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Practice of Nursing IV > Final > Flashcards

Final Flashcards

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1
Q

Renal dysfunction may produce tenderness at what specific area?

A

The costovertebral angle

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2
Q

What is overflow incontinence?

A

The release of urine from an overly full bladder

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3
Q

Urinary retention can lead to what two complications and why?

A

Can lead to UTIs and renal stone formation d/t urinary stasis

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4
Q

What is urinary retention defined as?

A

Inadequate bladder emptying

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5
Q

What kind of bath should be provided to someone with urinary retention?

A

A warm sitz bath

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6
Q

What is urinary incontinence defined as?

A

The involuntary loss of urine

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7
Q

What are two main treatments for urinary incontinence?

A

Behavioral treatments and neuromodulation

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8
Q

What is stress incontinence?

A

Losing urine without meaning to during physical activity such as sneezing, laughing, exercise

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9
Q

What is urge incontinence?

A

Sudden, strong need to urinate d/t bladder spasms or contractions

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10
Q

What is reflex incontinence?

A

When bladder contracts and expels urine without the urge to urinate

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11
Q

What is functional incontinence?

A

Person is aware of the need to urinate, but cannot get to the bathroom for physical or mental reasons

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12
Q

What is mixed incontinence?

A

A combination of stress and urge incontinence

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13
Q

Cystitis, urethritis, and prostatitis are three examples of upper or lower UTIs?

A

Lower UTIs

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14
Q

What is pyelonephritis?

A

Inflammation of the renal pelvis

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15
Q

What is interstitial nephritis?

A

Inflammation of the kidney

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16
Q

Renal abscess, pyelonephritis, and interstitial nephritis are examples of upper or lower UTIs?

A

Upper UTIs

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17
Q

What is a major symptom of complicated UTIs?

A

Urosepsis (septic shock)

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18
Q

Is urosepsis d/t gram neg. or gram pos. bacteria?

A

Gram negative

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19
Q

What bacteria most commonly causes urosepsis?

A

E. coli

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20
Q

What is the most common manifestation of urosepsis?

A

Fever

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21
Q

How long are IV antibiotics usually administered for in urosepsis?

A

3-5 days or until afebrile

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22
Q

What is the most common cause of sepsis in those over 65?

A

UTIs

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23
Q

Why should urine be collected in cystitis?

A

For a culture and sensitivity

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24
Q

How much fluid should be forced in cystitis?

A

Up to 3,000 mL/day

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25
Q

What kind of diet should a cystitis pt follow?

A

Acid ash

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26
Q

What are the two most frequent causes of urethritis in men?

A

Gonorrhea and chlamydia

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27
Q

What is one difference in how urethritis presents in men and women?

A

In men, presents as penile discharge; in women, as lower abdominal discomfort

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28
Q

What is BPH?

A

An increased number of prostate cells

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29
Q

Prostatitis could be caused by what two broad things?

A

Bacterial infection or tissue hyperplasia

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30
Q

Abacterial inflammation of the prostate often follows what two things?

A

Viral illness or a decrease in sexual activity

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31
Q

What type of prostatitis is characterized by fever, chills, and a boggy, tender prostate?

A

Bacterial

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32
Q

What type of prostatitis is characterized by backache, perineal pain, and an enlarged, firm prostate?

A

Abacterial

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33
Q

What are two “prostate-draining” activities that should be encouraged in pts who have prostatitis?

A

Masturbation and sex

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34
Q

What does TURP stand for? What is it used for?

A

Transurethral resection of the prostate. It relieves urinary symptoms caused by an enlarged prostate

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35
Q

How many lumens are used in continuous bladder irrigation? What is each used for?

A

Three – one to inflate the balloon, one for outflow, and one to instill water

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36
Q

After TURP, fluids should be increased to what?

A

2,400 to 3,000 mL/d

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37
Q

Post-TURP, when should the pt ambulate?

A

As soon as urine is cleared

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38
Q

How does arterial bleeding after TURP appear?

