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Phlebotomy > Final > Flashcards

Final Flashcards

1
Q

What is the needle gauge?

A

Related to the diameter of the lumen

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2
Q

What are different types of needles used for drawing blood?

A

Hypodermic, Multisample, Butterfly

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3
Q

What are the needle safety devices?

A

Resheathing device, Blunting device, and equipment with devices that retract the needle after use

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4
Q

What is an antiglycolytic?

A

Substance that prevets glycolysis

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5
Q

Which tube must be full to be accepted?

A

Light blue

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6
Q

How does heparin prevent clotting?

A

Inhibiting thrombin formation

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7
Q

What is the function of sodium citrate?

A

Prevents coagulation by binding to calcium & does the best job of preserving coagulation factors

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8
Q

How does EDTA prevent blood clotting?

A

Binding or chelating calcium

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9
Q

Why is EDTA used for hematology?

A

Preserves cell morphology and inhibits platelet aggregation better than any other anticoagulant

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10
Q

Define ACD

A

Acid Citrate Dextrose

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11
Q

Define additive

A

Substance such as an anticoagulant, antiglycolytic, separator gel, preservative, or clot activator placed within a tube or collection container

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12
Q

Define butterfly needle

A

Another term for a winged infusion set

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13
Q

Define clot activator

A

Substance that enhances the coagulation process

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14
Q

Define ETS

A

Closed system in which the patient’s blood flows directly into a collection tube through a needle inserted into a vein

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15
Q

Define evacuated tube

A

Type of tube in blood collection that has a premeasured vacuum and is color-coded to denote the additive inside

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16
Q

Define lumen

A

Inner space of a blood vessel, tube, or needle

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17
Q

Define PST

A

Plasma separator tube

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18
Q

Define shaft

A

Long cylindrical portion of a needle

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19
Q

Define sharps container

A

Special, puncture-resistant, leak-proof, disposable container used to dispose of used needles, lancets, and other sharp objects

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20
Q

Define silica

A

Glass particles used to enhance the coagulation process; clot activator

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21
Q

Define sodium fluoride

A

Additive that preserves glucose and inhibits the growth of bacteria

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22
Q

Define SPS

A

Sodium polyanethol sulfonate

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23
Q

Define SST

A

Serum separator tube

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24
Q

Define thixotropic gel

A

Inert, synthetic gel substance that forms a physical barrier between the cells and serum/plasma when the specimen is centrifuged

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25
Q

Define winged infustion set

A

Stainless steel needle permanently connected to tubing with either a Luer attachment for syringe use or a multisample Luer adapter for use with the evacuated tube

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26
Q

Define accession

A

Process of recording in the order received

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27
Q

Define anchor

A

To secure firmly, as in holding a vein in place by pulling the skin taut with the thumb

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28
Q

Define arm/wrist band

A

Other names for an identification band or bracelet

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29
Q

Define ASAP

A

As soon as possible

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30
Q

Define bar code

A

A series of black stripes and white spaces of varying widths that correspond to letters and numbers

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31
Q

Define concentric circle

A

Circles with a common center; starting from the center and moving outward in ever-widening arcs

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32
Q

Define DNR/DNAR

A

Do not resuscitate/Do not attempt resuscitation

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33
Q

Define fasting

A

No food or drink except water for approximately 12 hours

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34
Q

Define hospice

A

A type of care for patients who are terminally ill

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35
Q

Define ID band/bracelet

A

Identification band/bracelet

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36
Q

Define MR number

A

Hospital identification number

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37
Q

Define needle sheath

A

Needle cap or cover

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38
Q

Define NPO

A

Nothing by mouth

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39
Q

Define palpate

A

Examine by feel or touch

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40
Q

Define patency

A

State of being freely open, as in the normal condition of a vein

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41
Q

Define patient ID

A

The most important step in specimen collection

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42
Q

Define reflux

A

The backflow of blood into a patient’s vein from the collection tube during venipuncture

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43
Q

Define requisition

A

The form on which test orders are entered and sent to the laboratory

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44
Q

Define stat

A

Immediately

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45
Q

What are the 3 types of test requisitions?

