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Natural Gas Processes > Final > Flashcards

Final Flashcards

1
Q

In the field, what products are removed from natural gas to make it marketable?

A

Impurities, water, hydrocarbon liquids

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2
Q

Controlling delivery pressure of the gas may involve the use of ____ ____ ____ ____ to raise the pressure?

A

Pressure reducing regulators or compressors

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3
Q

Products are often extracted for their own value where?

A

at the processing plant

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4
Q

Some of the valuable products separated from natural gas?

A

Natural gasoline; Butane; Propane; Ethane; Methane

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5
Q

The rapid rise of the natural gas industry has depended on the new technology possible in the ______ industry

A

Pipeline

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6
Q

Each gas stream has its own composition, and that composition can change as the well continues to be produced, but the principal component is likely to be methane? T or F

A

True

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7
Q

Water Vapor is not considered an impurity in the gas stream? T or F

A

FALSE; Water vapor is not wanted in the gas stream

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8
Q

Physical properties of a gas stream are determined by analyzing the composition of pure gases in the stream. Then, the physical properties of the component gases are studied? T or F

A

TRUE

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9
Q

Absolute pressure is reported as pounds per square inch gauge (psig) T or F

A

FALSE; it is (psia)

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10
Q

Liquified petroleum gas (LPG) usually refers to propane and butane. These gases are removed from natural gas because? Letter a. Their valuables chemical plant raw feedstocks. B. They will corrode pipelines. C. They are used as gasoline blending stocks. D. They are lighter than methane

A

A. They are valuable as chemical plant raw feed-stocks. C. They are used as gasoline blending stocks.

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11
Q

Transmission and distribution systems may be damaged by all of the following: letter a. Hydrates; B. Hydrogen sulfide; C. Carbon dioxide D. Ethane

A

Hydrates, hydrogen sulfide and carbon dioxide BUT not ethane.

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12
Q

Natural gas that is produced along with crude oil

A

Associated Gas

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13
Q

Most common use for processed natural gas

A

Burned as a fuel

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14
Q

At the time of measurement, gauge pressure is the pressure above or below _____ ______

A

Atmospheric Pressure (14.7 psi)

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15
Q

Atmospheric and the gauge pressures added together

A

Absolute pressures

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16
Q

Natural gas is usually 95 to 98 percent ____

A

Methane

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17
Q

Natural gas is usually a straight-chain or cyclic which refer to the ______ _______

A

Molecular structure

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18
Q

How much should be added to gauge reading for absolute pressure to be accurate?

A

14.7 psi

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19
Q

Additive nature of partial pressures is expressed by _______ Law

A

Dalton’s

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20
Q

Convenient standard used with a standard temperature when comparing different quantities (volumes) of gas is the

A

Pressure Base.

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21
Q

The ratio of the mass of a given volume of the gas to the mass of an equal volume of air?

A

Specific Gravity

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22
Q

Gravity of a liquid in degrees API is determined by its density at what degree?

A

60 degree F and is independent of temperature

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23
Q

Absolute temperature scale based on the Fahrenheit scale?

A

Rankine’s scale

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24
Q

Zero on the Rankine’s scale is equal to ____ F?

A

460 degrees F

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25
Q

Methane chemical symbol

A

CH4

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26
Q

Methane’s molecular weight

A

16.043

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27
Q

Mass in pounds of a given element which is equal to its atomic weight is termed _______. The mass of a compound is expressed in pounds numerically equal to its molecular weight is termed _______

A

pound-atom; pound-mol

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28
Q

The critical pressure is the pressure at which the gas will liquify at its __________ __________

A

critical temperature

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29
Q

The temperature above which gas will not liquefy no matter how much pressure is applied?

A

Critical Temperature

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30
Q

The relationship between pressure, temperature, and volume of a quantity of gas

A

Ideal Gas Law

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31
Q

When hydrocarbons migrate through channels to regions of lower pressure they travel deeper into the earth. T or F

A

FALSE

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32
Q

Porosity indicates a ratio of the empty spaces in the rock to the solid spaces in the rock. T or F

A

True

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33
Q

All of the water originally contained in the pores of reservoir rock was displaced when migrating oil and gas entered the reservoir. T or F

A

FALSE

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34
Q

Indicates a ratio of the empty spaces in the rock to the salt spaces in the rock.