A

Bright red with numerous clots

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39
Q

What two things should the nurse do for arterial bleeding with TURP?

A

Notify the physician and increase continuous bladder irrigation

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40
Q

How does venous bleeding after TURP appear?

A

As burgundy-colored urine output

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41
Q

What should you expect the physician to do if there is venous bleeding after TURP?

A

Apply traction to the catheter

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42
Q

Why should catheter traction be maintained after TURP and how should the pt be instructed to maintain their leg?

A

To prevent bleeding; pt should be told to keep leg straight

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43
Q

What must be obtained before catheter traction is released after TURP?

A

An MD order

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44
Q

CBI should be run at a rate that keeps urine what color?

A

Pink

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45
Q

What should happen to CBI if urine is bright red?

A

It should be run at a faster rate

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46
Q

What should the nurse do if the catheter becomes obstructed during CBI?

A

Should turn off CBI, irrigate with 30-50mL of NS, and notify provider if this doesn’t work

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47
Q

What electrolyte imbalance may occur as a result of CBI?

A

Hyponatremia

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48
Q

Urine will be red to light-pink for how long after TURP?

A

The first 24 hours

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49
Q

What color will urine be three days after TURP?

A

Amber

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50
Q

Is a feeling of continuous urge to void normal after TURP?

A

Yes

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51
Q

What are the usual symptoms of pyelonephritis?

A

There are no symptoms usually, unless there is an acute exacerbation.

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52
Q

Polyuria, weight loss, excessive thirst and fatigue are symptoms of what?

A

Acute exacerbation of pyelonephritis

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53
Q

What is pyuria?

A

Urine that contains pus

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54
Q

What is azotemia?

A

Abnormally elevated BUN and Cr levels

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55
Q

How much fluid/day should be encouraged in pyelonephritis?

A

3,000 mL/day

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56
Q

What kind of diet should a pt with pyelonephritis follow?

A

High-calorie, low protein

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57
Q

What is chronic kidney disease defined as?

A

An umbrella term for kidney damage or decrease in glomerular filtration rate for greater than 3 months

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58
Q

If untreated, what can chronic kidney disease lead to?

A

End stage renal disease

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59
Q

What occurs during stage 1 of chronic renal disease?

A

Slight renal damage with GFR above 90

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60
Q

What occurs during stage 5 of chronic renal disease?

A

End stage renal disease

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61
Q

What are the main goals of hemodialysis?

A

To remove nitrogenous wastes and water from the blood

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62
Q

How long does peritoneal dialysis take?

A

36-48 hours

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63
Q

How long does hemodialysis take?

A

6-8 hours

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64
Q

In acute intermittent peritoneal dialysis, how long is the infusion time, dwell time, and draining time?

A

Infusion=10 mins; dwell=30 mins; drain=20 mins

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65
Q

Is acute intermittent peritoneal dialysis done with aseptic or sterile technique?

A

Aseptic

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66
Q

If dialysate does not drain after acute intermittent peritoneal dialysis, how can the nurse facilitate drainage?

A

By turning the pt side to side or raising the head of the bed

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67
Q

In acute intermittent peritoneal dialysis, should the nurse push the catheter further into the peritoneal cavity?

A

No

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68
Q

Where is continuous ambulatory peritoneal dialysis performed and how many times per day?

A

At home, 4-5 times per day

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69
Q

Why does continuous cyclic peritoneal dialysis have a lower infection rate?

A

Because of fewer bag and tubing changes

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70
Q

Continuous ambulatory peritoneal dialysis and continuous cyclic peritoneal dialysis both require careful monitoring of what vital sign?

A

Blood pressure

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71
Q

How often should the nurse palpate for a thrill on a pt undergoing hemodialysis?

A

At least every 8 hours

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72
Q

What does it mean if the nurse cannot find a thrill on a pt on hemodialysis?

A

There may be a blockage or a clot

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73
Q

A pt on hemodialysis presents with substernal chest pain, low grade fever, and pericardial friction rub. The nurse suspects what?