A

Manual, Computer, Bar-Code

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46
Q

What requisition information is required?

A

Ordering physician’s name, Patient’s first and last names and middile initial, Patient’s medical record number, Patient’s date of birth or age, Room number and bed, Type of test to be performed, Date test is to be performed, Billing information and ICD-9 codes, Test status, Special precautions

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47
Q

What are 4 special situations for entering a patient’s room?

A

Physicians and clergy, Family and visitors, Unavailable patient, Identifying yourself

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48
Q

How do you mix additives in the tube? How many times?

A

Gently invert it 8-10 times

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49
Q

What should a tube label include?

A

Patient’s first and last names, Patient’s identification number or date of birth, Date and time of collection, Phlebotomist’s initials, Pertinent additional information such as fasting

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50
Q

Where is the tourniquet placed when drawing a hand vein?

A

Proximal to the wrist bone

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51
Q

Why do you anchor the vein?

A

Keeps it from rolling or moving to the side upon needle entry & A needle passes through taut skin more easily and with less pain

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52
Q

Why do patients need to fast?

A

Eliminates most dietary influences on testing

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53
Q

Define hemoconcentration

A

Decrease in the fluid content of the blood, with a subsequent increase in nonfilterable large molecule- or protein-based blood components such as RBCs

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54
Q

How is hemoconcentration caused?

A

Long tourniquet application, massaging or squeezing site, probing for veins, lont-term IV therapy, drawing blood from sclerosed of occluded veins, and vigorous hand pumping

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55
Q

What are 2 ways of causing hemolysis?

A

Drawing blood through a hematoma & Forceful aspiration of blood during a syringe draw

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56
Q

What are 4 situations that can trigger the formation of a hematoma?

A

Inadvertent arterial puncture, needle penetrates all the way through the vein, needle is removed while the tourniquet is still on, excessive or blind probing is used to locate the vein

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57
Q

Which factors can affect basal state?

A

Age, gender, and conditions of the body that can’t be eliminated

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58
Q

Which test are affected by altitude?

A

RBC count, hemoglobin, hematocrit, C-reactive protein, uric acid, urinary creatinine and plasma renin

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59
Q

Which blood test is affected when a child is crying before a draw?

A

WBC count

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60
Q

When you have to draw blood from a hematoma, where should you do it?

A

Dital to the hematoma

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61
Q

What should you do if a patient is predisposed to fainting?

A

Ask the patient to lie down for the procedure

62
Q

What is iatrogenic anemia?

A

Blood loss as a result of removing blood on a regular basis or in large quantities for testing

63
Q

What should you do if you collect an arterial specimen?

A

If acceptable for testing identify specimen as possible arterial blood

64
Q

What are the symptoms of hitting a nerve?

A

Extreme pain, a burning or electric-shock sensation, numbness of the arm, and pain that radiates up or down the arm

65
Q

Define bevel

A

Point of a needle that is cut on a slant for ease of skin entery

66
Q

Define EDTA

A

Prevents coagulation by binding to calcium

67
Q

Define sodium citrate

A

Anticoagulant that prevents clotting by binding calcium and is used for coagulation tests because it does the best job of preserving coagulation factors

68
Q

Define AV shunt/fistula/graft

A

Surgical fusion or artificial connection of an artery and a vein; typicall created to provide access for dialysis

69
Q

Define basal state

A

Resting metabolic state of the body early in the morning after fasting for a minimum of 12 hours

70
Q

Define edema

A

Swelling due to abnormal accumulation of fluid in the tissues

71
Q

Define exsanguination

A

Blood loss to a point where life cannot be sustained

72
Q

Define hematoma

A

Swelling or mass of blood caused by blood leaking from a blood vessel during of following venipuncture

73
Q

Define hemoconcentration

A

Decrease in the fluid content of blood with an increase in large, nonfilterable molecules like RBCs in the blood vessel

74
Q

Define hemolysis

A

Damage or destruction of RBCs and release of hemoglobin into the fluid portion of the specimen, causing serum color to range from pink-red