A

Porosity

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35
Q

Gas has a greater displacement Drive than water thus making depletion drives more effective. T or F

A

FALSE

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36
Q

Hydrocarbon pore volume may be expressed in cubic feet, barrels, or acre-feet the volume of liquid or solid required to cover one acre to a depth of 1 foot. T or F

A

TRUE

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37
Q

The effective reservoir volume of a well multiplied by the recoverable gas per acre foot results in the total recoverable gas available. T or F

A

TRUE

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38
Q

Determining Wells back pressure relationship makes it possible to analyze many operating problems and to predict future behavior. T or F

A

TRUE

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39
Q

In order for migrating petroleum to accumulate into a commercial amount, it must be stopped by a trap that is? Letter a. Permeable. B. Non-permeable C. Porous D. Sandy

A

Non-permeable

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40
Q

The empty spaces in the reservoir rock are called? A. Folds. B. Conntes. C. Pours. D. Grains.

A

Pores

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41
Q

Foretelling the future of a Gas well may depend on? A. Predicting it’s pressure decline. B. Estimating its abandonment pressure. C. Determining how much it will cost to compress the gas of the wellhead. D. All of the above

A

D. all of the above

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42
Q

Bottom hole pressure as provided by shut in wellhead pressure test can be influenced by? A. Water in the guestroom. B. Condensates at the bottom of the hole. C. Either of the above

A

C either of the above. Water in the gas strain; condensates at the bottom of the hole; either of the above

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43
Q

Gas produced from oil wells?

A

Associated or casing house gas

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44
Q

Gas produced from a reservoir not containing oil

A

Non-associated gas

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45
Q

Gas dissolved in oil

A

Solution gas

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46
Q

Gas that rises to a gas cap

A

Free gas

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47
Q

An underground, porous, permeable rock body in which oil or gas is stored?

A

Reservoir

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48
Q

Which sedimentary rocks are most common reservoir rocks?

A

Sandstone and Carbonates

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49
Q

The pores and rock are connected in such a way as to make fluid passage between them possible?

A

Permeable

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50
Q

Reservoir contains water gas or oil in layers from top to bottom

A

Gas oil water

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51
Q

In a water Drive, Water _______ the hydrocarbons when they enter the wellbore.

A

Replaces

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52
Q

If the reservoir pressure stays reasonably high it may be misinterpreted as a high gas reserve when is actually caused by an influx of?

A

Water

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53
Q

Determining how much oil or gas and oil reservoir is called a __________ calculation.

A

Volumetric

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54
Q

Determination of a reservoir pressure is best made by bottom hole pressure measurements during adequate blank time?

A

Shut – in

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55
Q

The portion of hydrocarbon that cannot be removed from a saturated reservoir by ordinary methods?

A

Residual gas saturation

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56
Q

When you subtract the volume of gas and estimated abandonment pressure from the volume of gas at standard conditions initially contained in an acre foot of reservoir determines what?

A

The recoverable gas reserves per acre foot of a reservoir

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57
Q

After production starts, the pressure to climb versus cumulative method can be used to further determine

A

Gas reserves

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58
Q

The relationship between the daily rate of delivery of gas at a well and the reservoir pressure decline is usually referred to as the_________ behavior of a well

A

Back pressure

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59
Q

Safety equipment sometimes functions automatically according to flow velocity. T or F

A

True

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60
Q

A long narrow oilfield would probably be best served by a loop gathering system. T or F

A

False; Best served by main trunk systems

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61
Q

Types of equipment built into a field gathering system will depend on how many impurities must be removed from the gas train before can be moved to a more centralized location? T or F