A

Pericarditis

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74
Q

A pt on hemodialysis presents with distant heart sounds, pulsus paradoxus, and a disappearing friction rub. What does the nurse suspect?

A

Pericardial effusion

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75
Q

Where does renal colic originate and where does it radiate in men and women?

A

It originates in the lumbar region and radiates to the testicles in men and bladder in women

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76
Q

Where does ureteral colic radiate?

A

To the genitalia and thigh

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77
Q

Describe the pain felt with urinary stones.

A

Sharp, severe, sudden onset

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78
Q

How much fluid should be forced for someone with urinary stones?

A

3,000 mL/day

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79
Q

Why are IV fluids given to a pt with urinary stones?

A

To increase urine flow and facilitate passage of the stone

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80
Q

A cytoscopy is performed for urinary stones located where?

A

Bladder or lower ureter

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81
Q

How is a cytoscopy performed to remove urinary stones?

A

By inserting 1-2 catheters past the stone and then guiding them downward to remove the stone

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82
Q

Why are catheters left in place for 24 hours during a cytoscopy?

A

To dilate the ureters and drain any trapped urine

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83
Q

What is Extracorporeal Shock Wave Lithotripsy?

A

The use of sound waves to break kidney stones into smaller pieces

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84
Q

For how long should a pt by NPO prior to Extracorporeal Shock Wave Lithotripsy?

A

8 hours

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85
Q

Why should a pt be instructed to increase fluid intake after
Extracorporeal Shock Wave Lithotripsy?

A

To wash out any stone fragments

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86
Q

Why might a nephrostomy tube be placed after Extracorporeal Shock Wave Lithotripsy and for how long?

A

For chemical irrigation to further break up kidney stones; for 1-5 days

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87
Q

How much fluid should a pt drink per day after

Extracorporeal Shock Wave Lithotripsy?

A

3,000 - 4,000 mL/day

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88
Q

What is a ureterolithotomy?

A

Open or laprascopic removal of stone from the ureter.

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89
Q

What is a nephrolithotomy?

A

An incision made into the kidney to remove a kidney stone

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90
Q

What is a pyelolithotomy?

A

An incision made into the kidney to remove stones from the renal pelvis

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91
Q

What is done as a last resort for incontinence?

A

Urinary diversion

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92
Q

What position should the pt be in after a kidney transplant?

A

Semi-Fowler’s

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93
Q

Immediately after a kidney transplant, what color will the urine be?

A

Pink & bloody

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94
Q

Where is the liver located?

A

In the right upper quadrant of the abdomen

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95
Q

The portal vein supplies blood that is ____ rich and _____ poor to the liver.

A

Nutrient rich and O2 poor

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96
Q

The hepatic artery supplies blood that is _____ rich and _____ poor.

A

O2 rich and nutrient poor

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97
Q

How does the liver regulate glucose metabolism?

A

By storing glucose as glycogen

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98
Q

What does the liver do to ammonia?

A

Converts it to urea, which is then excreted by the kidneys

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99
Q

Ammonia is a byproduct of the breakdown of what?

A

Proteins

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100
Q

How is the liver involved in clotting?

A

It makes the proteins involved in clotting

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101
Q

How is the liver involved in fat metabolism?

A

It stores fat and breaks it down for energy use

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102
Q

The liver stores what three vitamins?

A

A, B and D

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103
Q

What is bilirubin? What does the liver do to it?

A

It is what is left after RBCs break down; it is excreted by the liver in the stool

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104
Q

The presence of carcinoembryonic antigen may indicate what?

A

Liver cancer

105
Q

What may happen to protein studies (such as albumin) in liver dysfunction? Why?

A

Levels may drop, since the liver manufactures proteins

106
Q

What happens to cholesterol levels in biliary obstruction?

A

May rise

107
Q

What happens to cholesterol levels in diseases that affect liver cells?

A

May decrease

108
Q

What happens to ammonia levels in liver disease and why?

A

May rise, since the liver converts ammonia to urea

109
Q

What are two complications of liver biopsy?