75
Q

Define hemolyzed

A

Condition of serum or plasma that contains hemoglobin from broken RBCs

76
Q

Define iatrogenic

A

Adjective used to describe an adverse condition brought on by the effects of treatment

77
Q

Define icteric

A

marked by jaundice’; describes serum, plasma, or urine specimens that have an abnormal deep-yellow to yellow-brown color due to high bilirubin levels

78
Q

Define jaundice

A

Condition characterized by increased bilirubin (product of RBC breakdown) in the blood, leading to deposition of yellow bile pigment in the skin, mucous membranes, and sclera

79
Q

Define lipemia

A

Increased lipid content in blood

80
Q

Define lipemic

A

Describing serum or plasma that appears milky or turbid due to high lipid content

81
Q

Define petechiae

A

Tiny, nonraised red spots that appear on a patient’s skin upon tourniquet application; drops of blood that escape capillaries

82
Q

Define sclerosed

A

Hardened

83
Q

Define syncope

A

Medical term for fainting; loss of consciousness and postural tone that results from insufficient blood flow to the brain

84
Q

Define thrombosed

A

Clotted; refers to a blood vessel that is affected by clotting

85
Q

Define differential

A

Test in which number, type, and characteristics of blood cells are determined by examining a stained blood smear under a microscope

86
Q

Define interstitial fluid

A

Fluid in the tissue spaces between cells

87
Q

Define microcollection containers

A

Small plastic tubes used to collect tiny amounts of blood obtained from capillary punctures

88
Q

Define microhematocrit tubes

A

Disposable, narrow-bore plastic or plastic-clad glass capillary tubes that fill by capillary action

89
Q

Define newborn/neonatal screening

A

Routine testing of newborns for the presence of certain metabolic and genetic disorders

90
Q

Define PKU

A

Phenylketonuria; disorder that results from a defect in the enzyme that breaks down phenylalanin into tyrosine

91
Q

Define plantar surface

A

Sole or bottom surface of the foot

92
Q

Define whorls

A

Spiral pattern of the ridges and grooves that form a fingerprint

93
Q

Define ACT

A

Activated clotting time; monitors heparin therapy

94
Q

Define aerobic

A

With air

95
Q

Define anaerobic

A

Without air

96
Q

Define autologous

A

Blood donated for one’s own use

97
Q

Define compatability

A

Ability to be mixed together with favorable results, as in blood transfusions

98
Q

Define GTT

A

Glucose tolerance test; Test used to diagnose carbohydrate metabolism problems

99
Q

Define peak level

A

Drug level collected when the highest serum concentration of the drug is anticipated

100
Q

Define septicemia

A

Microorganisms or their toxins in the blood

101
Q

Define TDM

A

Therapeutic drug monitoring; testing of drug levels at specific intervals to help establish a drug dosage, maintain dosage at a therapeutic level, and avoid drug toxicity

102
Q

Define trough level

A

Drug level collected when the lowest serum concentration of the drug is expected

103
Q

Define accession number

A

Number generated by the laboratory information system when the specimen request is entered into the computer

104
Q

Define aliquot

A

Portion of a specimen used for testing

105
Q

Define bar code

A

Series of black stripes and white spaces of varying widths that correspond to letters and numbers

106
Q

Define central processing

A

Screening and prioritizing area where specimens are received and prepared for testing

107
Q

Define mneumonic

A

Memory-aiding code or abbreviation

108
Q

Define preanalytical

A

Prior to analysis

109
Q

Define AFB

A

Alpha-fetoprotein; antigen present in human fetus that’s also found in amniotic fluid and maternal serum

110
Q

Define C&S

A

Culture and sensitivity

111
Q

Define clean catch

A

Method of obtaining a urine sample so that it is free of contamination from the external genitalia

112
Q

Define CSF

A

Cerebrospinal fluid; clear, colorless liquid that circulates within cavities surrounding brain and spinal cord

113
Q

Define H.Pylori

A

Heliobacter pylori; bacterial species secreting substances that damage the lining of the stomach and cause chronic gastritis, which can lead to peptic ulcers

114
Q

Define O&P

A

Ova & parasites; test to detect the presence of intestinal parasites and their eggs in feces

115
Q

Define occult blood

A

Hidden blood

116
Q

Define serous fluid

A

Pale-yellow, watery fluid found between double-layer membranes that enclose the pleural, percardial, and peritoneal cavities

117
Q

Define 24-hour urine

A

Pooled urine specimen collected over a period of 24 hours, usually beginning in the morning

118
Q

Define UTI

A

Urinary tract infection; ailment caused by the presence of microorganisms in one or more structures of the urinary system

119
Q

Why do you let the antiseptic dry completely?