A

True

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62
Q

Variables that may affect the size of casing, tubing, and Wellhouse equipment chosen at a well may be: A. Expected rate of flow be. Possible fluid erosion see. Possible chemical corrosion D all of the above

A

D all of the above

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63
Q

All of the following our methods of preventing chemical corrosion except: A plastic coatings B. chemical injection C. dehydration D special alloy steels

A

C. Dehydration

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64
Q

Varying producing rates can cause stress on the tubing string because of A. Pressure variation B. Temperature variation C. Column variations

A

B. Temperature variations

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65
Q

Safety valves function when there are: A. Overpressure conditions B. Possible blow out conditions C. Under pressure conditions D. Any of the above

A

D. Any of the above

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66
Q

Deep wells usually have more serious corrosion problems than shallow wells because

A

The flowing temperatures are higher

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67
Q

When a plastic lining is used to prevent corrosion, any areas left uncoated are called

A

Hotspots

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68
Q

Chemical inhibitors used to prevent corrosion are usually put in at the wellhead by

A

Batch treatments or continuous injection

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69
Q

The American petroleum Institute has standardized what tight fittings used at wellheads

A

Flanged or studded

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70
Q

Wellhead chokes may be _________ or ___________

A

Positive or adjustable

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71
Q

Corrosion protective devices at the wellhead may consist of water containers for _______ or the placement of metal strips called _______ to check corrosion chemicals in the wellspring

A

Iron count observations; coupons

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72
Q

Four types of gathering systems

A

A. Single trunk B. Loop C. Multi trunk D. Combinations

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73
Q

Gas production at high temperatures may cause the problem of_____ _______; gas produced at low temperatures may cause a problem of_______ ___________?

A

Steel expansion; hydrate formation

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74
Q

Basic producing equipment includes _____. The ________ that start and stop the flow and the gauges and thermometers that measure the gas______ and _____________

A

Pipes; valves; pressure; temperature

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75
Q

Field processing of natural gas includes the separation of the gas from hydrocarbon condensate. T or F

A

True

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76
Q

A vertical separator is typically used were the Wellstream has a high gas – oil ratio. T or F

A

False

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77
Q

A horizontal separator can handle produced sand better than a vertical separator? T or F

A

False

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78
Q

Filter separator’s are better able to handle small size liquid or solid particles that are conventional separators. T or F

A

True

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79
Q

Stage separation allows the recovery of a more stable stock – tank liquid. T or F

A

True

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80
Q

Low – temperature separation systems must always use hydrate inhibitors. T or F

A

False

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81
Q

A problem with the use of low – temperature separation units is the high stock – tank vapor loss. T or F

A

True

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82
Q

Filled processing of natural gas includes A. Removal of condensable water B. Injecting odorants C. Increasing the specific gravity of the gas D. Provisions for reentrainment of separated oil and gas

A

A. Removal of condensable water

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83
Q

An advantage of horizontal separators is that? A. it does not require much space for installation B. It is best for handling the low gas-oil ratio wellstreams C. It is easier to hook up, is your service, easier to skid mount D. I can handle sand problems better than a vertical separator

A

C. It is easier to hook up, easier to service and easier to skid mount

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84
Q

The following statement best describes filter separators: A. They are superior to conventional units for removing slugs of water B. They have considerable pressure drop across filter cartridges C. They’re capable of removing all of the five-micron and larger particles from the stream when operating properly D. They cannot be made to remove both solid and liquid particles

A

C. They are capable of removing all of the five-micron and larger particles from a stream when operated properly

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85
Q

Stage separation – A. Provides an infinite number of separation stages B. Requires a storage tank C. Allows two or more equilibrium flashes at consecutively lower pressures. D. Allows liquefied propane and butane story entrain with the gases

A

C. Allows two or more equilibrium flashes at consecutively lower pressures

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86
Q

The most common accomplishment of field processing is the separation of the wellspring gas from?

A

Free liquids

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87
Q

Three basic types of conventional separators in wide use are?

A
  1. Vertical; 2. Horizontal; 3. Double barrel horizontal
88
Q

Do you need designed to remove small particles of liquids and solids is a _______ separator

A

Filter

89
Q

In a four stage separation system what is the fourth separation stage?