A

Bleeding and bile peritonitis

110
Q

What is bile peritonitis?

A

When the gallbladder is damaged, and bile spills into the peritoneum, causing inflammation

111
Q

What side should a pt be placed on after a liver biopsy?

A

On their right side

112
Q

After a liver biopsy, a pillow should be placed where, and why?

A

Should be placed under the right costal margin to provide compression

113
Q

Vitals should be done Q____ for the first hour after liver biopsy, then Q____ for 1-2 hours after that

A

Q 10-15 mins, then Q30 mins

114
Q

Pt should avoid heavy lifting for how long after a liver biopsy?

A

For one week

115
Q

What is jaundice caused by?

A

Bilirubin seeping into the dermis when the liver cannot excrete it

116
Q

Why is muscle atrophy a sign of liver disease?

A

B/c of the liver’s decreased abilities to make proteins

117
Q

Why are vitamin deficiencies a sign of liver disease?

A

B/c the liver has a decreased ability to store vitamins

118
Q

What happens to platelet numbers in liver disease?

A

They decrease

119
Q

What are spider angiomas and why do they increase in liver disease?

A

They are abnormal collection of vessels near the surface of the skin, and occur in liver disease b/c the liver metabolizes estrogen and estrogen causes vessel dilation

120
Q

Males specifically may have what symptom in liver disease and why?

A

Gynecomastia, d/t estrogen imbalance

121
Q

Retention of ammonia in liver disease may cause what?

A

Neurological changes

122
Q

What does the child-pugh classification measure?

A

The outcomes of pts with liver disease

123
Q

What does a higher score on the child-pugh classification mean?

A

Poorer prognosis

124
Q

When bilirubin content is above _____, it infiltrates into body tissues.

A

2.5

125
Q

What is hemolytic jaundice?

A

There is an increased destruction of RBCs, so bilirubin cannot be excreted as fast as it is formed, resulting in jaundice

126
Q

Can conjugated bilirubin be excreted from the liver? What about unconjugated?

A

Conjugated can be excreted from the liver but unconjugated cannot be

127
Q

What occurs in hepatocellular jaundice?

A

Liver cells are damaged, so they cannot excrete bilirubin

128
Q

A pt with malaise, weakness and anorexia likely has what type of jaundice?

A

Hepatocellular jaundice

129
Q

What causes obstructive jaundice?

A

Occlusion of the bile duct by gallstones, tumors etc

130
Q

Pts will have an intolerance to fatty foods with what type of jaundice?

A

Obstructive jaundice

131
Q

A pt with obstructive jaundice will have what color urine and why?

A

Orange, foamy urine b/c the body tries to excrete bilirubin in the urine

132
Q

A pt with obstructive jaundice will have what type of stools?

A

Clay-colored

133
Q

What are the four types of jaundice?

A

Hereditary, obstructive, hepatocellular, hemolytic

134
Q

What two types of jaundice are most commonly associated with liver disease?

A

Hepatocellular and obstructive

135
Q

What are the two main consequences of portal hypertension?

A

Ascites and varices

136
Q

What happens to the spleen and platelets in portal hypertension?

A

Splenomegaly and thrombocytopenia

137
Q

What is ascites?

A

Shift of fluid into the peritoneal cavity

138
Q

A pt presents with stretch marks, visible veins, umbilical hernia and shortness of breath. The nurse suspects what?

A

Ascites

139
Q

What will be percussed on the abdomen of a pt with ascites and what does this mean?

A

“Shifting dullness” – means that area of dullness shifts as the pt moves

140
Q

Where will edema be seen on a pt with ascites?

A

Will see flank edema

141
Q

Fluid wave will be seen in a pt with what?

A

Ascites

142
Q

What is the major complication of ascites?

A

Spontaneous bacterial peritonitis

143
Q

What occurs in spontaneous bacterial peritonitis?

A

Bacteria is translocated to the peritoneal cavity, which then becomes infected

144
Q

How is spontaneous bacterial peritonitis treated?

