Q

Medications for PD

A

Levodopa
Pramipexole (Mirapex)
Ropinirole (requip)
Selegiline (Anipryl)

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115
Q

Aerobic exercise goals for PD (4-6 mo)

A

Improve or maintain cardiovascular function

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116
Q

Resistance exercise goals for PD (4-6 mo)

A

Improve or maintain functional capacity; reduce risk of falls

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117
Q

Flexibility exercise goals for PD (4-6 mo)

A

Improve or maintain ROM/ prevent contracture

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118
Q

Specific consideration for exercise and PD

A

Morning optimal time for testing/exercise
May require adaptive equipment for clonus or spasticity
Hydration is critical
Often have CAD risk factors

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119
Q

Family of disorders affecting upper and/or lower motor neurons
Can be inherited or sporadic
All are progressive
All spare sensory neurons

A

Motor Neuron Diseases

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120
Q

Considerations for MND

A 
Weakness
Atrophy
Spasticity
Dyscoordination
Fatigue
Depression 
Cognitive disturbances
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121
Q

Complete lack of evidence to determine exercise prescription
possible improvements in function, but not strength or quality of life
No adverse effects reported
Mild-moderate intensity aerobic and/or resistance training is likely beneficial

A

MND

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122
Q

cardiac cycle; relaxation phase

A

diastole
champers fill with blood
T wave to QRS

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123
Q

cardiac cycle; contraction phase

A

Systole
Chambers expel blood
QRS to T wave

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124
Q

time for atrial systole at rest

A

.15 sec

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125
Q

time for atrial diastole

A

.65 sec

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126
Q

Time for ventricular systole

A

.3 sec

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127
Q

Time for ventricular diastole

A

.5 sec

128
Q

cardiac cycle

A

.9 sec about 67 bpm

129
Q

Diastole (first phase)

A 
ventricular filling; 
inlet valves open
Outlet valves closed
Rapid filling phase
Atrial contraction
End-diastolic volume
130
Q

Isovolumeric contraction (second phase)

A

inlet and outlet valves closed
once ventricular pressure rises slightly above atrial, the AV valves close
Tensing wall and steep rise of pressure

131
Q

Ejection (third phase, systole)

A

.3 sec (no more)
Inlet valves closed; outlet valves open
3/4 of stroke volume ejected

132
Q

Isovolumetric Relaxation

A

.08 sec
Inlet and outlet valves closed
Ventricular pressure falls rapidly
pressure falls just below atrial pressure, AV valves open

133
Q

Autonomic nervous system in the cardiac cycle

A

PNS: housekeeping (relaxation)
SNS: homeostasis
responds to various stimuli

134
Q

PNS and the cardiac cycle

A

Vagus nerve
SA node
Rest
Light to moderate PA

135
Q

SNS and the cardiac cycle

A

Catecholamines

Near maximal and maximal effort

136
Q

Catecholamines

A

Epinephrine

Norepinephrine

137
Q

Maximal heart stimulation =

A

doubles force of ventricular contraction

138
Q

Cardiac Regulation

A

SA node

Atrioventricular node

139
Q

VO2 max =

A

Q (SVxHR) x arteriovenous oxygen difference

140
Q

amount of blood pumped out of the heart per unit time

A

cardiac output

141
Q

Q=

A

SVx HR

142
Q

SV =

A

end diastolic volume - end systolic volume

143
Q

Increases curvilinearly with work rate until it reaches near max at about 50% of aerobic capacity and increases slightly thereafter

A

Stroke volume

144
Q

More blood in the ventricle causes a greater stretch and contract with increased force
Increased ventricular contractility