A

Storage tank

90
Q

The low – temperature separation process is one of intentional ________ formation and controlled melting

A

Hydrate

91
Q

A mechanical refrigeration system is often used when well – stream flowing __________ are too low to provide expansion for cooling

A

Pressures

92
Q

Prior to the expansion of the gas with the choke the system in which a hydrate inhibitors use provides for injection of?

A

Glycol

93
Q

Stabilization of condensates results in a large volume of_________ liquids available for sale?

A

Stock tank

94
Q

Hydrate formation a gastrin can result in partial or complete blockage of flow lines. T or F

A

True

95
Q

Temperatures below the freezing point of water 32°F are necessary for hydrate formation. T or F

A

False

96
Q

Methanol and/or glycol injection into gas streams is sometimes used to prevent hydrate formation. T or F

A

True

97
Q

And indirect flow – line heater is commonly used where hydrate formation is only rarely a possibility. T or F

A

False;

98
Q

Safety drilling a T, L, or return Bends refers to a method that provides early detection of leaks due to corrosion and/or erosion in heater coils. T or F

A

True

99
Q

Hey flowing gastrin contains 20 pounds of water per cubic feet at atmospheric pressure and 60°F hydrates will form at

A

70°F and 1500 psia

100
Q

Ammonia, Briens, glycol and methanol are preferred as hydrate inhibitors– A. When the hydrate problem is serious and frequent. B. When the hydrate problem exists only a few days a year. C. On long-distance gas pipelines. D. Where it is necessary to raise the freezing temperature of entrained water

A

B. When the hydrate problem exists only a very few days of each year.

101
Q

Flowline heaters are good choice for preventing hydrate formation. Letter a. Where personnel are on duty at all times to observe the operation. B. For long-distance pipeline transmissions. C. Where dehydration of the gas is not economical choice. D. Where electric power is readily available

A

C. Where dehydration of the gas is not an economical choice

102
Q

The term dewpoint means the temperature which natural gas of any specify pressure is saturated with water vapor. T or F

A

True

103
Q

A hot gas stream at a specified pressure requires less water vapor than a cooler want to reach the saturation point. T or F

A

False

104
Q

There are two types of hydration equipment and both use solid desiccants. T or F

A

False

105
Q

A dilute glycol solution can be re-concentrated by fractional distillation. T or F

A

True

106
Q

Contamination of glycol in the dehydration plant is seldom a problem. T or F

A

False

107
Q

Glycol is used in the dehydration plant sometimes phone with hydrocarbon condensate emulsions, some inhibitors and corrosion products. T or F

A

True

108
Q

A solid or dry desiccant dehydration system will provide the highest possible dew-point depression. T or F

A

True

109
Q

Adsorption processes do not involve chemical reactions. T or F

A

True

110
Q

Dry desiccant dehydration units are not up to be affected by slugs of liquid water. T or F

A

False

111
Q

Hydrogen sulfide is an undesirable component of a Gastro but carbon dioxide presents no problems. T or F

A

False

112
Q

Sour crude is a term indicating that the crude oil contains an undesirable quantity of carbon dioxide

A

False; it contains hydrogen sulfide

113
Q

Sour gas is a term indicating that the gas contains an unacceptable quantity of hydrogen sulfide

A

True

114
Q

Gas sweetening is a process that removes sulfur gases from natural gas. T or F

A

True

115
Q

The iron sponge process of gas sweetening is particularly suitable to gas streams having large volumes of H2S. T or F

A

False

116
Q

The oldest acid-gas removal process used in industry is one using iron oxide (Fe2O3). It is called _____ ______ sweetening

A

iron sponge

117
Q

Electric motors are rarely used to drive gas compressors in the field. T or F

A

True

118
Q

A two stroke cycle internal combustion engine produces a power stroke for each revolution of the engine. T or F