A

With antibiotics

145
Q

What complication may occur if spontaneous bacterial peritonitis is not treated?

A

Hepatorenal syndrome (kidney failure without pathological changes to the kidneys)

146
Q

How much sodium per day should someone with ascites consume?

A

500mg-2g per day

147
Q

What general class of meds is someone with ascites usually put on?

A

Diuretics

148
Q

What is paracentesis and for what medical condition is it performed?

A

The removal of fluid via a puncture in the peritoneal cavity, done for ascites

149
Q

Why should the pt be kept upright during paracentesis?

A

To keep fluid as close as possible to the front of the abdominal wall

150
Q

How does TIPS treat ascites?

A

By decreasing portal hypertension

151
Q

What is the most common cause of ascites? What is the main contributor?

A

Cirrhosis. Main contributor is portal hypertension

152
Q

What is the first line treatment for ascites?

A

Low-sodium diet and diuretics (spironolactone)

153
Q

After spiro, which diuretic is tried next for management of ascites?

A

Lasix

154
Q

If the first line of treatment does not work for ascites, what is done next and in what order?

A

Paracentesis, TIPS, liver transplant

155
Q

What are varices and why do they occur?

A

Dilated, torturous veins from portal hypertension

156
Q

Is a ruptured varix a medical emergency?

A

Yes

157
Q

A pt presents with hematemesis, melena, and shock. What does the nurse suspect?

A

A ruptured varix

158
Q

What unit of the hospital cares for a ruptured varix?

A

ICU

159
Q

How does a balloon tamponade for a bleeding varix work?

A

It is a nasogastric tube that sits in the stomach and compresses bleeding

160
Q

What should the nurse do if a pt has s/sx of asphyxia with a balloon tamponade in place?

A

Cut the tube to deflate the balloon

161
Q

Why is cardiac monitoring essential with a balloon tamponade?

A

Because it may stimulate the vagus nerve

162
Q

Why is vasopressin given during a bleeding varix?

A

To compress the vessels and control bleeding

163
Q

What does “banding” a bleeding varix involve?

A

Placing a rubber band over the end of the bleeding varix so that the tissue necroses

164
Q

Hepatic encephalopathy has what general types of symptoms?

A

Neuropsychiatric

165
Q

What are the two possible explanations for hepatic encephalopathy?

A

The liver stops detoxifying, so ammonia levels build, causing neurotoxicity, OR elements of portal blood (which has toxins) enter the systemic circulation

166
Q

A pt with hepatic encephalopathy will have constructional apraxia. What does this mean?

A

The inability to produce a simple figure in two or three dimensions

167
Q

Why is IV glucose given for hepatic encephalopathy?

A

It will minimize protein breakdown, thus reducing the amount of ammonia in the blood

168
Q

What kind of diet is contraindicated in hepatic encephalopathy and why?

A

High-protein, because it will increase ammonia in the blood

169
Q

What is viral hepatitis, in general?

A

A systemic infection that causes inflammation of the liver cells

170
Q

Which hepatitis is chronic and has a long incubation phase?

A

Hep B

171
Q

Which hepatitis has two phases, the second of which includes jaundice?

A

Hep A

172
Q

In order to contract Hep D, the pt must also have which other type of hepatitis?

A

Hep B

173
Q

What is nonviral hepatitis?

A

Inflammation of the liver from hepatotoxins (may be caused by drugs such as ibuprofen)

174
Q

What is fulminant hepatic failure?

A

Sudden and severe liver dysfunction in a previously healthy person

175
Q

Jaundice progresses to encephalopathy within how many days in fulminant hepatic failure?

A

7-72 days

176
Q

What is the most common cause of fulminant hepatic failure?

A

Viral hepatitis

177
Q

What is cirrhosis defined as?

A

Scarring of the liver that disrupts its function

178
Q

What is the most common type of cirrhosis?

A

Alcoholic cirrhosis

179
Q

Postnecrotic cirrhosis usually occurs after what?