A

Frank Starling mechanism

145
Q

average HR and range

A

60-80 bpm

30-100 bpm

146
Q

HR most likely to _____ with age due to _____

A

increase

decreased parasympathetic control

147
Q

______ the steady-state HR, the more ____ the heart

A

lower

efficient

148
Q

air in and out

A

ventilation

149
Q

exchange of o2 and co2

A

Respiration

150
Q

function of pulmonary ventilation

A

exchange o2
exchange CO2
control blood acidity
oral communication

151
Q

ventilation (VE) is the product of

A

tidal volume (TV) and breathing fequency (f); VE= TVxf

152
Q

mild to moderate exercise, ventilation is increase by

A

increasing tidal volume

153
Q

vigorous exercise ventilation is increased by

A

increasing breathing rate

154
Q

respiratory pattern of light exercise

A

increased tidal volume and RR

155
Q

tidal volume and RR both increase until

A

70-80% of peak exercise

156
Q

after 80% of peak volume

A

RR increases

157
Q

tidal volume generally plateaus at _____ of vital capacity

A

50-60%

158
Q

blood flow relationship with workload

A

linear

159
Q

______ sight of highest vascular resistance due to

A

arterioles

large pressure drop

160
Q

results in increased pressure within peripheral veins without a change in resistance, resulting in increased venous return to the heart

A

Venoconstriction

161
Q

if blood flow is the same through vessels of different sizes, the velocity of flow is…

A

inversely proportional to the cross-sectional area of the vessel

162
Q

if tube length doubles, flow

A

decreases by 50%

163
Q

if tube radius doubles, flw

A

increases by 16 fold

164
Q

if viscosity doubles, flow

A

decreases by 50%

165
Q

vasodilator

A

nitric oxide

166
Q

degree of constriction of a blood vessel (relative to its maximally dilated state)

A

Vascular tone

167
Q

what organs have increased vascular tone?

A

heart, muscle and skin

168
Q

Blood flow increase is proportional to

A

increase in metabolic activity

169
Q

as the metabolic activity of an organ increases

A

the O2 levels in the organ decrease

170
Q

as the O2 levels in the organ decrease

A

vasodilator metabolite levels increase

171
Q

as vasodilator metabolite levels increase

A

arterioles dilate

172
Q

as arterioles dilate

A

blood flow to the organ increases

173
Q

Blood flow is transiently increased following a brief period of total ischemia

A

Reactive hyperemia

174
Q

the degree and duration of reactive hyperemia are proportional to

A

the duration of the occlusion

175
Q

pacemaker of the heart

A

SA node

176
Q

what is the location of the SA node?

A

R atrium

177
Q

what is the intrinsic rate of the SA node

A

72 beats per min

178
Q

p wave represents

A

atrial depolarization

179
Q

QRS complex represents

A

ventricular depolarization

180
Q

T wave represents

A

ventricular repolarization

181
Q

major cardiovascular functions

A 
Delivery
Removal
Transport
Maintenance
Prevention
182
Q

Rise in CO2 disproportionate to a rise in O2 that indicates the level of exercise where the body has reached a level in which energy can no longer be solely supplied by aerobic metabolism

A

Anaerobic Threshold

183
Q

What happens above AT

A

Can no longer sustain prolonged workload

184
Q

CO2 rises due to

A

an increase in anaerobic metabolism which yields lactic acid

185
Q

an RER >1 indicates

A

anaerobic metabolism is present

186
Q

an RER > 1.09 indicates

A

maximal effort but may get as high at 1.29

187
Q

RER increases during exercise as

A

CO2 production rises at a greater rate than O2 consumption

188
Q

VO2 max =

A

(SV*HR) * arteriovenous oxygen difference

189
Q

VO2 improvements that can be made with training

A

10-30%

190
Q

amount of blood pumped out of the heart per unit time

A

Cardiac output (Q)

191
Q

Q at rest

A

5 L/min

192
Q

Q at exercise

A

20 L/min

193
Q

Q is related to

A

HR, preload, afterload, and contractility

194
Q

Q increases ___ with workload

A

linearly

195
Q

During exercise up to 50% of maximal capacity, Q increase is due to

A

SV and HR

196
Q

During exercise after 50% maximal capacity, Q increase is due to

A

primarily HR

197
Q

maximal Q increases with

A

increased conditioning mainly through SV

198
Q

SV=

A

end diastolic volume - end systolic volume

199
Q

Normal maximal SV is

A

about 100-200 ml/beat

200
Q

SV increases ______ with work rate until it reaches near mat at about _____ of aerobic capacity and increases slightly therafter

A

curvilinearly

50%

201
Q

___ is higher in trained individuals at any fixed or submax workload

A

SV

202
Q

More blood in the ventricle causes a greater stretch and contract with increased force (increased ventricular contractility)