A

True

119
Q

Supercharging an inch and will cause it to burn fuel less efficiently

A

False

120
Q

Maintenance on internal combustion engines tends to decrease in terms of dollars per horse power per year as the size of the engine increases. T or F

A

True

121
Q

The vast majority of compressors used for gas service are of the reciprocating type. T or F

A

True

122
Q

The cylinders of a compressor may be made from great Casteel. Casteel cylinders provide the highest permissible working pressures. T or F

A

False

123
Q

Force and work our word to used to express the value of torque. T or F

A

False

124
Q

The ratio of compression of the compressor is the ratio of the absolute discharge pressure to the absolute suction pressure. T or F

A

True

125
Q

The clearance volume in the cylinder of a compressor is usually expressed as a percentage of the piston displacement volume. T or F

A

True

126
Q

The power output of the gas turbine is a direct function of the heat energy (BTUs) released in the combustor. T or F

A

True

127
Q

The hot exhaust gases from a gas turbine are always wasted into the atmosphere. T or F

A

False

128
Q

Centrifugal compressors are low-speed devices that are best driven by reciprocating engines

A

False

129
Q

An error signal is the difference between the desired and the actual values of the controlled variable. T or F

A

True

130
Q

A bourdon tube they commonly C shaped metal tube steel that one in, measures temperature or pressure because it’s out of circumference is greater than its inner, and higher temperature or pressure will tend to straighten the tube and higher temperature air temperature. T or F

A

True

131
Q

A bellows or diaphragm unit can be used to measure liquid level because of hydrostatic pressure of the liquid, but the unit must be used in a closed container. T or F

A

False

132
Q

Most valves on the wellhead operate automatically. T or F

A

False

133
Q

The linear flow characteristic of a valve is determined chiefly by its size. T or F

A

False

134
Q

Valve actuators are classified according to the form of input signal and output power used. T or F

A

True

135
Q

When a proportional controller reacts to a change in the controlled variable, it’s response is to change the manipulated variable in proportion to the change in the controlled variable. T or F

A

True

136
Q

Automatic safety shutdown valves are necessary at the wellhead to shut in the well in the event of overpressure or under pressure upstream of the well. T or F

A

False

137
Q

Hydrocarbon separation units almost certainly contain instruments to control flow rate, temperature, pressure and liquid level. T or F

A

True

138
Q

Liquid level controls are of the proportional plus reset type. T or F

A

False

139
Q

There is no useful relationship between the pressure drop across an orifice and the volume of gas flowing through the orifice. T or F

A

False

140
Q

Straightening veins are usually bundles of small diameter tubing welded together and placed in the upstream section of the meter run. T or F

A

True

141
Q

There is no practical way to replace orifice plate without first shutting down the line. T or F

A

False

142
Q

The differential pressure across an orifice plate is always measured in inches of mercury. T or F

A

False

143
Q

Become an instrument for measuring the specific gravity of gas compares the density of the gas with the density of air. T or F

A

True

144
Q

The differential pressure recording element of an orifice meter installation must never be installed below the orifice. T or F

A

False

145
Q

Your first flow constant, C1, contains a factor to correct for the contract temperature base. T or F

A

True

146
Q

Water vapor in natural gas can cause errors in volume measurement. Unless the amount of water is accounted for, the errors at pressures above 200 psig are apt to be large. T or F

A

False

147
Q

Repairs to and refilling of faulty Bellows meters in the field are recommended. T or F

A

False

148
Q

One of the checks to be made on an orifice plate is to compare the actual orifice bore (as measured with a micrometer) to the value stamped on the plate. T or F

A

true

149
Q

Corrosion of meter installation is due to hydrogen sulfide usually comes from H2 S in the surrounding atmosphere rather than the connecting piping system. T or F

A

True

150
Q

Displacement meters are not used in field measurement of natural gas. T or F

A

False

151
Q

Orifice meters are not satisfactory for gas liquids measurement. T or F

A

False

152
Q

Gas testing is a part of field handling it is usually a form of measurement.