A

After hepatitis

180
Q

Biliary cirrhosis involves scarring where?

A

Around the biliary duct

181
Q

What does hepatorenal syndrome cause, in general?

A

A decrease in renal function caused by liver disease

182
Q

What is hepatopulmonary syndrome, in general?

A

A decrease in lung function caused by liver disease

183
Q

Benign liver tumors are common in women who take what kind of meds?

A

OCPs

184
Q

What is the most common type of liver cancer?

A

Hepatocellular carcinoma

185
Q

A pt presents with liver pain, weight loss and anorexia. The nurse suspects what?

A

Liver cancer

186
Q

Serum alpha-fetoprotein and carcinoembyronic antigen are elevated in what?

A

Liver cancer

187
Q

What is done to treat end-stage liver disease with no other cure?

A

Liver transplant

188
Q

What is used to measure the degree of need for a liver transplant?

A

The MELD score

189
Q

Liver transplant success depends on …

A

Immunosuppresion

190
Q

What is vulnerability defined as?

A

Susceptibility to actual or potential stressors that may lead to an adverse effect.

191
Q

What are the four “types of risk” that can make someone more vulnerable?

A

Environmental hazards, social hazards, personal behavior, and biological/genetic makeup.

192
Q

What does a case finder do?

A

Identifies vulnerable individuals and encourages them to seek out health services

193
Q

What are the three ways that a case finder might identify vulnerable individuals?

A

Outreach, surveillance, and screening

194
Q

What does a health educator do?

A

Devises strategies to prevent illness

195
Q

What does a population health advocate do?

A

Works with local, state and national groups to develop and implement public policy

196
Q

What does a community assessor and developer do?

A

Monitors and evaluates care and health programs

197
Q

What does a case manager do?

A

Provides referrals and links to community resources; help guide people to the resources that they need

198
Q

What does an advocate do?

A

Refers people to other agencies

199
Q

Why do mentally ill people have limited access to care?

A

Both because they do not seek care at a high rate and because there are limited resources available

200
Q

A pt presents with cough, weight loss, fatigue and fever. The nurse suspects what?

A

TB

201
Q

How is TB treated?

A

Antimicrobial drugs

202
Q

What are older adults defined as?

A

65 and older

203
Q

What are the “five I’s” that can adversely affect the aging experience?

A

Intellectual impairment, immobility, instability, incontinence, and iatrogenic drug reactions (adverse reactions)

204
Q

What are the “three D’s” of intellectual impairment?

A

Dementia, depression, delirium

205
Q

What is an infant defined as?

A

One month to one year

206
Q

What is a newborn defined as?

A

Birth to one month

207
Q

What age is a child defined as?

A

Up to age 10, or when puberty begins

208
Q

What is the “5H” club when referring to children?

A

Hungry, hopeless, homeless, hugless, without healthcare

209
Q

A child under one year presents with failure to thrive, diarrhea, and developmental delays. The nurse suspects what?

A

HIV

210
Q

What is the number one cause of death in children up to age 21?

A

Injuries

211
Q

What age group of children are at highest risk for pedestrian and bike accidents?

A

School age

212
Q

The airway is easily occluded in what age group?

A

Infants

213
Q

A pt presents with impaired vision, headache and clear nasal discharge. The nurse suspects what?

A

Pituitary gland adenoma

214
Q

In which endocrine condition will the pt excrete a large amount of diluted urine?

A

Diabetes insipidus

215
Q

What happens to serum sodium in syndrome of inappropriate antidiuretic hormone (ADH) secretion?

A

It is diluted

216
Q

Is myxedema crisis caused by under- or overproduction of thyroid hormone?

A

Underproduction

217
Q

Are thyroid enlargements caused by too little or too much thyroid hormone?

A

May be caused by either

218
Q

What happens to serum and bone calcium in hyperparathyroidism?

A

Serum calcium increases and bone calcium decreases

219
Q

What happens to serum calcium in hypoparathyroidism?