A

Frank Starling mechanism

203
Q

proportion of blood pumped out of the left ventricle each beat

A

Ejection fraction (EF)

204
Q

EF =

A

SV/EDV

205
Q

average EF

A

about 60% in healthy adults

206
Q

average resting HR

A

60-80 bpm

207
Q

HR is most likely to ____ with age due to

A

decrease

decreased parasympathetic control

208
Q

Karvonen formula

A

(training range % (max HR - resting HR)) + resting HR

209
Q

resting HR decreases with

A

endurance training

210
Q

Gas moves from

A

an area with a high partial pressure to and area with low partial pressure

211
Q

Fick’s law of diffusion

A

the amount of gas that moves across a sheet of tissue is proportional to the area of the sheet but inversely proportional to its thickness

212
Q

Air comes in and is

A

heated
saturated with water vapor
and pollutants removed

213
Q

Respiratory pattern for light exercise

A

increased tidal volume and RR (until 70-80%)

214
Q

Respiratory pattern after 80% peak exersice

A

increased RR

215
Q

Tidal volume generally plateaus at

A

50-60% of vital capacity

216
Q

Shortness of breath. During exercise this is most often caused by inability to reacdjust the blood PCO2 and H+ due to poor conditioning or respiratory muscles

A

Dyspnea

217
Q

Increase in ventilation that exceeds the metabolic need for oxygen. Voluntary hyperventilation reduces the ventilatory drive by increasing blood pH

A

Hyperventilation

218
Q

A breathing technique to trap and pressurize air int he longs; if held for and extending period, it can reduce cardiac output. This technique is often used during heavy lifts and can be dangerous

A

Valsalva maneuver

219
Q

Respiratory muscles may use more than ___ of total oxygen consumed during heavy exercise

A

15%

220
Q

_______ is usually not a limiting factor for performance, even during maximal effort

A

Pulmonary ventilation

221
Q

Excess ____ or _____ impairs muscle contractility and ATP fromation

A

H+

decreased pH

222
Q

the respiratory system helps regulate ______ by ______ respiration when H+ levels rise. this allows more _____ to be released in the blood to be transported to the lungs for exhalation

A

acid-base balance
increasing
CO2

223
Q

difference btw oxygen content of arterial blood and venous blood

A

A-V O2 difference

224
Q

Normal A-V O2 difference

A

5 ml/O2/100ml/dl

225
Q

A-V O2 difference at exercise

A

15 ml/O2/100ml/dl

226
Q

Blood volume increases are primarily due to

A

increase in plasma volume

227
Q

Red blood cell volume ____, but _____ in plasma volume is higher, thus, hematocirt ____

A

increases
increases
decreases

228
Q

changes in plasma volume are highly correlated with changes in

A

SV and VO2 max

229
Q

if blood flow is the same through vessels of different sizes, the velocity of flow is

A

inversely proportional to the cross-sectional area of the vessel

230
Q

BP reflects

A

intra-arterial pressure during systole and diastole

231
Q

BP=

A

Q*total peripheral resistance

232
Q

_____ increase in systolic BP with exercise intensity

A

linear

233
Q

Long term nervous control of arterial blood pressure

A

kidneys and fluid balance

234
Q

short term nervous control of arterial blood pressure

A

cardiovascular system

235
Q

Mean arterial pressure =

A

cardiac output * total peripheral resistance

236
Q

any bodily movement produced by skeletal muscles that results in energy expenditure

A

physical activity

237
Q

a subset of physical activity that is planned, structured, and repetitive and has a final or an intermediate objective for the improvement of maintenance of physical fitness

A

Exercise

238
Q

normal responses to graded exercise testing

A 
Linear increase in systolic BP pp to workload
linear increase in HR pp to workload
Minimal change in diastolic BP
Shortened QT interval
Reduced R wave amp
Upsloping ST segment
239
Q

Absolute termination criteria for graded exercise testing

A 
abnormal exercise resonse
indication of MI
mod to severe angina
> 20 mmHg drop in SBP
Arrhythmia
Severe SOB
Diaphoresis
Dizziness, blurred vision, confusion
Request to stop
240
Q