A

Helps destroy microbes, Prevents specimen hemolysis from alcohol contamination, Avoids burning sensation when needle is inserted

120
Q

Define geriatric

A

Relating to old age

121
Q

What position should the arm be in for blood draw?

A

Extended downward in a straight line from shoulder to wrist

122
Q

When do you use a butterfly needle?

A

Drawing blood from infants and small children, Difficult adult veins, Wrist or hand veins

123
Q

Which disease causes tremors?

A

Parkinsons

124
Q

Can you take blood from an arm with a fistula or graft?

A

No

125
Q

Name some timed tests.

A

TDM, Blood culture, Cardiac enzymes

126
Q

Name some fasting tests.

A

Glucose, Cholesterol, Triglycerides

127
Q

How long should a tournique be applied?

A

No longer than 2 minutes

128
Q

What might cause a vein to collapse?

A

Tourniquet tied too tightly or too close to venipuncture site, Vacuum draw of a tube or pressure of pulling on a syringe plunger is too much for vein, Tourniquet removed during draw

129
Q

Can a phlebotomist draw from a CVAD?

A

No, but they can assist by transfering the specimen to the appropriate tube

130
Q

Define PICC

A

Peripherally inserted central catheter; inserted into peripheral venous system and threaded into central venous system

131
Q

Which test uses blood smears?

A

Differential

132
Q

How quickly must a blood smear be made from the purple top tubes?

A

Within 1 hour of collection

133
Q

Define lancet

A

Sterile, disposable, sharp-pointed or bladed instrument that either punctures or makes an incision in the skin

134
Q

Where do you puncture an infants foot?

A

Medial or lateral plantar surface

135
Q

Why do we warm the infant’s foot prior to skin puncture?

A

Increases blood flow as much as 7 times

136
Q

Why do you wipe away the first drop of blood?

A

Contaminated with excess tissue fluid, Contains alcohol residue that can hemolyze the specimen, Keep blood from forming a well-rounded drop

137
Q

Name common newborn test.

A

PKU, Hypothroidism, Galactosemia, Cystic fibrosis

138
Q

Which tube is used for alcohol testing?

A

Glass gray-top sodium fluoride

139
Q

Which antiseptic is used for blood alcohol tests?

A

Aqueous povidone-iodine & aqueous benzalkonium chloride (BZK)

140
Q

Define postprandial

A

After a meal

141
Q

Why are blood cultures ordered?

A

A patient may a bloodstream invasion

142
Q

Why are 2 bottles drawn for blood cultures?

A

There’s an aerobic and an anaerobic

143
Q

What is cardiac troponin I?

A

Proteins specific to cardiad muscle

144
Q

What tube should a cardiac troponin I be drawn in?

A

SST/PST

145
Q

Name 3 sources of preanalytical error.

A

Misidentified patient, Expired tube, Underfilled tube

146
Q

Which specimen should not be centrifuged?

A

CBC in purple top tube

147
Q

How long does it take clot tubes to clot?

A

Within 30 minutes

148
Q

Define UA

A

Urinalysis; laboratory test that typically includes macroscopic, physical, chemical, and microscopic analysis of a urine specimen

149
Q

What is the most frequently analyzed nonblood fluid?

A

Urine

150
Q

Should CSF be refrigerated?

A

No, it should be kept at room temperature

151
Q

Where is synovial fluid found?

A

Movable joints

152
Q

What does the guaiac test detect?

A

Occult (hidden) blood

Phlebotomy (3 decks)

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