A

True

153
Q

The charcoal test of natural gas is an adsorption process. T or F

A

True

154
Q

A constriction in a flow line will cause a pressure drop in the flowing fluid. This pressure drop is called _______ pressure.

A

Differential

155
Q

When planning on constructing a meter run, it is advisable to make direct references to

A

AGA report #3

156
Q

The use of straining veins will reduce the amount of________ _______ required upstream of the orifice.

A

Straight pipe

157
Q

Three types of differential pressure measuring devices are in common use for gas measurement

A

Mercury manometer; Bellows unit; force-balance unit

158
Q

The secondary element of an orifice meter is the__________.

A

Recorder

159
Q

A rule of thumb for gas measurement states that the differential range of the meter in inches of water should not exceed the_______ ____________ in pounds per square inch absolute

A

Static pressure

160
Q

Recording gravitometers may be used where desirable or required. Types most frequently used are those making use of_________ methods and those using the___________method.

A

Weighing; momentum

161
Q

The pipe or tubing that connects the flange on pipe taps to the differential pressure element of the meter should be______inch nominal diameter for lengths to 15 feet and ______inch diameter for lengths to 40 feet

A

1/4; 1/2

162
Q

In the flow equation, the quantity (sq root of HwPf) is commonly referred to as the

A

Pressure extension

163
Q

Maintenance of a chart recorder includes cleaning and inking the recording pens. The static pressure pen should be adjusted to record behind (lag) the differential-pressure pen approximately______ minutes on a 24 hour chart and______ hours on a seven day chart.

A

15; 2

164
Q

Natural gas a 500 psia and 60°F at the saturation point contains 30 pounds of water per million cubic feet. The dew point of the gas is - A. 60°F. B. 20°F. C. 50°F. D. 30 pounds

A

A. 60°F

165
Q

In a liquid desiccant dehydrator, A lean solution is - A. a drawing or dehydrating medium. B. A Water-rich solution containing less than 95% glycol. C. A glycol water solution containing 95 to 99% glycol. D. None of the above

A

C. A glycol water solution containing 95 to 99% glycol

166
Q

In a typical liquid desiccant dehydrator unit, the wet gas passes first through the - A. Glycol surge tank. B. Oil water gas separator. C. Reflux condenser. D. Glycol absorber

A

B. Oil – water – gas separator.

167
Q

The loss of glycol in a liquid desiccant dehydrator plant is a common problem. Normal loss in a good unit will amount to-A. About 0.1 gallons of glycol per million cubic feet of gas passing through the unit. B. About 1 gallon per million cubic feet. C. Between four and 5 gallons per million cubic feet. D. Between two and 3 gallons per million cubic feet.

A

a. About 0.1 gallons of glycol per million cubic feet of gas passing through the unit

168
Q

Solid desiccant dehydrators provide the highest possible to point depression. It is common to process gas through the systems and have an outlet gas containing less than 0.5 of a pound of water vapor per million cubic feet. In an average system this dryness might correspond to a dewpoint of-A. 10°F. B. -10°F. C. -15°F. D. None of the above

A

D. None of the above

169
Q

In the dehydrator unit, adsorption refers to-A. The chemical process of taking water out of gas. B. The action of glycol on water. C. The ability of a solid substance to capture and hold vapors and liquids. D. A regeneration gas cooler for condensing water from the hot regeneration gas.

A

c. The ability of a solid substance to capture and hold vapors and liquids

170
Q

In a two tower, dry desiccant dehydrator unit, the gas first passes through-A. A high temperature heater. B. An adsorption tower. C. a gas cooler. D. An inlet separator

A

D. An inlet separator

171
Q

Hydrates resemble snow, have a specific gravity of about 0.98 and will______in hydrocarbon liquids.

A

Sink

172
Q

For long-distance transmission, the gas in the pipeline will eventually reach ground temperature; therefore, the _______ will ultimately have to be removed.

A

Water

173
Q

For operations in hazardous area, flow-line heaters must be equipped with flame arrestors. These devices allow the heater to obtain enough _____ for combustion but prevent explosions or flames within the firetube from igniting a potentially hazardous atmosphere.