Assumptions of sub-maximal testing

A 
linear relationship btw HR and VO2
Max HR at a given age is uniform
HR at a workload depends on fitness level
A steady HR is attained at each workload
Mechanical efficiency is uniform
241
Q

Advantages of submaximal exercise testing

A 
Safety
controlled pace
not pop specific
quick
easy to administer
Inexpensive
Potential for group testing
242
Q

Disadvantages of submaximal exercise testing

A

Indirect measure of VO2 with an error rate

Estimation of maximal HR may be inaccurate

243
Q

As a general rule, submaximal testing will ______ VO2 in older or deconditioned subjects, and ______ VO2 in those who are younger or well-conditioned

A

underpredicted

overpredicted

244
Q

Measures heat expenditure to determine energy expenditure

A

Direct calorimetry

245
Q

Uses respiratory exchange ratio (RER) to calculate energy expenditure

A

Indirect Calorimetry

246
Q

Ratio between CO2 released and oxygen consumed

A

Respiratory exchange ratio (RER)

247
Q

RER .7 indicates

A

fat as primary fuel source

248
Q

RER 1 indicates

A

carbohydrate as primary fuel source

249
Q

Resting RER

A

.78 - .8

250
Q

Assumptions of maximal exercise testing

A

The test progresses until subject reaches volitional exhaustion
The subject is motivated and able to provide a maximal effort

251
Q

what indicates maximal exercise?

A

Plateau in VO2
RER >1.15
Blood lactate level > 8 mmol/L

252
Q

Advantages of maximal exercise testing

A

Accuracy

253
Q

Disadvantages of maximal exercise testing

A

Higher risk
Time intensive
Resource intensive
More costly

254
Q

General principles of exercise prescription

A 
individuality
specificity
Reversibility
Progressive overload
hard/easy
Periodization
255
Q

All exercise prescriptions should include

A

Warm-up and stretching
conditioning
Cool-down

256
Q

Frequency prescription

A

3-5 days a week

257
Q

Intensity prescription

A

Light: 30-40% HR or VO2
Mod: 40-60% HR or VO2
Vigorous: 60-90% HR or VO2

258
Q

Time prescription

A

30-60 min/day of mod activity

20-60 min/day of vigorous activity

259
Q

Type prescription

A

Aerobic and/or resistance

Walking, running, sports resistance, yoga

260
Q

Volume prescription

A

product of fequency, intensity, and time

150 min/week

261
Q

progression prescription

A

increase time 5-10 min every 1-2 weeks for first 4-6 weeks

262
Q

Target HR

A

((HR max-HR rest)x %intensity) + HR rest

or max HRx % intensity

263
Q

Moderate RPE

A

12-13

264
Q

Vigorous RPE

A

15-16

265
Q

1 MET =

A

3.5 ml/kg/min

266
Q

Maximal force generated

1 repitition maximum or isokinetic testing

A

Muscular strength

267
Q

Rate of work performance

A

muscular power

268
Q

ability to sustain repeated contractions

A

Muscular endurance

269
Q

Resistance training frequency

A

2-3 non consecutive days per week

270
Q

Resistance training intensity

A

40-50% 1 RM (beginner)
60-70% 1 RM (intermed)
> 80% or 1 RM (experienced)

271
Q

Resistance training type

A 
Isometric
Isotonic (limited by weakest point)
Eccentric (promotes hypertrophy)
Isokinetic
Plyometric
Electical stim
272
Q

Resistance training reps

A

8-12 reps for strength/power
10-15 repetitions for older/novice
15-20 reps for endurance

273
Q

Resistance training sets

A

2-4 strength/power
1 for older/novice
1-2 endurance

274
Q

Resistance training pattern

A

2-3 min rest interval btw sets

48 hour rest btw sessions

275
Q

Resistance training progression

A

Increase resistance
Increase repititions per set
Increase frequency

276
Q

Flexibility frequency

A

> 2-3 days/week

277
Q

Flexibility intensity

A

to point of tightness of slight discomfort

278
Q

Flexibility time

A

Static: 10-60 sec
PNF: 2-6 sec @ 20-75% of MVC

279
Q

primary factor underlying age and gender related strength differences

A

Muscle mass

280
Q

age associated loss of skeletal muscle mass and function

A

sarcopenia

281
Q

ratio of muscle strength to muscle mass

A

Muscle quality

282
Q

_______ is lost at a greater rate than ____ with aging

A

muscular strength

lean mass

283
Q

ways to assess muscle mass

A 
MRI
Computed axial tomography
DEXA
BIA
Anthropometric estimation
284
Q

ratio of appendicular lean mass relative to height in meters squared
normalizes muscle to frame size