A

It decreases

220
Q

What occurs in pheochromocytoma?

A

There is too much epinephrine in circulation

221
Q

What happens if pheochromocytoma is not treated?

A

May be fatal

222
Q

A pt presents with headache, diaphoresis and palpitations. What endocrine disorder does the nurse suspect?

A

Pheochromocytoma

223
Q

What is Addison’s disease?

A

Too little cortisol, aldosterone, androgens

224
Q

What is Cushing’s disease?

A

Too much cortisol

225
Q

When does a pituitary adenoma usually manifest?

A

Early adulthood

226
Q

What is a hypophysectomy and what is one thing it may be done for?

A

Surgical removal of the pituitary gland - may be done for pituitary adenoma

227
Q

Diabetes insipidus is caused by an underproduction of what hormone?

A

ADH

228
Q

A pt presents with polyuria, extreme thirst for cold drinks, headache and visual disturbances. The nurse suspects what?

A

Diabetes insipidus

229
Q

Urine specific gravity in diabetes insipidus will be what?

A

1.005 or less

230
Q

What electrolyte imbalance should be monitored for in diabetes insipidus?

A

Hyponatremia

231
Q

Why should a pt with diabetes insipidus avoid hot weather and extreme exertion?

A

May lead to dehydration

232
Q

What is another name for ADH?

A

Vasopressin

233
Q

A pt presents with headache, flu-like symptoms, and N/V. What endocrine disorder does the nurse suspect?

A

SIADH

234
Q

What happens to T3 and T4 levels in hyperthyroid?

A

They will be high

235
Q

What kind of meals should hyperthyroid pts eat and how often?

A

Should eat small meals often

236
Q

What is thyrotoxicosis caused by?

A

Excess thyroid hormone

237
Q

Is thyrotoxicosis a serious condition?

A

Yes, it is life-threatening

238
Q

What is thyrotoxicosis normally precipitated by?

A

Infection

239
Q

A pt presents with tachycardia, high fever and hypertensive crisis. The nurse suspects what?

A

Thyrotoxicosis

240
Q

What is the most common form of hypothyroid?

A

Hashimoto’s

241
Q

The effects of what three classes of meds will be prolonged with hypothyroid?

A

Analgesics, anesthetics and sedatives

242
Q

What dangerous symptom can myxedema crisis cause?

A

Respiratory depression

243
Q

What is a normal serum calcium level?

A

9-10.5 mg/dL

244
Q

Painful bones and renal stones are symptoms of what?

A

Hyperparathyroidism

245
Q

Serum calcium will be above what in hyperparathyroidism?

A

Above 10.5

246
Q

Why should a pt with hyperparathyroidism be kept hydrated?

A

To avoid kidney stones

247
Q

Why should mobility be encouraged in pts with hyperparathyroidism?

A

To maintain bone density

248
Q

What is the major symptom of hypoparathyroidism?

A

Muscle spasms

249
Q

What is hypoparathyroidism treated with?

A

Vitamin D supplements

250
Q

What type of diet should someone with a pheochromocytoma be on?

A

High sodium

251
Q

Which endocrine disorder involves adrenal gland insufficiency?

A

Addison’s disease

252
Q

A pt presents with muscle weakness, fatigue, salt craving, irritability. The nurse suspects what?

A

Addison’s disease

253
Q

What is the treatment for Addison’s disease?

A

Hormone replacement therapy

254
Q

What happens to BP in Addisonian crisis?

A

Shock

255
Q

What is Addisonian crisis often precipitated by?

A

Infection

256
Q

What are the “Five S’s” in the treatment of Addisonian crisis?

A

Salt, sugar, steroids, support, and search for precipitating illness.

257
Q

A pt presents with backache, fatigue, headache and disturbed sleep. Which endocrine disorder does the nurse suspect?

A

Cushing’s syndrome

258
Q

Which endocrine disorder is characterized by upper body obesity, thin arms and legs, and a “moon face”?

A

Cushing’s syndrome

Practice of Nursing IV (3 decks)

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