A

Air

174
Q

A calcium chloride water solution with inhibitor is used generally to prevent ______ of the water bath.

A

Freezing

175
Q

A Long-nose choke has an extended body that allows the choke orifice to be located within the indirect heater _______.

A

Bath

176
Q

Water vapor may be removed by bubbling the gas through certain liquids that have an affinity for water. When vapors removed in this manner, the operation is called

A

Absorption

177
Q

The gas leaving an absorber after contacting glycol is called

A

Dry gas

178
Q

Diethylene glycol and triethylene glycol our names for two common

A

Liquid desiccants

179
Q

In order to understand the varying conditions under which most liquid desiccant dehydrators operate, it is necessary to consider the effects of the 4 following major operating variables

A

Gas pressure; gas temperature; solution rate; solution concentration

180
Q

Over normal pressure range up to 1200 psi, about ______ gallons of glycol must be circulate for every 1 pound of water removed at 55°F dewpoint depression.

A

2 gallons

181
Q

A common problem countered in the operation of a liquid desiccant dehydration unit is glycol __________ by foreign material

A

Contamination

182
Q

Glycol is typically re-concentrated in a ___________ equipped witch stripper and reflux condenser

A

Reboiler

183
Q

A typical dry desiccant might have as much as _____ million square feet of surface area per pound

A

4

184
Q

Dry desiccant such a silica gel and activated alumina remove water and other vapors by __________

A

Adsorption

185
Q

A bit of dry desiccant may be regenerated by either reducing its pressure or increasing __________

A

Temperature

186
Q

Solid or dry dessiccant units find their greatest application in _____ _________ ________

A

Gas transmission system

187
Q

The life of solid desiccants can be shortened by various contaminants. Name 4 probable contaminants

A

Amines; glycol; lubricating oil; corrosion inhibitors

188
Q

Severe fouling of a dry desiccant bed maker in the short time when treating a gas stream that contains both H2S and oxygen. The desiccant acts as a ________ to produce ________, which plugs the pores of the dessicant.

A

Catalyst; sulfur

189
Q

Dry desiccants adsorb the various components in a wet gas stream in a selective sequence. The first component adsorbed will be

A

Water vapor

190
Q

Hydrocarbon recovery units employ a variation of the _____ _________ dehydration process.

A

Dry desiccant

191
Q

Three advantages of the adsorption system for hydrocarbon recovery

A

Separate dehydration not required; few moving mechanical parts; high-pressure is not required

192
Q

Some gas dreams contain H2 S and carbon dioxide these under Zarbo components must be reduced in quantity or removed because-A. Both gases have an unpleasant sour older. B. Both components for masses in the presence of water become harmful corrosives. C. Most pipelines require that all traces of H2 S and CO2 be removed. D. H2S and CO2 cause water vapor in the processing equipment.

A

B. Both components for methods in the presence of water become harmful corrosives

193
Q

The most widely used process for removing ass gas is for natural gas dreams is the Alkanolamine process. You can generally be described as-A. A process that uses chemical absorption to remove ass gases. B. A process that uses woodchips impregnated with Hydrated iron oxide. C. A process that uses a dry desiccants as an absorber. D. A process using cryogenic technology.

A

Hey. A process that uses chemical absorption to remove acid gases

194
Q

In addition to H2 S and CO2 other gas components that need to be removed from a natural gas stream include-A. DEA and TEA. B. Carbon disulfide CS2 and carbonyl sulfide COS. C. Methane and monoethanolamine

A

B. Carbon disulfide CS2 and carBonyl sulfide

195
Q

The alkanolamine sweetening process uses a week base reacting with a weak acid to give a ________________ salt

A

Water-soluble

196
Q

In the alkanolamine process, the gas to be sweet and flows first to an inlet __________ . This _______ can be part of the absorber or a separate vessel.

A

Scrubber; scrubber

197
Q

The glycol/amine process uses a combined solution of monoethanolamine, glycol and _______ for the simultaneous removal of_____ ______, and ____________.