A

Skeletal muscle index

285
Q

FITT

A

Frequency
Intensity
Time
Type

286
Q

Duration should be _______ related to intensity

A

inversely

287
Q

increases in frequency, intensity, or duration should generally be limited to

A

10% per week

288
Q

Exercises that recruit large muscle areas

A

core

289
Q

Exercises that recruit smaller muscle areas

A

Assistance

290
Q

order of workout progression

A

power before strength
Multi before single joint
alternate upper and lower body
Alternate push and pull

291
Q

TIlt table testing modes

A

Passive: 20 min supine then 20 min at 80 degrees
Active: exercise test followed by 20 min at 80 degrees

292
Q

cardiac causes of acute onset chest pain

A

pericarditis
trauma
arrhythmias

293
Q

Non cardiac causes of acute onset chest pain and shortness of breath

A

Pumonary: pneumothorax, pneumonia, pleurodynia
Esophageal: acute esophagitis, foreign body

294
Q

EIA symptoms

A 
coughing
wheezing
chest tightness
Shortness of breath
symptoms frequently begin 5-20 min after exercise begins
295
Q

common quick acting medications for asthma and EIA

A

beta-agonists (albuterol, ventolin, proventil, Maxair, Xopenex)
Anticholinergics (atrovent)

296
Q

primary value used to determine bronchodilator response

increase of 12% is considered positive

A

FEV1

297
Q

values for bronchodilator response

A

FEV1
FVC
FEF 25-75%
if 2 of 3 parameters improve, then the patient has reversible airway obstruction

298
Q

Occurs most frequently in active adolescents and young adults
may mimic EIA
symptoms do not respond to common asthma meds

A

Vocal cord dysfunction

299
Q

Paradoxical closure and adduction of the vocal cords during inspiration
This causes partial to severe airflow obstruction with sensations of throat tightness, suffocation, and/or choking

A

Vocal cord dysfunction

300
Q

wheezing with the inhale

A

stridor

301
Q

lung function categories

A

normal
Obstructive
restrictive
combined obstructive/restrictive

302
Q

maximum volume of air that can be forcefully exhaled after the deepest possible inspiration

A

Forced vital capacity

303
Q

Decreased with restrictive disease

A

FVC

304
Q

Forced expiratory volume in 1 second

A

FEV1

305
Q

Indicator of large airway obstruction

A

FEV1

306
Q

Ratio used to classify lung function

Best predictor of obstruction

A

FEV1/FVC

307
Q

Mean forced expiratory flow during the middle half of the FVC

A

Forced Expiratory flow or midflows FEF25-75%

308
Q

Represents small airway function

Decreased with small airway obstruction or inflammation

A

FEF25-75%

309
Q

Any disease affecting the diameter of the airways

A

Obstruction

310
Q

capacity of the lungs to expand and hold predicted volumes of air is reduced

A

Restrictive lung disease

311
Q

Abnormal findings with aortic stenosis

A

Ischemic changes on ECG
Decrease in blood pressure
Rarely ectopy

312
Q

Abnormal findings with aortic coarctation

A

Elevated systolic or diastolic blood pressure

313
Q

Abnormal hypertrophic cardiomyopathy

A

ST segment depression
Decrease in SBP with increasing exercise intensity
ventricular ectopy

314
Q

abnormal findings with a single ventricle

A

Blunted heart rate response
Low functional capacity
ECG abnormalities
Decreased oxygen saturation

315
Q

abnormal findings with pulmonary atresia and tetralogy of Fallot

A

Low functional capacity
Blunted heart rate response
Ventricular ectopy
Desaturation with exercise

PTRS 825 (1 decks)

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