Final Flashcards

1
Q

*Law that establishes methods to enforce the rights established by substantive law.

A

Procedural law

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

*Law that establishes the rights and duties concerning interaction among people and the relief available when these rights and duties are violated.

A

Civil law

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

*Law that establishes rules regulating conduct which society desires to prohibit, wrongs against society for which society demands redress.

A

Criminal law

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

*The doctrine under which judges are obligated to follow past judicial decisions.

A

Common law (Stare Decisis)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

*A precedent set by higher court is binding on all lower courts in its jurisdiction and the issuing court itself.

A

Binding authority (So if an appellate court sets the precedent, the appellate court and the trial courts must follow its jurisdiction.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

*The supreme law of the land

A

The United States Constitution

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

*Which court applies facts to law and equity to determine an outcome?

A

Trial court

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

*What is the common of pleas court

A

Trial court

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

*What is a reason to appeal to the appellate court

A

Judge erred or made an abuse of discretion in the trial court

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

*T/F the Supreme Court does not have to hear all of the appeals which are filed

A

True

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

*T/F law suits go to trial quickly

A

False

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

*What is an alternative to dispute resolution (ADR)?

A

Negotiation (settlement with no 3rd party involved)
Arbitration (a neutral 3rd party renders a decision)
Mediation (a neutral 3rd party proposes a solution)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

*What should a physician do if they are sued?

A

Immediately notify their insurance carrier

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

*As a defendant, what should a physician do to prepare?

A

Talk to an attorney and read the patient’s records

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

*What follows the opening statement?

A

The plaintiff’s case in chief

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

*What is the failure to use such care as a reasonably prudent and careful person would use under SIMILAR circumstances?

A

Negligence

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

*The failure to meet the standard of care is called

A

Breach of duty

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

*How do courts treat mental conditions

A

They are irrelevant for purposes of negligence liability (incompetent)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

*What is the preponderance of the evidence?

A

The plaintiff must have a preponderance of evidence in order to make a claim, and it must be “more likely than not” over 50% in favor of the plaintiff.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

*The primary or moving cause in a natural and continuous sequence, unbroken by an efficient intervening cause, produces the injury without which the accident could not have happened.

A

Proximate cause

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

*The standard of care to which physicians are held is set by what?

A

The custom of their profession?

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

*What did Bruni v. Tatsumi rule?

A

The community is the profession

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

*What is the initial pleading by which an action is commenced

A

The Complaint

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

*How can the service of the complaint be completed?

A

Certified mail

25
*What must a defendant do when responding to a complaint?
File an answer or motion
26
*What information is subject to discovery?
Information that is not privileged, but NOT in the form of a peer review.
27
*What is the disposition of a controversy without trial when there is no dispute as to either material fact or inferences to be drawn from the undisputed facts, or when there is only a question of law at issue?
Summary judgment (when there can be one reasonable conclusion based on the law)
28
*State the order of the trial
``` Jury selection Opening statements Plaintiff's case in chief Defendant's case in chief Final arguments Jury instructions and interrogatories ```
29
*What does the defendant have an opportunity to do after the plaintiff's direct examination?
The opportunity to cross exam the witness
30
*What is a frequent allegation in medication errors?
Failure to monitor (therapeutic drug level)
31
*What must be included in the consent?
Potential complications Surgical and alternative procedures discussed with the patient Type of anesthesia used
32
*What should you never do to records
Make after-the-fact alterations
33
*What makes someone incompentent
Mental retardation
34
*If a patient cannot give a valid consent, who can?
A surrogate (member of the patient's family or court appointed guardian)
35
*What does consent do?
Set forth in general terms - procedure - expectations - risks - physician - signed by patient
36
*What must be disclosed to patients?
Material risks Severity Frequency and chances of occurrence Alternate procedures
37
*How can you refuse a patient?
By advising to go to ED in an emergency
38
*What is respondeat superior?
Vicarious liability for employees, states employer is liable if the acts are committed within the scope of employment
39
*What does liability depend on?
The establishment of a master-servant relationship
40
*What is the statute of limitations for a medical claim?
One year
41
*What is I'm sorry law
You're allowed to say I'm sorry the outcome wasn't what you expected, this is not admissible in court.
42
*What are 2 privileges when a physician may not be called to testify?
Peer review privileges | Physician-Patient privilege (Ohio statute)
43
*A command to appear at a certain time and place to give testimony upon a certain matter
Subpoena
44
*What is motion to quash
Response to a subpoena that states the other party did not provide reasonable to time, requires disclosure of privilege, undue burden yada yada
45
*T/F Insurance is a contract
False, bc it doesn't control any obligations
46
*When you sign a non-compete agreement, does geography matter?
Yes, it's not unlimited (ie within Cuyahoga county)
47
*Can staff privileges be denied, suspended or revoked?
Yes at any time, but not for any reason. Requires constitutional due process - procedural)
48
*What is the preferred means of business communication?
Email
49
*Can emails be deleted permanently?
No, there's "e-discovery"
50
*Top 10 mistakes of email
Personal inappropriate use No subject line/recycled subject line Forwarding previous message -All of the above
51
*Most federal regulation of health care industry is done by what?
Office of the Inspector General
52
*What is the duty of the OIG
To detect waste, fraud and abuse and to protect/restore funds to the medicare trust fund.
53
*T/F size matters?
False, regardless of the size of a health care provider, they are subject to regulation by the 010
54
*Each year what does the OIG issue?
A work plan that identifies targeted entities
55
*What is the Stark-Physician Self-Referral Law
Prohibits physicians from referring medicare/medcaid patients to entities in which the physician or family member has a financial interest (NOT ANTI-KICK BACK) Strict liability applies
56
*What does the false claims act not require?
The intent to disregard
57
*What does HIPAA stand for?
Health Insurance Portability and Accountability Act
58
*What does HIPAA cover?
The USE and disclosure of protected health information