A

Water vapor; H2S; CO2

198
Q

The sulfinol process has the advantage of being able to remove _______, _______ and mercaptans as well as H2 S and CO2

A

COS; CS2

199
Q

H2 S and CO2 can be removed by use of molecular sieves in a ________ ______Unit

A

Dry bed

200
Q

Internal combustion engines maybe classified number number of ways including-A. Two-stroke or four stroke combustion cycle. B. Single or double acting power impulse. C. Cylinder arrangement. D. All of the above

A

D. All of the above

201
Q

A four stroke cycle internal combustion engine needs to revolutions of the crankshaft to complete the cycle. The four strokes include-A. Intake and compression. B. Supercharging an ignition. C. Scavenging an exhaust. D. All of the above.

A

A. Intake and compression

202
Q

Supercharging an engine may be done in several ways including-A. Using air blowers driven by belts from the engine flywheel. B. Using an electrically driven blower. C. Using a centrifugal compressor driven by an exhaust gas turbine. D. All of the above

A

D. All of the above

203
Q

Compressor cylinders may be made from Gray cast iron, nodular iron, Cast steel or forged steel which statement below best describes a type of cylinder? A. Gray cast iron can operate at the highest pressure. B. Nodular iron can have a tensile strength of 67,000 PSI C. Casteel cylinders are usually rated it working pressures of 2500 or 3000 PSI. D. Ford still will tolerate pressures of only 1500 psi

A

C precast steel cylinders are usually rated at working pressures of 2500 or 3000 PSI

204
Q

The ratio of compression of a compressor is the ratio of the absolute pressure of the discharge end to the absolute pressure of the suction end. the ratio of compression of a compressor that has a suction end pressure of 500 psi a and a discharge pressure of 3000 psia is- A. 621. B. 5.85 to 1. C. One and 2/3 to 1. D. 7.8 to 1.

A

A. 6 to 1

205
Q

Piston displacement of a compressor is measured in cubic feet per minute what will be the single action piston displacement of a compressor having the following dimensions piston head equals 50 in.²; stroke length equals 10 inches; speed equals 200 RPM?

A

C. 57.87 cubic feet per minute

206
Q

Compressors are designed originally to utilize the engine horsepower as fully as possible. The factors that affect unit capacity and developed horsepower are-A. Compressor cylinder clearance. B. Suction pressure and temperature. C. Discharge pressure and speed. D. All of the above.

A

D. All of the above

207
Q

A gas turbine engine is characterized by-A. Very hot exhaust gases useful for heating boilers oil heaters and so forth. B. Very high rotational speeds. C. Relatively low maintenance requirements on the engine itself. D. All of the above.

A

D. All of the above

208
Q

Natural gas often had to be flared at its production site earlier in the century. T or F

A

True

208
Q

Elemental Sulfur can be recovered from the carbon dioxide found in a well-gas. T or F

A

False; it is H2 S

208
Q

Some of the operations found in the processing plant are also performed in the field. T or F

A

True

208
Q

The main object of field handling of natural gas is too-A. Make it marketable. B. Make it expensive. C. Make money off it’s impurities. D. Do better welding of pipes.

A

Make it marketable

210
Q

The effective reservoir volume is established by-A. Determining the wells drainage area. B pre-determining a Wells pay thickness. C. Calculating both of the above.

A

C calculating both of the above

211
Q

Natural gas used to be flared out its production site because-A. It was considered dangerous. B. It had no known practical use. C. There was no way to transport it from the site. D. It was too expensive for consumers to buy

A

There was no way to transport it from the site

213
Q

Hydrocarbon pore volume refers to-A. The volume within the reservoir not occupied by rock. B. The number of pores and reservoir rock. C. The poor space volume occupied by hydrocarbons. D. The percentage of total poor space occupied by gas.

A

C. The pore space volume occupied by hydrocarbons.

215
Q

In a depletion drive, the energy to force fluids up the well-bore is that from________ expansion

A

Gas

Natural Gas Processes (1 decks)

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